Cognition Midterm Exam

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100 Terms

1
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what are the three components of communication?

1) input (vision/hearing/kinesthetics (body lang)/ proprioception)

2) processing (in brain)

3) output (oro-facial structures, extremities, speech)

2
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how is attention referred to?

in relation to a stimulus

3
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what is the difference between external and internal attention?

external; from the enviro (auditory stim/ light in room)

internal; from inside self (pain/ hunger/ stress)

4
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what are the two important features of attention?

1) capacity limitation (only so many things we can tend to at once)

2) selection of relevant stimuli (irrelevant is ignored)

5
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what type of attention does paced serial addition tasks measure?

sustained attention (1 task without distraction)

6
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what type of attention does the stroop task measure?

selective attention (select only one stimuli while filtering out the other- only looking at the color/ word)

7
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what type of attention does the walk and turn task measure?

divided/ alternating attention (2+ tasks at once/ shift between them- walking and counting and turning around)

8
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which area of the brain is primarily responsible for sustained attention?

bilateral superior temporal gyrus

9
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which area of the brain is primarily responsible for attention allocation?

right inferior frontal gyrus

10
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which area of the brain is primarily responsible for selective attention and attention control?

superior and medial frontal gyrus

11
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how would attention be impacted in RHD? TBI? Dementia? Aphasia?

1) RHD- usually impaired

2) TBI- usually impaired, may have neglect

3) dementia- usually impaired in later stages (except in early stages with lewey body)

4) aphasia- impaired sustained, difficulty allocating

12
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what is memory?

any retention of information beyond the life of the external stimulus

13
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what is immediate memory (aka sensory memory)?

shortest form of memory- highly tied to sensory input (about 1/3- 2 seconds)

14
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what is short term/ working memory?

temporarily store, manipulate, work with information from the immediate memory (20-30 seconds)

15
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how many items can most people actively store in working memory?

7 items (+/- 2 -> between 5-9 items)

16
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what type of information is stored in the articulatory/ phonological loop in working memory?

processing linguistic and acoustic information

17
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what type of information is stored in the visuospatial sketchpad in working memory?

visual, spatial, tactile, kinesthetic signals

18
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what are the three steps for memory formation? (LTM)

1) encoding (strategies: repeat/ rehearsal/ meaningful organization)

2) consolidation (forming the neural network)

3) storage (retain info for future use- more retrieval = stronger memory)

19
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what type of memory does the face recognition test measure?

LTM because of repetition (lots of faces were repeated -> consolidation)

20
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what are the two main types of long term memory (LTM)?

1) declarative/ explicit (semantic/ episodic/ lexical)

2) non-declarative/ implicit (motor/ cognitive skills)

21
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what are the three types of declarative memory?

1) semantic (words and their related concepts)

2) episodic (events and experiences)

3) lexical (words and vocabulary)

22
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what are the two types of non-declarative memory?

1) motor skills memory (performance- walking/biking)

2) cognitive skills memory (win a game/ problem solve)

23
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what is the main brain area for memory?

hippocampus, frontal/temporal/parietal lobe

24
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what are some subcortical areas in the brain for memory?

hippocampus, amygdala, basal ganglia

25
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what are some executive functions?

initiation, problem solving, planning, mental flexibility, judgement, inhibition, reasoning, self-regulation, metacognition

26
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what is the definition of executive functioning?

cognitive functions at a higher-level and more goal directed

27
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how does resource allocation in executive functioning change after a brain injury?

more resources are needed for automatic tasks -> previously simple tasks become more challenging and take longer

28
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which areas of the brain are important for executive functioning?

DORSOLATERAL prefrontal cortex and frontal lobe

29
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what is right hemisphere disorder (RHD)?

group of deficits and changes following insult to the right hemisphere of the brain (in note: cognitive communication disorder 2/2...)

30
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what are the main cognitive behaviors of RHD (6)?

1) neglect

2) anosognosia & prosopagnosia

3) topographical disorientation

4) constructural impairments

5) emotion difficulty

6) fundamental cognitive processes changes

31
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what are the main communicative behaviors of RHD (4)?

1) aprosodia (flat contour/ monotone/ understand emotions)

2) pragmatic difficulty (non-literal interpretation, inferencing)

3) discourse changes (both comprehension and production)

4) conversation difficulties (theory of mind)

32
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what are the neglect types?

personal (of own body -> somatophrenia- inability to perceive own body), peri-personal (within reach), extra-personal (beyond arms reach)

33
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what are the errors seen in neglect?

1) egocentric (viewer centered- miss entire L side)

2) allocentric (object centered- miss L side of object)

3) combination (miss L side object and L side of page)

34
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what is the main difference between neglect and hemianopia?

neglect: unaware, impaired attention

hemianopia: aware, sensory impairment

35
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what is anosognosia?

lack of knowledge/denial of deficits- may deny need for tx

36
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what is prosopagnosia?

inability to recognize faces in the absence of other visual agnosias (face blindness) -> also can impact perception of emotion on face!

37
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what is amusia? how is it impacted in RHD?

impaired recognition, production, reproduction of melodies and pitch

-> in RHD: difficulty recognizing music without lyrics (pitch= bad but language perception = good)

38
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what is topographical disorientation?

confusion about location in space -> difficulty describing how to travel from one place to another (or immediate enviro)

39
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what are constructural impairments?

difficulty assembling components to form objects/ drawings -> spatial relation deficits in RHD -> whole picture distortion

40
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how are emotions impacted in RHD?

difficulty recognizing/ using facial expressions/ poor emotional language or hypoarousal

41
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what are the main cognitive processes that can be impacted in RHD?

orientation/arousal, attention, memory, EF (OAME)

42
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what are some screeners used for RHD?

MoCA, MMSE, SLUMS, CLQT, RBANS

43
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what is the main battery for RHD assessment?

Right Hemisphere Language Battery (RHLB)

44
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what assessments aim at neglect and attention in RHD?

Test of Everyday Attention (TEA) & the Functional Assessment of Verbal Reasoning & Executive Strategies (FAVRES) and use an awareness questionnaire to supplement

45
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what battery aims at prosody in RHD?

Florida Affect Battery (FAB)- look at facial, vocal, cross-modal stimulation and methods

46
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what is Global Coherence in RHD?

the listener's perception of the speakers ability to maintain a unified theme in discourse (analyze C-Unites in utterances)

47
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what are the main treatment approaches for attention and neglect in RHD?

1) visual scanning training

2) lighthouse strategy

3) object centered neglect tx (different size stimuli)

48
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what are the main treatment approaches to target aprosodia in RHD?

1) cognitive affective tx (6 step hierarchy to match facial expression/ description/ definition)

2) motoric-imitative tx (unison, repeat, reading, cued)

49
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what are some etiologies of traumatic acquired brain injuries?

falls, assaults, car accidents, sports injuries, gunshot wounds, abuse/ domestic violence, shaken baby syndrome, military/blast injury

50
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what are some etiologies of non-traumatic acquired brain injuries?

CVA, meningitis/ infection, electric shock, tumors, reduced oxygen to brain, drug OD, neurotoxic poison, metabolic disorders

51
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what are the main types of TBI?

1) contact TBI (open or closed head injury)

2) non-contact TBI (brain moves within skill)

52
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what is the difference between open and closed head brain injuries?

OPEN: ruptures the meninges (focal and diffuse)

CLOSED: non-penetrating the meninges (mostly focal)

53
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what is the coup and countrecoup of contact TBIs?

COUP: localized damage, the point of contact

COUNTRECOUP: 2nd injury, where the brain hits the opposite side

54
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what are the three injuries that can occur during a blast?

PRIMARY: blast wave

SECONDARY: from the objects propelled by the blast

TERTIARY: person landing on solid object/ ground

55
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what is a diffuse axonal injury (DAI)?

extensive damage in the white matter tracts d/t twisting or shearing forces on the neurons

56
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what is the difference between a coma and a vegetative state?

COMA: no signs of awareness and no sleep/wake cycle

VEG STATE: some sleep-wake, return of reflexes, spontaneous eye opening (persistent- 1+ month, permanent- 1+ year)

57
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what are the criterion for a mild TBI (mTBI)?

loss of consciousness is less than 30 mins, GCS= 13-15, PTA= less than 24 hours

58
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what is chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)?

condition where hyperphosphorylated tau proteins build up in the brain (similar to Alzheimer's disease) -> progressive degeneration of neuro function

59
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what is the difference between retrograde and anterograde amnesia?

RETRO: can't remember events before injury (episodic info)

ANTERO: can't remember events after injury (new info)

60
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review the Glasgow Coma Scale!

severe TBI: 3-8

moderate TBI: 9-12

mild TBI: 13-15

<p>severe TBI: 3-8</p><p>moderate TBI: 9-12</p><p>mild TBI: 13-15</p>
61
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how is post-traumatic amnesia (PTA) measured?

the GOAT! (Galveston Orientation & Amnesia Test)

62
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what are the time frames for PTA for TBI severities?

severe TBI: more than 24 hours

mild TBI: less than or equal to 24 hours

63
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review the Ranchos Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Function!

knowt flashcard image
64
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what level on Ranchos do patients need to be at for an SLP eval?

Ranchos= at least a VI (confused but appropriate)

65
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what is a good assessment for memory in TBI?

Rivermeade Behavioral Memory Test (RBMT)

66
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what is controlling sensory stimulation for TBI patient treatment?

to maximize the awareness/ arousal of surroundings in a person with impaired consciousness -> manipulate rate, amount, duration, complexity of stimuli

67
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how do AAC needs change as patients progress through the Rancho levels?

I-III: early AAC, simple y/n, eye gaze

IV-VI: mid AAC, complex choices, voice outputs

VII-X: late AAC, ABC board, text to speech, stored messages

68
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what are the main treatment approaches to target attention in TBI?

direct attention training, metacognitive strategies

69
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what are the main treatment approaches for memory in TBI?

external memory aids, internalized memory strategies, spaced retrieval techniques

70
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what are the main treatment approaches for EF in TBI?

metacognitive strategies, training strategic thinking, multitasking instruction, functional every day approaches!

71
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what is the main treatment approach for social communication in TBI?

supported behavioral self-regulation -> great to do pragmatics in groups!

72
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how does healthy aging change cognition?

language, sustained attention, divided attention (simple tasks), LTM, and procedural memory = INTACT!

-> STM reduced

-> slight reduction in word finding and divided attention on complex tasks

73
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what is the key difference between MCI and dementia?

in MCI- ADLs are not affected, in dementia- ADLs are impacted!

74
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what is a mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?

changes in cognition that are significant enough not to be normal aging, but not severe enough to affect ADLs

75
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what are the three criteria for MCI?

1) self report of memory issues & family or caregiver agree

2) memory impairment scored on a standardized test

3) no impairment of reasoning/ thinking skills/ ADLs

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what are the two main types of MCI?

amnesic (memory is impacted) & non-amnestic (memory intact)

77
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what is the most common subtype of MCI?

amnestic single domain (only memory impairment)

78
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what is dementia?

an umbrella term for a collection of symptoms caused by different disorders affecting the brain -> a chronic persistent cognitive disorder

79
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what is Alzheimer's disease?

the most common form of dementia! caused by a beta-amyloid plaques (protein deposits in brain) and neurofibrillary tangles (tau protein build up in neurons) + degeneration of cortex and widening of ventricles

80
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what are the modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors for Alzheimer's disease?

MOD: diet, exercise, cognitive/ social engagement, heart health and reducing risk of TBI

NON-MOD: age, family hx, genetics

81
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what characterizes the early, middle, and late stages of Alzheimer's?

EARLY: reduced episodic & WM, reduced attention and EF, reduced w-finding and discourse

MID: reduced ADLs, wanderlust, sundowner syndrome

LATE: reduced motor fx, profound cog and comm deficits, require 24 hour care

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what is vascular dementia?

2nd most common dementia type! due to a cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease or circulatory disturbance that damages areas in the brain for memory or cognition

83
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what is the diagnostic criterion for vascular dementia?

evidence of cardio/vascular condition, cerebrovascular disease tied to onset of symptoms, focal neuro s/s, brain imaging w signs of lesions

84
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what are the primary symptoms of vascular dementia?

confusion, episodic memory impairment, reduced processing, wandering, rapid shuffling gait, difficulty following instructions & sudden onset related to vascular event

85
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what is frontotemporal dementia (FTD)?

a group of rare neurodegenerative disorders c/b behavior, personality and/or language changes

86
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what are the three main subtypes of FTD?

behavioral (bvFTD), language (PPA), motor (mvPPA)

87
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what is primary progressive aphasia (PPA)?

a subtype of FTD where episodic memory is largely preserved, however language impairment is the most negatively impacting ADLs

88
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what are the three subtypes of PPA?

semantic (svPPA), logopenic (lvPPA), and non-fluent (nfvPPA)

89
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what are the hallmark symptoms of semantic PPA (svPPA)?

PRIMARY: picture naming, single-W comprehension deficits

PLUS 3: reduced obj knowledge, surface dsylexia/ dysgraphia, ok repetition, ok grammar, ok motor speech

90
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what are the hallmark symptoms of logopenic PPA (lvPPA)?

PRIMARY: single W retrieval in picture naming, phrase/sent repetition difficulty

PLUS 3: phonemic paraphasias, ok comprehension, ok obj knowledge, ok motor speech, ok syntactic processing

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what are the hallmark symptoms of nonfluent PPA (nfvPPA)?

PRIMARY: agrammaticism, apraxia of speech

PLUS 2: reduced syntactic comprehension, ok comprehension of single Ws, ok obj knowledge

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what are the hallmark symptoms of the behavioral variant of FTD?

personality changes, apathy, reduced social/ judgment/ self control, reduced awareness of impacts, cognitive deficits are less dramatic than behavioral deficits

93
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what diagnosis commonly co-occurs with bvFTD?

ALS

94
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what are the two subtypes of the motor variant of FTD?

corticobasal degeneration & progressive supranuclear palsy

95
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what are Lewey bodies?

abnormal clumps of the protein alpha-synuclein (accumulate in the F+T lobes, cingulate, insula, SN, amygdala

96
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what are the 4 comprehensive assessments for dementia?

CLQT, RBANS, Dementia Rating Scale (DRS-2), Arizona Battery for Cognitive-Communication Disorders (ABCD-2)

97
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what are additional evaluations for memory and processing?

memory- complex figure drawing and recall

processing- emotional eval subtest of aware of social interference test

98
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what is the standardized assessment for PPA?

Sydney Language Battery (may have to substitute items for more "American" versions)

99
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what is the RAISE framework for person-centered assessment?

R- relationship (useful), A- assessment (dynamic), I- inclusion (complexity), S- support (reveal competency), E- evolve (adapt approach)

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what is the difference between direct and indirect interventions?

DIRECT: patient participates themselves

INDIRECT: training to caregivers/ modify enviro/ activities with others