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Define arrhythmia
any disturbance in the rate, regulatory, site of origin, or conduction of the cardiac electrical impulse
Define transmembrane/membrane potential
electrical charge across the plasma membrane of cardiac cell; difference in electrical potential between interior of the cell
Define action potential
change in electrical potential associated with the propagation of an impulse along the membrane of a cell
Define refractory period
period of time in which a cell is incapable of firing an action potential to prevent overlapping impulses; occurs from depolarization to halfway through repolarization
Define electrocardiogram
measures the overall electrical activity of the heart
Define Torsades de pointes and the typical cause
polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with a long QT interval, often drug induced
What are the two goals of antiarrhythmic therapy?
terminate ongoing arrhythmia
prevent future/recurrent arrhythmia
How do antiarrhythmics suppress arrhythmias?
blocking flow through specific ion channels
altering autonomic nervous system function
What 4 ways can antiarrhythmics generally work?
automaticity of slope of phase 4 depolarization
threshold potential increase/decrease
maximum diastolic potential
AP duration
All antiarrhythmics are ____________.
proarrhythmic
Provide examples of how antiarrhythmics can be proarrhythmic.
decreased conduction velocity → bradycardia and/or heart block
slowed heart rate → prolonged QT interval → TDP
What is the common classification system for antiarrhythmics?
Vaughan Williams
What is the dominant action of class Ia antiarrhythmics?
Na+ channel block (intermediate)
What is the dominant action of class Ib antiarrhythmics?
Na+ channel block (fast on-off)
What is the dominant action of class Ic antiarrhythmics?
Na+ channel block (slow on-off)
What is the dominant action of class II antiarrhythmics?
beta blockade (indirect Ca2+ block)
What is the dominant action of class III antiarrhythmics?
K+ channel block
What is the dominant action of class IV antiarrhythmics?
Ca2+ channel block
What 3 drugs are classified as Ia?
quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide
What 2 drugs are classified as Ib?
lidocaine, mexiletine
What 2 drugs are classified as Ic?
flecainide, propagenone
What drugs are classified as II?
various: metoprolol, labetalol, etc.
What 5 drugs are classified as III?
amiodarone, dronedarone, dofetilide, sotalol, ibutilide
What 2 drugs are classified as IV?
diltiazem, verapamil
Which class(es) of antiarrhythmics do not lower conduction velocity?
class III
Which class(es) of antiarrhythmics prolong refractory period?
Ia, II
Which class(es) of antiarrhythmics do not prolong refractory period?
Ib, Ic
What class(es) of antiarrhythmics do not lower automaticity?
III
What is the MOA of class I antiarrhythmics (sodium channel blockers)?
block open/inactivated Na+ channels
Which type of Na+ channels do class I antiarrhythmics bind and not bind?
readily activated (phase 0 depolarization) or inactivated (phase 2 refractory) channels
not closed channels (phase 4 resting membrane potential)
How are class I antiarrhythmics subclassified?
Ia - moderate Na+ channel blockage
Ib - mild Na+ channel blockage
Ic - marked (strong) Na+ channel blockage
What is the AP duration/QT duration of each subclass of class I antiarrhythmics?
Ia - prolonged
Ib - shortened
Ic - no effect
What is the dissociation rate of each subclass of class I antiarrhythmics?
Ia - intermediate
Ib - fast
Ic - slow
What ingredient is a class Ia antiarrhythmic?
disopyramide
What ingredient is a class Ib antiarrhythmic?
lidocaine
What ingredient is a class Ic antiarrhythmic?
flecainide
What effect does disopyramide have in addition to Na+ channel blockade?
prominent anticholinergic
For what scenario is disopyramide useful for?
arrhythmias vagally mediated, for example atrial fibrillation in athletes
What are the ADE of dysopyramide?
anticholinergic - constipation, dry mouth, urinary retention, worsening glaucoma
TDP risk
decreases force of contraction
What are contraindications for disopyramide?
heart failure
BPH or glaucoma
In what situation is lidocaine used?
coronary eschemia due to lack of oxygen
used as acute IV therapy
Why must lidocaine be reduced with infusions >24 hours?
accumulation due to competition between parent drug & less potent metabolites for clearance
What are the ADE of lidocaine?
dose/accumulation related neurologic effects: perioral, tingling, tinnitus, tremor, nystagmus, confusion, altered conscioiusness, seizures
Why does flecainide have slowed conduction, even in normal tissues at normal rates?
has a long rate of recovery due to slowed dissociation from Na+ channels
What situation is flecainide typically ideal for?
supraventricular arrhythmias in patients with structurally normal hearts (arrhythmia is the only thing wrong)
What are the ADE of flecainide?
very well tolerated
dose-relate
arrhythmias
exacerbates heart failuree
What is a patient care consideration for patients taking flecainide?
increased risk in patients with structural heart disease, presumably from proarrhythmic properties