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321 Terms

1
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True or false

Lab work on dogs shows he is azotemic. this confirms he has glomerular disease

  • False

  • protienuria with inactive sediment is the hallmark of glomerular disease

2
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What does an inactive sediment mean

  • a urine sample that is <5 white blood cells / high powr filed (hpf) and <10 red blood cells /hpf were observed

3
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How can you specifically diagnose what type of glomerular disease a animal has (the only way)

  • Only biopsy which is not commonly done though expensive and have to send it off

4
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Most common cause of proteinuria

  • Lower urinary tract disease (bacterial cystitis)

  • No need to run UPC ratio if active sediment present (because it will go away once infection clears)

5
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Four cirteria that define nephrotic syndrome and must have all four

  • proteinuria

  • hypoalbuminamia

  • hypercholesterolamia

  • ascites/edema

6
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How does leaking protein cause damage?

  • Protein escapes into the mesangium triggering inflammation

  • body response and you get formation of scar tissue

  • this pretty much kills the glomerulas when you have excessive scar tissue

  • the reamining gloemrulus have to pick up the load which also increases the pressure progressing the disease (snowball effect)

7
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What is the most common undelrying cause of glomerulonephritis?

  • Immunologic injury

  • this could be due to circulating antigen antibody complex depositing into the kidney or in situ

  • Note: many diseases can cause proteinuria so rule out any underlyig causes such as cancer or infectious diseases (most cases are idopathic)

8
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Glomerular disease is more common in cats or dogs?

  • Dogs

9
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Familial glomerular disease of soft coated wheaton terriers, Bernese moutain dogs, brittany spaniels

  • Membranoproliferative GN

10
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Familial glomerular disease of English cocker spaniels, Samoyed, Doberman pinchers and bull terriers

  • Basement membrane disorders

11
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Amyloidosis is a diverse group of diseases characterized by extracellular deposition of protein, subunits that form Beta pleated sheets

Amyloidosis can be classified by what two categories

  • Distribution of deposits

    • systemic (most common**)

    • Localized (pancreatic islet cells in cats)

  • nature of responsible protein

    • reactive (AA) most common

12
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Most common nature of amyloidosis is reactive systemic amyloidosis

can be associated with chronic infectious and non-infectious inflammatory disease and neoplasia

What is the most common cases in dogs and cats?

  • Idiopathic or familial

13
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Three dogs most commonly get familiar reactive systemic amyloidosis

  • Sharpie

  • Beagle

  • English foxhound

14
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Three common cats that get familiar reactive systeic amyloidosis

  • Abyssinian

  • Siamese

  • Oriental short hair

15
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Tissue distribution of amyloid deposits in dogs and cats widespread HOWEVER clinical signs are due to what organ involvement

  • Kidney involvement, causing chornic kidney disease

  • Amyloids like to deposit in the kidney

16
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What is the exception to amyloid deposits concerning tissue tropism of amyloid proteins

  • In sharpie dog, Siamese and oriental shorthair cats, you can also get severe liver involvement causing liver rupture and hemoabdomen

17
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With reactive systemic amyloidosis they commonly have tropism for kidneys

Which animal does the distribution of deposits within the kidney involve the glomerulus more so than medullary (exam)

  • Dogs

  • Note: including human and horses

  • important = you will get deposition in both, however with dogs you will see them more so in the gloemrular (important concept to understand)

18
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What exception of dogs has more medullary involvement compaired to glomerular

  • Sharpei dog

19
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With reactive systemic amyloidosis which animal has more medullary involvement rather than glomerular

  • Cats (including Abyssinian) and Sharpei

  • note: cow

20
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Dogs with amyloid deposition present with increased UPC because gloemrular is damaged

How do cats present if they get mainly medullary amyloidosis

  • Chronic kidney disease (tubules are affected) - present with isosthenuria

21
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which will give you a negative biopsy result for amyloid distribution

Glomerular or medullary

  • Medullary

  • you cant go in that deep to get biopsy

<ul><li><p>Medullary </p></li><li><p>you cant go in that deep to get biopsy </p></li></ul><p></p>
22
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Mean age for Shar-Pei dog that gets amyloidosis

  • Four years old (young dog)

  • more commonly black and fawn breed

23
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Shar-Pei dog presents with isosthenuria and self limiting fever with tibial joint swelling

What should be on your Ddx?

  • Amyloidosis with kidney involvement

  • this is known as Shar-Pei fever

  • they will have signs consistent with CKD and have history of recurrent acute self-limiting fever adn tibial joint swelling

  • Remember, they may also have severe liver involvement causing icterus, or Hemo abdomen due to liver rupture

<ul><li><p>Amyloidosis with kidney involvement </p></li><li><p>this is known as <strong>Shar-Pei fever </strong></p></li><li><p>they will have signs consistent with CKD and have history of recurrent acute self-limiting fever adn tibial joint swelling </p></li><li><p>Remember, they may also have severe liver involvement causing icterus, or Hemo abdomen due to liver rupture </p></li></ul><p></p>
24
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How much loss of function of teh kidney before an animal can become azotemic (excludign dehydration)

  • ¾

  • so if the animal is isothenuric with azotemia this means that they have lost a significant function of the nephron

25
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true or false

Glomerular disease is often a disease of middle aged to older animals

  • True

26
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There is no gender predilection for glomerular disease, however which gender of cats usually has GN

  • Males

27
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Six possible presentations of animals where you can also find glomerular disease

  • CKD (most common)

  • underlying infections, inflammatory or neoplastic disorder (glomerular disease due to antigen antibody complex)

  • proteinuria as a incidential finding

  • nephrotic syndrome

  • thromboembolism (loss of antithrombin 3, liver making more clotting factors)

  • sudden blindness (hypertension, causing retinal detachment)

28
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What is the best way to determine significance of proteinuria

  • Running a UPC

29
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Three differentials for hypoalbuminaemia

  • protein loosing neuropathy

  • liver disease

  • Protein loosing endocrine (cushings, hypothyroid)

30
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Normal UPC

  • <0.3-0.4

31
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on average, the highest UPC ratios are seen in patient with what type of liver disorder

  • Amyloidosis

  • specifically glomerular amyloidosis

  • Note: GN can range from normal to over 30 it is variable

32
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Where do you see the lowest UPC ratios

  • Interstitial renal disease

33
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Magnitude of urinary protein/urinary creatine correlates with severity of glomerular disease in only what type of patient

  • Non-azotemic patient

  • once they are azotemic, there is no correlation

34
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When is UPC unreliable? exam

  • In the presence of pyuria or severe hematuria

35
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If you have a azotemic patient and you see a decrease in their UPC does this mean they are improving?

  • No

    • cannot assess because there are azotemic

36
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Conventional dipstick tests can detect protein that is between 10-30 MG/DL

What test can you detect protein levels greater than one but below 10-30 mg/dl

  • Microabluminuria test

<ul><li><p>Microabluminuria test </p></li></ul><p></p>
37
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True or false

Microalbuminuria can be an early indicator of vascular endothelial damage however, prognostic values in dogs and cats are uncertain.

  • True

38
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Two commonly used drugs to decrease protienuria

  • Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE) (eg. Enalapril, Benazepril)

  • Angiotensin recptor blocker (Telmisartan)

  • The goal is to reduce hypertension

39
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ACE inhibitors and ARB inhibitors preferentially act where in the kidney (exam)

  • Efferent arteriole (this will promote vasodilation)

  • Decrease glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure (and proteinuria) by decreasing post-glomerular arteriolar resistance (efferent arteriole)

  • Note: have the potential to make patient azotemic

  • During rechecks, you measure, creatinine, potassium, blood pressure and UPC

40
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What do you want to change in the diet with an animal that has glomerular disease?

  • Lower protein intake

41
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If the animal has a very high amount of hypertenison, what can you also use in addition to your ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers?

  • Amlodipine

42
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Why are patients with glomerular disease high risk for thromboembolism?

  • They lose antithrombin in urine

  • this makes them hypercoagulable

43
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Most common drug used to day to prevent thromboembolism

  • Clopidogrel (platelet inhibitor)

44
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if you rule out infectious, neoplastic diseases, and a biopsy supports glomerulonephritis how do you empirically treat?

  • Immunosuppressive inflammatory therapy

  • If owner does not want to do biopsy you can still treat with immunosuppressive therapy

45
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What is the drug of choice for rapidly progressive glomerular disease of an apparent immune-mediated pathogenesis?

  • Mycophenolate

46
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What is the specific treatment for amyloidosis?

  • No specific therapy shown to be beneficial

47
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True or false

Hypertension occurs in 50 to 80% of dogs with glomerular disease.

  • True

48
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True or false

Control of blood pressure can slow progression of renal disease

  • True

  • Blood pressure should be measured in all dogs and cats with glomerular disease*** before you do anything else.

49
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Prognosis for amyloidosis and glomerular nephritis

  • Amyloidosis = poor

  • Glomerular nephritis = variable (spontaneous remission, stable for months to years, progresses to CKD)

50
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How can acute renal failure be defined?

  • Abrupt decline in renal function with a recent onset of azotemia

  • unable to regulate volume and composition of body fluids

51
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Is acute renal failure reversible

  • Potentially is

52
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Three categories of acute renal failure

  • Acute pre-renal

  • Acute intrinsic renal (primary)

  • acute post renal

<ul><li><p>Acute pre-renal </p></li><li><p>Acute intrinsic renal (primary) </p></li><li><p>acute post renal </p></li></ul><p></p>
53
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Three common causes of acute intrinsic renal failure

  • Nephrotoxic nephrosis

  • Nephritis

  • Ischemic nephrosis

54
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True or false

Systemic arterial hypertension is not required to cause ischemic nephrosis

  • True

55
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Lepto affects what two organs

  • kidney and liver

56
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What is a universal feature of all leptospirosis pathogenic serovars

  • They have the ability to colonize proximal renal tubules

  • (results in prolonged renal carrier state, and urine shedding)

57
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If a animla recovers from leptospirosis does it still shed?

  • Yes, they can shed it in their urine for months to years after infection

  • Note: wild animals are the reservoirs

58
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How are animals usually exposed to lepto

  • Through Mucocutaneous contact

  • Can also penetrate mucosa or abraded skin

59
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Leptospiremia occurs 4 to 12 days post-infection

it can affect the kidney liver or both

Why may you see thrombocytopenia with leptospiremia

  • causes vasculitis and DIC from widespread acute endothelial injury

60
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Most common cause of acute renal failure/nephritis

  • Leptospirosis

<ul><li><p>Leptospirosis </p></li></ul><p></p>
61
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Exposure to Neuro toxins/ischemia causes ___ injury

  • Tubular

  • Ranges from degeneration (nephrosis) to acute tubular necrosis (ATN)

62
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three pathophysiologies of acute intrinsic renal failure (nephrosis)

  • Afferent arteriolar constriction (vasomotor nephropathy hypertension)

  • Obstruction (intraluminal or extraluminal)

  • Tubular backleak (due to inflammation)

63
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How can NSAIDs cause ischemic AIRF

  • They block Reno prostaglandin synthesis, which is responsible for renal vasodilation

  • so if you have an animal that is dehydrated or hypovolemic this can cause ischemia (give it only to the healthy dog)

  • Not directly toxic

64
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Mechanism of injury with nephrotoxic AIRF

  • Cause direct cell injury rather than ischemia

  • bind tubular cell membranes, and decrease energy production causing cell death

  • some also cause renal vasoconstriction

65
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Describe the latent (induction) phase of AIRF

  • Often not detected

  • clinical signs are minimal or absent

  • if the agent is removed normal kidney function returns

66
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How can you define the maintenance phase of AIRF

  • Suddenly increased serum creatinine that persists despite correction of all pre-renal factors (hydrated)

  • note: do not know how long this phase can persist

  • characterized by severe drop in RBF and GFR

  • even if RBF returns to normal, GFR remains low

67
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true or false

when an animal is in the maintenance phase they become oliguric

  • False

  • they can have normal urine output, be oliguric, or polyuric

  • note: the older definition of AIRF required oliguria for diagnosis but not the new one)

68
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If you remove the insulitng agent that caused the AIRF during the maintenance phase will the kidney return to normal funciton

  • No

  • patient experiences a 1-3 week course before restoration of renal function can occur

69
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If a patient is oliguic in the maintenance phase why is it important to still put on a catheter?

  • Because they can go from oliguric to polyuric during the maintenance phase (better)

70
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During the recovery phase, what two outcomes can occur

  • You can have complete recovery

  • partial improvement

  • return of normal BUN and creatinine = POSSIBLE

  • partial improvement = CKD

71
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There is no single test to definitively diagnose AIRF

so how do you diagnose it?

  • History (should be recent and possibly an exposure to something nephrotoxic or ischemic)

  • physical exam (should have a normal BCS - not a chronic condition)

  • renal size (should be normal or big not small)

  • important = get your lab samples before you start treatment (such as fluids)

History:

  • absence of longstanding PU/PD, potential for renal ischemia or nephrotoxin exposure, oliguria, polyuria, non-specific signs

CBC:

  • especially PCV at outset

72
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on physical exam with acute renal failure what symptoms would you see?

  • Uremic symptoms (oral ulcers, uremic breath)

  • May exhibit back pain (renal pain)

  • Dehydration

  • Bradycardia if markedly hyperkalemic

  • normal to large kidneys

  • no evidence of lower urinary tract obstruction

  • Note: absence of pallor to mucous membranes

73
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Do you see anemia with acute renal failure?

  • No, not early on

  • this is more common with CKD

74
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How would your total proteins look with acute renal failure?

  • Normal to elevated (relative to dehydration)

75
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If animal with acute renal failure, also has thrombocytopenia, what should be on top of Ddx:

  • Lepto

76
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What do you see with urine concentration and glucose in AIRF pateint

  • Dilute urine (tubules arent working)

    • USG often 1.007-1.017

    • Does NOT differentiate AIRF from CKD (both have lwo USG)

  • Glucosuria (lack of function of glucose transporters in tubules)

77
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What might you see on urine sediment with AIRF

  • Casts

  • Oxalate crystals if Etheline glycol poisoning

  • Increased WBC, RBC tubular epithelial cells (reaction to tubular injury)

  • Note: if bacteria also present suspect pyelonephritis (ascending infection)

  • may be very active (cylindruria) but absence of casts does not exclude AIRF

  • increased numbers of oxalate crystals supports ad diagnosis of ethylene glycol poisoning in an oliguric AIRF patient

<ul><li><p>Casts </p></li><li><p>Oxalate crystals if Etheline glycol poisoning</p></li><li><p>Increased WBC, RBC tubular epithelial cells (reaction to tubular injury) </p></li><li><p>Note: if bacteria also present suspect pyelonephritis (ascending infection) </p></li><li><p>may be very active (cylindruria) but absence of casts does not exclude AIRF </p></li><li><p>increased numbers of <strong>oxalate crystals supports ad diagnosis of ethylene glycol poisoning </strong>in an oliguric AIRF patient </p></li></ul><p></p>
78
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What do you see on serum biochemistry in AIRF

  • BUN creatinine phosphorous increase severe (azotemia)

  • Note: cannot use the magnitude of azotemia to determine if it is AIRF versus CKD ***

  • OR differentiate between pre-renal, renal, and post-renal

79
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When would you see increase in serum potassium with AIRF

  • Severely impaired renal excretory function and olguria (decreased urine production will cause the increase in potassium causing the bradycardia)

  • Note: greater than 5.5

80
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Metabolic acidosis more severe in acute renal failure or chronic kidney disease

  • Acute renal failure

  • Note: specifically during maintenance phase

81
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Renal size with AIRF

  • Three times the length of L2 on ventral dorsal view

  • Note: normal or increased

<ul><li><p>Three times the length of L2 on ventral dorsal view </p></li><li><p>Note: normal or increased </p></li></ul><p></p>
82
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Additional finding on ultrasound with AIRF to support diagnosis

  • Increased echogenicity of the cortex (loss of corticomedullary distinction)

  • Note: normal ultrasound does not exclude AIRF

83
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What is the only cause of acute renal failure that can be inferred from ultrasound

  • Ethylene glycol intoxication

  • severe hyperechogenicity on ultrasound suggests possibility of ethylene glycol intoxication

<ul><li><p>Ethylene glycol intoxication </p></li><li><p><strong>severe hyperechogenicity on ultrasound suggests possibility of ethylene glycol intoxication </strong></p></li></ul><p></p>
84
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Which animals will have an enlarged parathyroid gland CKD or AIRF

  • CKD

  • secondary renal hyper renal parathyroidism

85
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Possible cause if nephritis versus glomerulonephritis

  • nephritis = Leptospirosis

  • glomerular nephritis = Lyme disease (Borrelia)

86
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Leptospirosis prognosis

  • Good with adequate supportive fluid and penicillin started early

87
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True or false

AIRF patient with SEVERE baseline azotemia during the maintenance phase often are successfully managed without dailysis

  • True (dialysis increases prognosis

  • over 80% of patience with AIRF and high level azotemia either die or be euthanized

88
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Main reasons animals with AIRF die or are euthanized

  • Hyperkalemia (animal is oliguric - potassium level increases substantively)

  • metabolic acidosis (owner elects euthanasia)

  • severe azotemia

  • overhydration and pulmonary edema due to vigorous fluid therapy

89
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How to measure volume of IV fluid fluids when treating AIRF

  • Separate 24 hours into four-hour blocks

  • account for insensible losses 20 mg/kg

  • add the measured urine output for the proceeding for hours

  • (20 ml/kg/6 + measured urine output preceding four hours

  • No “quick fix” (may require several weeks)

90
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How can you treat the hyperkalaemic aspect?

  • Insulin plus glucose (must include glucose)

  • Calcium gluconate

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What do you need to do if hyperkalemia persist even after attempting to treat it

  • Must proceed to dialysis

92
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What medication decreases shedding of leptospirosis and what can you give to treat carrier state?

  • Decreased shedding = penicillin

  • eliminate carrier state = doxycycline

93
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What enzyme converts Etheline glycol to glycolate

  • Alcohol dehydrogenase ( so this is where you intervene)

<ul><li><p>Alcohol dehydrogenase ( so this is where you intervene) </p></li></ul><p></p>
94
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Stages of Etheline glycol poisoning (exam)

  • Neurologic (30 minutes - 12 hours)

    • ataxia, stupor, seizures, coma

  • cardio pulmonary (12 hours - 24 hours)

    • Tachycardia, tachypnea

  • renal (24 hours - 72 hours)

    • initial PD/PU

    • progresses to profound oligo-anuric AIRF (almost always fatal once established

95
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What metabolite of ethylene glycol poisoning causes tubular damage

  • Calcium oxalate crystals (tubular back leak, obstruction, edema compromising RBF)

<ul><li><p>Calcium oxalate crystals (tubular back leak, obstruction, edema compromising RBF) </p></li></ul><p></p>
96
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Why can you get false negatives and false positives with ethylene glycol measurement tests

  • False negatives = test done too early or too late

  • false positives = other items such as propylene glycol, glycerol and metaldehyde can trigger it to be positive

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Clinical signs that are resumptive diagnosis for eg. poisoning

  • Alcohol like intoxication

  • PU/PD to oliguria

  • renal pain

  • progression to coma

98
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What findings will you see that can help you diagnose eg. poisoning on lab work

  • Dilute urine

  • oxalate crystalluria

  • anion gap metabolic

  • acidosis

  • progressive azotemia

  • hypocalcemia

99
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For best outcome of treating eg poisoning treat within how many hours of ingestion

  • Four hours

  • Do not wait for definitive test results start and induce vomiting and gastric lavage with activated charcoal

  • Attempt to stimulate urine production with furosemide

100
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What is the definitive treatment for eg poisoning to prevent metabolism of ethylene glycol

  • Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole)

  • compeititve inhibitor