Thẻ ghi nhớ: cco201 - passed | Quizlet

Question 1: What is the primary role of corporate communication practitioners?

A) Managing financial transactions

B) Creating, maintaining, and protecting reputation

C) Developing marketing strategies

D) Overseeing internal operations

B) Creating, maintaining, and protecting reputation

Question 2: Which of the following is a characteristic of internal communication?

A) Three-way interaction

B) Focus on promoting products

C) Four-way interaction

D) Use of public communication channels

C) Four-way interaction

Question 3: In the 1970s, corporate communication was primarily focused on:

A) Stakeholder engagement

B) Crisis management

C) Communicating with the press

D) Internal communication

C) Communicating with the press

Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a driver for the integration of PR and marketing?

A) Overlap in stakeholder roles

B) Demand for greater transparency

C) Increased message effectiveness through consistency

D) Separation of internal and external communication

D) Separation of internal and external communication

Question 5: What is a key difference between traditional media and new media?

A) Traditional media involves user-generated content.

B) New media uses a one-to-many communication model.

C) Traditional media has a broadcasting approach.

D) New media is controlled and planned.

C) Traditional media has a broadcasting approach.

Question 6: Which of the following is an advantage of corporate blogging?

A) Employees may write negatively about the organization.

B) Allows stakeholders and journalists to engage directly and unfiltered.

C) High cost of implementation.

D) Limited reach to users.

B) Allows stakeholders and journalists to engage directly and unfiltered.

Question 7: According to the stakeholder salience model, 'urgency' refers to:

A) The stakeholder's legal claim on the organization.

B) The degree to which the organization needs to respond to the stakeholder.

C) The stakeholder's ability to influence the organization's decisions.

D) The stakeholder's direct ownership of the organization.

B) The degree to which the organization needs to respond to the stakeholder.

Question 8: Which communication strategy involves a two-way symmetrical model?

A) Informational strategy

B) Persuasive strategy

C) Dialogue strategy

D) One-way asymmetrical model

C) Dialogue strategy

Question 9: What are the three elements of corporate identity?

A) Vision, culture, and image

B) Mission, values, and goals

C) Products, services, and branding

D) Leadership, management, and employees

A) Vision, culture, and image

Question 10: What is the purpose of a communication strategy?

A) To formulate a desired position in terms of how the organization wants to be seen

B) To create short-term plans for the organization

C) To respond to real-time events spontaneously

D) To avoid setting a clear vision

A) To formulate a desired position in terms of how the organization wants to be seen

Question 1: What does the term "corporate image" refer to?

A) The organization's mission and vision

B) The immediate set of individual responses to signals or messages from or about an organization

C) The collective representation of an organization based on past experience

D) The organization's internal culture and values

B) The immediate set of individual responses to signals or messages from or about an organization

Question 2: Which of the following is an example of a primary stakeholder?

A) Media

B) Special interest groups

C) Employees

D) Government agencies

C) Employees

Question 3: What is a key characteristic of the 'dialogue strategy' in communication?

A) One-way communication

B) Two-way asymmetrical communication

C) Two-way symmetrical communication

D) No interaction between the organization and stakeholders

C) Two-way symmetrical communication

Question 4: A company with a single, unified identity across all its products is following a:

A) Branded identity structure

B) Endorsed identity structure

C) Monolithic identity structure

D) Diversified identity structure

C) Monolithic identity structure

Question 5: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of communication technicians?

A) They are involved in strategic decision-making

B) They focus on tactical communication activities

C) They implement decisions made by others

D) They are responsible for producing brochures

A) They are involved in strategic decision-making

Question 6: What is the purpose of themed messages in communication?

A) To introduce new products

B) To emphasize aspects the organization wants to be associated with

C) To provide generic information

D) To criticize competitors

B) To emphasize aspects the organization wants to be associated with

Question 7: Which step in the communication program involves setting SMART objectives?

A) Step 1: Strategic intent

B) Step 2: Objectives

C) Step 3: Identify target audience

D) Step 4: Themed message

B) Step 2: Objectives

Question 8: What type of research involves describing content in numerical form?

A) Focus group

B) Survey

C) Content analysis

D) Interview

C) Content analysis

Question 9: Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?

A) Predefined attributes

B) Discrete data, statistically manipulated

C) Provides rich, anecdotal data with deeper insights

D) Easier to analyze statistically and compare over time

C) Provides rich, anecdotal data with deeper insights

Question 10: What does the Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM) suggest?

A) People process messages in the same way

B) People process messages differently based on their involvement

C) People only take a logical (central) route in processing messages

D) People only rely on emotional cues when processing messages

B) People process messages differently based on their involvement

Question 1: What is the 'amplifying effect' in media relations?

A) The media's ability to set the public agenda.

B) The influence of media bias on corporate communication.

C) How positive or negative news can shape public perspective of a company.

D) The way journalists alter intended messages.

C) How positive or negative news can shape public perspective of a company.

Question 2: According to the agenda-setting theory, what does the 'first level' determine?

A) How people think about a company.

B) Which companies receive more publicity.

C) The attributes highlighted by the media.

D) The influence of news organizations' watchdog role.

B) Which companies receive more publicity.

Question 3: What percentage of news about companies is estimated to be created and delivered by PR practitioners?

A) 50%

B) 60%

C) 70%

D) 80%

D) 80%

Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a tool for disseminating information in media relations?

A) Press release

B) Press conferences

C) Online newsroom

D) Internal newsletters

D) Internal newsletters

Question 5: What is the role of employee communication?

A) To control employees' external communication.

B) To ensure employees only receive top-down communication.

C) To balance employee needs and company objectives.

D) To limit employees' access to social media.

C) To balance employee needs and company objectives.

Question 6: What does 'downward communication' in an organization involve?

A) Information flow from employees to managers.

B) Communication between employees and managers about tasks.

C) Information flow from the top of the hierarchy.

D) Employees sharing information externally.

A) Information flow from employees to managers.

Question 7: What is 'organizational identification'?

A) The degree to which employees are silent about organizational issues.

B) The perception of oneness or belongingness to an organization.

C) The communication climate within the organization.

D) The structure and processes that enable employee participation.

B) The perception of oneness or belongingness to an organization.

Question 8: What is a characteristic of an 'open climate' in organizational communication?

A) Restricted communication.

B) Free exchange of opinions and suggestions.

C) Inefficient information flow.

D) Fostering silence among employees

B) Free exchange of opinions and suggestions.

Question 9: According to sociologist Mark Granovetter, what is the value of 'weak ties'?

A) They reinforce the same ideas.

B) They provide fresh perspectives.

C) They are within close-knit groups.

D) They are less valuable than strong ties.

B) They provide fresh perspectives.

Question 10: What is an 'issue' in issue management?

A) A severe threat to a company's existence.

B) An internal problem within the organization.

C) Public concern about company action.

D) A settled matter requiring no decision

C) Public concern about company action.

Question 1: What is the first stage in managing an issue?

A) Issue identification and analysis

B) Issue-specific response strategy

C) Evaluation

D) Environmental scanning

D) Environmental scanning

Question 2: Which analysis involves examining the broad external environment, including demographic, economic, social, and technological factors?

A) SWOT analysis

B) PEST analysis

C) Issue analysis

D) Stakeholder analysis

B) PEST analysis

Question 3: In the issue life cycle, at which stage can organizations exert the most influence on the issue?

A) Emergence

B) Debate

C) Codification

D) Enforcement

B) Debate

Question 4: Which issue response strategy involves attempting to delay the issue's development?

A) Buffering

B) Bridging

C) Advocacy

D) Thought leadership

A) Buffering

Question 5: What does 'issue framing' involve?

A) Ignoring the issue

B) Adapting activities to conform to expectations

C) Changing expectations and opinions

D) Shaping the interpretation of the issue

D) Shaping the interpretation of the issue

Question 6: Which of the following is a direct way for organizations to influence public policy?

A) Grassroots campaigns

B) Lobbying

C) Media attention

D) Mobilizing against the company

B) Lobbying

Question 7: What is a characteristic of 'radical' activist groups?

A) They aim to change business practices.

B) They believe business can be part of the solution.

C) They challenge the entire social or economic system.

D) They advocate for gradual change.

C) They challenge the entire social or economic system.

Question 8: What is a key objective of crisis management?

A) To deny the crisis

B) To exert control

C) To downplay the situation

D) To portray the organization as a victim

B) To exert control

Question 9: What does 'resilience' in crisis management refer to?

A) The capacity to predict and prevent potential crises.

B) The ability to cope with a crisis once it occurs.

C) Developing a crisis contingency plan.

D) Training employees to implement crisis plans.

B) The ability to cope with a crisis once it occurs.

Question 10: In a crisis communication strategy, what does 'remediation' involve?

A) Simply apologizing and accepting blame.

B) Asking for forgiveness.

C) Taking corrective action to prevent future crises.

D) Providing compensation to victims.

D) Providing compensation to victims.

Question 1: What does the term "sense of continuity" mean in the context of change communication?

A) Employees' resistance to change.

B) The need for employees to feel their work and role are meaningful despite change.

C) Management's ability to control employee behavior during change.

D) The speed at which organizational change occurs

B) The need for employees to feel their work and role are meaningful despite change.

Question 2: Which leadership style is characterized by using designated authority and incentives to motivate employees?

A) Transformational leadership

B) Transactional leadership

C) Situational leadership

D) Strategic leadership

B) Transactional leadership

Question 3: What type of organizational change involves a complete reorientation and restructuring of the organization?

A) Minor convergent change

B) Major radical change

C) Evolutionary change

D) Additive change

B) Major radical change

Question 4: In Kurt Lewin's change model, which phase involves recognizing the need for change?

A) Unfreezing

B) Vision

C) Moving

D) Refreezing

A) Unfreezing

Question 5: In Kotter's 8-step change model, what is the purpose of creating a sense of urgency?

A) To articulate a clear vision

B) To form a guiding coalition

C) To convince others of the necessity of change

D) To empower others to act on the vision

C) To convince others of the necessity of change

Question 6: Which change model includes the "Spray and Pray" approach?

A) Garvin and Roberto's change model

B) Clammit's model of change

C) Kotter's 8-step change model

D) Kurt Lewin's change model

B) Clammit's model of change

Question 7: What does the "Underscore and Explore" approach in change communication focus on?

A) Telling and selling a particular approach

B) Withholding information from employees

C) Core issues that relate to the change, with freedom for employee exploration

D) Management making changes without employee input

C) Core issues that relate to the change, with freedom for employee exploration

Question 8: Which factor affecting change communication strategies refers to achieving change with minimum expenditure of time, effort, and resources?

A) Consensus building

B) Communication efficiency

C) Equal dissemination

D) Equal participation

B) Communication efficiency

Question 9: When is high consensus-building required in change communication?

A) When changes are perceived as minor

B) When there is a history of resistance to change

C) When resources are scarce

D) When changes are convergent

B) When there is a history of resistance to change

Question 10: What is a common employee fear of change?

A) Increased job security

B) Gain of status or power

C) Uncertainty about their future role

D) Increased trust in leadership

C) Uncertainty about their future role

Question 1: In modern corporate communication, what shift is emphasized?

A) From economic entities to socially responsible entities

B) From stakeholder accountability to shareholder accountability

C) From corporate social responsibility to solely focusing on profit

D) From community involvement to avoiding social issues

A) From economic entities to socially responsible entities

Question 2: What is 'corporate citizenship'?

A) A company's economic activities focused on profit

B) A company's legal obligations to shareholders

C) The portfolio of activities a company undertakes to fulfill its duties as a member of society

D) Activities aimed at controlling stakeholders' interests

C) The portfolio of activities a company undertakes to fulfill its duties as a member of society

Question 3: Which of the following is NOT part of the triple bottom line approach?

A) People

B) Planet

C) Profit

D) Product

D) Product

Question 4: What is 'greenwashing'?

A) Genuinely engaging in environmentally friendly practices

B) Manipulating public perception through CSR campaigns

C) Falsely claiming to be environmentally friendly without real practices

D) Strategic management of environmental issues

C) Falsely claiming to be environmentally friendly without real practices

Question 5: Which CSR approach focuses on addressing the root causes of environmental sustainability and social responsibility?

A) Defensive

B) Charitable

C) Strategic

D) Transformational

D) Transformational

Question 6: What do CSR codes typically include?

A) Only financial reporting guidelines

B) Recommendations for ethical business conduct

C) Only environmental regulations

D) Only labor conditions

B) Recommendations for ethical business conduct

Question 7: What does Stanley Deetz's view on stakeholder communication emphasize?

A) Representation and consensus

B) Control over stakeholders

C) Participatory democracy, valuing diversity and debate

D) Limiting stakeholder involvement

C) Participatory democracy, valuing diversity and debate

Question 8: Which CSR communication strategy involves mutual dialogue between the company and stakeholders?

A) Information strategy

B) Response strategy

C) Involvement strategy

D) Proactive strateg

C) Involvement strategy

Question 9: What does community relations involve?

A) Communication focused solely on shareholders

B) Communication and engagement with residents of the local community

C) Activities aimed at opposing activist groups

D) Primarily engaging in philanthropy

B) Communication and engagement with residents of the local community

Question 10: What is a key trend in the evolution of community relations?

A) Moving away from partnerships towards donations

B) Decreased corporate involvement in social issues

C) Moving beyond donations and volunteering to form partnerships

D) A primary focus on philanthropy

C) Moving beyond donations and volunteering to form partnerships

Question 2: Which of the following is a characteristic of external communication?

A) Four-way interaction

B) Use of internal communication channels

C) Promoting products, image, and brand

D) Focus on employee engagement

C) Promoting products, image, and brand

Question 4: What is corporate identity?

A) The immediate set of individual responses to signals from an organization

B) The collective representation of an organization based on past experience

C) The profile and values communicated by an organization

D) A group of individuals who can affect or are affected by an organization's objectives

C) The profile and values communicated by an organization

Question 6: What is a potential disadvantage of corporate blogging?

A) Limited reach to users

B) High cost of implementation

C) Employees may write negatively about the organization

D) Inability to engage directly with stakeholders

C) Employees may write negatively about the organization

Question 7: What does the stakeholder salience model consider?

A) Only the financial impact of stakeholders

B) Power, legitimacy, and urgency

C) Primarily shareholder interests

D) Exclusively external stakeholders

B) Power, legitimacy, and urgency

Question 9: What is a key component of corporate reputation?

A) Immediate individual responses

B) Collective representation based on past experience

C) Short-term communication tactics

D) Exaggerated or false information

B) Collective representation based on past experience

Question 10: What does the acronym MPR stand for?

A) Main Public Relations

B) Marketing Public Relations

C) Media and Public Response

D) Management Performance Review

B) Marketing Public Relations

Question 1: What is the key difference between corporate image and corporate reputation?

A) Corporate image is the long-term, collective perception, while corporate reputation is the immediate response to signals.

B) Corporate image is the immediate set of responses to signals, while corporate reputation is the collective representation based on past experience.

C) Corporate image is internally focused, while corporate reputation is externally focused.

D) There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable.

B) Corporate image is the immediate set of responses to signals, while corporate reputation is the collective representation based on past experience.

Question 2: Which of the following best distinguishes between internal communication and external communication?

A) Internal communication is three-way, focusing on product promotion; external communication is four-way, focusing on employee engagement.

B) Internal communication uses public channels; external communication uses internal channels.

C) Internal communication aims to create cohesion among individuals within the organization; external communication aims to promote products, image, and brand.

D) Internal communication involves stakeholders; external communication involves shareholders.

C) Internal communication aims to create cohesion among individuals within the organization; external communication aims to promote products, image, and brand.

Question 3: What is the fundamental difference between paid media and earned media?

A) Paid media is generated by users; earned media is controlled by the organization.

B) Paid media involves channels the organization pays for; earned media is generated through external endorsement.

C) Paid media is high cost; earned media is low cost.

D) There is no difference; both involve promoting the organization.

B) Paid media involves channels the organization pays for; earned media is generated through external endorsement.

Question 4: What differentiates a communication technician from a communication manager?

A) A communication technician is involved in strategic decision-making; a communication manager focuses on implementation.

B) A communication technician focuses on tactical activities; a communication manager is accountable for strategy and policy.

C) A communication technician communicates externally; a communication manager communicates internally.

D) There is no difference; both roles are the same.

B) A communication technician focuses on tactical activities; a communication manager is accountable for strategy and policy.

Question 5: What is the core difference between a communication program and a communication campaign?

A) A communication program is restricted to mediated forms of communication; a communication campaign involves various outreach activities.

B) A communication program has a restricted time frame; a communication campaign is ongoing.

C) A communication program is a formulated set of activities towards targeted audiences; a communication campaign is restricted to a single point in time and mediated communication.

C) A communication program is a formulated set of activities towards targeted audiences; a communication campaign is restricted to a single point in time and mediated communication.

Question 6: What is the key distinction between qualitative research and quantitative research?

A) Qualitative research uses structured questionnaires; quantitative research uses open-ended interviews.

B) Qualitative research provides rich, anecdotal data; quantitative research provides numerical data that can be statistically analyzed.

C) Qualitative research is easier to standardize; quantitative research is more time-consuming.

D) There is no difference; both research types gather the same kind of data.

B) Qualitative research provides rich, anecdotal data; quantitative research provides numerical data that can be statistically analyzed.

Question 8: What is the difference between an issue and a crisis?

A) An issue requires immediate action, while a crisis is a latent concern.

B) An issue is a severe threat to a company's existence, while a crisis is a public concern.

C) An issue is a public concern about company action; a crisis requires immediate and decisive action.

D) There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable.

C) An issue is a public concern about company action; a crisis requires immediate and decisive action.

Question 9: What differentiates transactional leadership from transformational leadership?

A) Transactional leadership focuses on broad visions and motivating employees; transformational leadership focuses on specific tasks and incentives.

B) Transactional leadership uses authority and incentives to motivate; transformational leadership mobilizes employees with a broad vision and fosters collaboration.

C) Transactional leadership is situational; transformational leadership is consistent.

B) Transactional leadership uses authority and incentives to motivate; transformational leadership mobilizes employees with a broad vision and fosters collaboration.

Question 10: What is the difference between the promotional and transformational approaches to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?

A) The promotional approach addresses root causes; the transformational approach uses CSR for PR.

B) The promotional approach uses CSR mainly for PR; the transformational approach focuses on addressing the root causes of issues.

C) There is no difference; both approaches are the same.

D) The promotional approach is long-term; the transformational is short-term.

B) The promotional approach uses CSR mainly for PR; the transformational approach focuses on addressing the root causes of issues.

Question 1: What is the difference between corporate objectives and corporate strategy?

A) Corporate objectives are the ways to achieve desired outcomes, while corporate strategy is the statement of overall aim.

B) Corporate objectives are the desired future state, while corporate strategy is the purpose of the organization.

C) Corporate objectives are the aims to be achieved within a time frame, while corporate strategy is the way to achieve those objectives.

C) Corporate objectives are the aims to be achieved within a time frame, while corporate strategy is the way to achieve those objectives.

Question 2: What is the key difference between a monolithic identity structure and an endorsed identity structure?

A) A monolithic identity structure uses individual brand names, while an endorsed identity structure uses the parent company name alongside the product.

B) A monolithic identity structure uses the parent company name alongside the product, while an endorsed identity structure uses individual brand names.

C) A monolithic identity structure has a single, unified identity; an endorsed identity structure has the parent company name associated with products.

D) There is no difference; both structures are the same.

C) A monolithic identity structure has a single, unified identity; an endorsed identity structure has the parent company name associated with products.

Question 3: What is the difference between vision and mission in an organization?

A) Vision is the organization's purpose, while mission is the desired future state.

B) Vision is the desired future state, while mission is the organization's purpose.

C) Vision and mission are both related to past achievements.

D) There is no difference; the terms are interchangeable.

B) Vision is the desired future state, while mission is the organization's purpose.

Question 4: What is the difference between proactive and reactive advocacy in issue management?

A) Proactive advocacy responds to existing issues, while reactive advocacy tries to shape future expectations.

B) Proactive advocacy tries to shape future expectations, while reactive advocacy responds to existing issues.

C) Proactive advocacy involves buffering; reactive advocacy involves bridging.

B) Proactive advocacy tries to shape future expectations, while reactive advocacy responds to existing issues.

Question 1: What is the definition of an "issue"?

A) An internal problem within a company that needs to be resolved.

B) A severe threat to a company's existence.

C) A settled matter that no longer requires attention.

D) A public concern about a company's actions.

D) A public concern about a company's actions.

Question 2: Which of the following is a stage in the issue life cycle?

A) Resolution

B) Emergence

C) Crisis

D) Neglect

B) Emergence

Question 3: What does DESPTEP analysis involve?

A) Analyzing a company's internal strengths and weaknesses.

B) Examining the broad external environment.

C) Evaluating stakeholder power and influence.

D) Developing a crisis communication plan.

B) Examining the broad external environment.

Question 8: Which of the following is an example of a "faux pas" ?

A) A product defect that causes harm to consumers.

B) An intentional act of sabotage against a company.

C) An unintentional action that escalates into a crisis due to external factors.

D) A natural disaster that disrupts a company's operations

C) An unintentional action that escalates into a crisis due to external factors.

Question 9: In crisis communication, what does a "remediation" strategy involve?

A) Simply apologizing for the crisis.

B) Denying any responsibility for the crisis.

C) Providing compensation to victims.

D) Downplaying the severity of the crisis.

C) Providing compensation to victims.

Question 10: What does recommended for crisis preparedness?

A) Avoiding the development of a crisis communication plan to maintain flexibility.

B) Focusing solely on internal communication during a crisis.

C) Developing communication plans and training employees.

D) Relying solely on the CEO to communicate during a crisis.

C) Developing communication plans and training employees.

Question 1: What is the primary goal of crisis communication?

A) To avoid taking responsibility for the crisis.

B) To minimize financial losses during the crisis.

C) To protect and maintain the organization's reputation.

D) To quickly return to normal operations, regardless of stakeholder concerns.

C) To protect and maintain the organization's reputation.

Question 1: What is the primary goal of crisis communication?

A) To avoid taking responsibility for the crisis.

B) To minimize financial losses during the crisis.

C) To protect and maintain the organization's reputation.

D) To quickly return to normal operations, regardless of stakeholder concerns

C) To protect and maintain the organization's reputation.

Question 2: Which of the following is characteristic of an "accident" crisis?

A) It is intentional and internal.

B) It is unintentional and internal.

C) It is intentional and external.

D) It involves knowingly selling defective products

B) It is unintentional and internal.

Question 3: What is a "transgression" crisis?

A) A crisis caused by uncontrollable external events.

B) A crisis involving unintentional errors.

C) A crisis where the organization is perceived as a victim.

D) A crisis that is intentional and internal.

D) A crisis that is intentional and internal.

Question 4: Which type of crisis includes events like product tampering and hostage-taking?

A) Accidents

B) Transgressions

C) Faux pas

D) Terrorism

D) Terrorism

Question 5: In which type of crisis does the organization typically portray itself as a "victim"?

A) Accidents

B) Transgressions

C) Terrorism

D) Faux pas

C) Terrorism

Question 1: Which crisis type is most likely to involve the organization taking corrective action to prevent future occurrences?

A) Faux pas

B) Accidents

C) Transgressions

D) Terrorism

C) Transgressions

Question 2: In the context of crisis communication, what does "remediation" typically involve, and which crisis type is it associated with?

A) Denying responsibility; associated with faux pas.

B) Providing compensation to victims; associated with transgressions.

C) Expressing sympathy; associated with accidents.

D) Portraying the organization as a victim; associated with terrorism.

B) Providing compensation to victims; associated with transgressions.

Question 4: If an organization chooses a "distancing" strategy in response to a crisis, which crisis type is it most likely dealing with?

A) Terrorism

B) Transgressions

C) Accidents

D) Faux pas

D) Faux pas

Question 1: Which crisis communication strategy involves an organization making a simple statement denying the crisis?

A) Distance

B) Association

C) Non-existence

D) Acceptance

C) Non-existence

Question 2: If an organization uses the "excuse" tactic by scapegoating, which broader crisis communication strategy does this fall under?

A) Non-existence

B) Distance

C) Association

D) Suffering

B) Distance

Question 3: What does the "bolstering" tactic involve, and under which strategy is it used?

A) Denying the crisis; Non-existence

B) Convincing stakeholders the situation is not bad; Distance

C) Reminding stakeholders of positive aspects of the organization; Association

D) Portraying the organization as a victim; Suffering

C) Reminding stakeholders of positive aspects of the organization; Association

Question 4: Which crisis communication strategy is characterized by the organization taking corrective action to prevent future crises?

A) Accommodative

B) Acceptance

C) Distance

D) Association

B) Acceptance

Question 1: When an organization tries to convince stakeholders that the situation is not as bad as it seems, which tactic and strategy are they using?

A) Tactic: Clarification; Strategy: Non-existence

B) Tactic: Downplay; Strategy: Distance

C) Tactic: Bolstering; Strategy: Association

D) Tactic: Full Apology; Strategy: Acceptance

B) Tactic: Downplay; Strategy: Distance

Question 3: If an organization chooses to attack and intimidate the accuser during a crisis, which strategy does this represent?

A) Non-existence

B) Distance

C) Acceptance

D) Accommodative

A) Non-existence