Upper-Extremity Fractures & Dislocations – Emergency Medicine Review

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A comprehensive set of question-and-answer flashcards covering mechanisms, clinical features, imaging, classifications, management, and complications of upper-extremity fractures and dislocations commonly seen in emergency medicine.

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76 Terms

1
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What are the three most common sites of clavicular fracture?

Mid-shaft (69–85%), lateral third (12–28%), medial third (3–6%).

2
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Name three common mechanisms that cause a clavicle fracture.

Fall on an outstretched hand, direct blow to the clavicle, birth trauma.

3
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Which portion of the clavicle is the thinnest and lacks muscular/ligamentous attachment?

The mid-portion.

4
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List four classic clinical features of a clavicle fracture.

Arm slumped inward/downward, swelling and tenderness, limited ROM, palpable crepitus or tenting.

5
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What is the best initial imaging test for suspected clavicle fracture?

X-ray with AP and 45° cephalic tilt (dedicated clavicle series).

6
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When is CT/MRI indicated for a clavicle fracture?

When associated injuries are suspected or plain radiographs are inconclusive.

7
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Typical conservative treatment for most clavicle fractures involves what device and duration?

Simple shoulder sling for 4–6 weeks.

8
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Give two indications for operative fixation of a mid-shaft clavicle fracture.

Excessive shortening >2 cm, comminuted or totally displaced fracture.

9
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Which patient demographics most commonly sustain scapular fractures?

Patients involved in high-energy trauma; overall they are rare (0.4–0.9% of fractures).

10
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Name the seven anatomic sites of scapular fracture (A-G).

A Body, B Glenoid rim, C Intra-articular glenoid, D Neck, E Acromion, F Spine, G Coracoid.

11
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Most scapular fractures are treated how?

Conservatively with sling, ice, and analgesics.

12
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Which associated injuries must be considered with scapular fracture?

Ipsilateral lung injury, rib fractures, thoracic cage trauma.

13
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What percentage of shoulder dislocations are anterior?

Approximately 95%.

14
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State two predisposing lesions that lead to recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation.

Bankart lesion (anteroinferior labrum tear) and Hill-Sachs lesion (posterolateral humeral head indentation).

15
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Which radiographic view shows the ‘light-bulb sign’ and what does it indicate?

Axillary or scapular lateral view; diagnostic of posterior shoulder dislocation.

16
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Describe the arm position typically seen in anterior shoulder dislocation.

External rotation with slight abduction; humeral head palpable below coracoid.

17
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Name two common closed-reduction techniques for anterior shoulder dislocation.

Kocher’s maneuver, Stimson’s gravity method (10-15 lb weight).

18
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Continuous monitoring of which nerve/artery is essential before and after shoulder reduction?

Axillary nerve and axillary artery.

19
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List two late complications of shoulder dislocation.

Joint stiffness/osteoarthritis and chronic instability.

20
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Which four anatomic parts define Neer’s classification of proximal humerus fractures?

Anatomic neck, surgical neck (shaft), greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity.

21
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Differentiate Neer one-part versus two-part fracture.

One-part: none displaced; Two-part: one part displaced, fracture line involves ≥2 parts.

22
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Humeral shaft fractures are divided by location into which thirds?

Proximal, middle, and distal thirds.

23
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Which nerve is at greatest risk in mid-shaft humeral fractures?

Radial nerve.

24
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State two absolute indications for surgical management of a humeral shaft fracture.

Open fracture or displaced fracture that cannot be reduced.

25
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What is the most common pediatric elbow fracture?

Supracondylar fracture of the distal humerus.

26
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Gartland Type II supracondylar fracture description.

Angulated displacement with intact posterior cortex (partial cortical contact).

27
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List three radiographic signs used to assess supracondylar fractures on lateral elbow X-ray.

Anterior humeral line, anterior/posterior fat pad sign, Baumann’s angle on AP.

28
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Normal Baumann’s angle value and deformities if abnormal.

≈ 90°;

29
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Early limb-threatening complication of supracondylar fracture.

Compartment syndrome or brachial artery injury.

30
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Volkmann’s ischemic contracture is characterized by what three clinical findings?

Refusal to open hand, severe pain with passive finger extension, disproportionate forearm pain.

31
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Which three nerves should always be documented in upper-limb neurovascular exams after injury?

Radial, median (including AIN), and ulnar nerves.

32
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Mechanism of radial head fractures.

FOOSH with elbow extended and forearm pronated causing radial head impaction on capitellum.

33
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Mason–Hotchkiss Type III radial head fracture management.

Operative—usually excision or ORIF because it is comminuted and displaced.

34
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Most common age group and direction of elbow dislocation.

Young (10-20 yrs); posterior dislocation.

35
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Name two fractures commonly associated with elbow dislocation.

Radial head fracture and coronoid process fracture.

36
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Define Monteggia fracture-dislocation.

Fracture of proximal third ulna with dislocation of radial head at elbow.

37
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What is the definitive treatment for Monteggia fractures?

Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the ulna; radial head usually reduces spontaneously.

38
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Define Galeazzi fracture-dislocation.

Distal third radial shaft fracture with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint.

39
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Standard management of Galeazzi injury.

ORIF of the radius and repair/stabilization of distal radioulnar joint.

40
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Which forearm fractures can often be managed closed in children but require surgery in adults?

Diaphyseal fractures of radius and ulna.

41
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Describe a Colles’ fracture deformity.

Dorsally angulated distal radius producing a ‘dinner-fork’ appearance.

42
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Smith fracture is also known as what?

Reverse Colles—ventral (palmar) displacement of distal radius.

43
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Classic clinical deformity seen in Smith fracture.

‘Garden spade’ deformity.

44
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Which carpal bone is fractured most often?

Scaphoid.

45
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Key physical finding indicating scaphoid fracture.

Tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox.

46
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Initial emergency department management for suspected scaphoid fracture with normal X-ray.

Immobilize in short-arm thumb-spica splint and arrange follow-up imaging.

47
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Why do scaphoid fractures frequently require surgical pinning?

Risk of non-union and avascular necrosis due to retrograde blood supply.

48
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List three complications of humeral fractures.

Brachial artery injury, radial nerve palsy, avascular necrosis of humeral head.

49
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What late complication can develop after shoulder immobilization called ‘frozen shoulder’?

Adhesive capsulitis.

50
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Name two surgical fixation options for unstable mid-shaft clavicle fractures.

Tension band wiring and clavicular plate fixation.

51
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Indications for open treatment of shoulder dislocation.

Failed closed reduction, fracture-dislocation, displaced Bankart lesion, recurrent instability.

52
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Describe the Kocher maneuver sequence (four steps) for shoulder reduction.

Elbow flexed 90°, external rotation, adduction across chest, internal rotation.

53
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Which imaging modality is most helpful to evaluate associated injuries of scapular fractures?

CT scan.

54
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What defines a Type A distal humerus fracture in the AO classification?

Extra-articular fracture.

55
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Which pediatric nerve injury is most common with supracondylar fractures?

Median nerve or its branch AIN.

56
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Explain the fat pad sign in elbow radiographs.

Elevation of anterior/posterior fat pads indicating joint effusion, often occult fracture.

57
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Preferred splint position after successful elbow dislocation reduction.

Long-arm posterior splint with elbow at 90° flexion.

58
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What mechanism typically produces a posterior shoulder dislocation?

Uncoordinated muscle contraction as in seizure or electrical shock.

59
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Describe the light-bulb sign.

Circular humeral head appearance on AP film due to internal rotation in posterior dislocation.

60
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Which classification is used for comminution of humeral shaft fractures?

Type A (no comminution), B (butterfly fragment), C (comminuted).

61
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Common conservative treatment for non-displaced humeral shaft fracture.

Hanging arm cast followed by functional brace.

62
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Define a Type II Mason radial head fracture.

Displaced >2 mm or angulated; may act as mechanical block.

63
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Primary stabilizing ligament preventing elbow valgus laxity often injured with radial head fractures.

Medial (ulnar) collateral ligament.

64
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Explain the significance of the ulnar nerve in supracondylar injuries.

Late palsy may indicate mal-union (cubitus valgus) or nerve entrapment.

65
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Which wrist fracture management involves closed reduction and casting for 4–6 weeks?

Colles’ fracture.

66
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Indication for external fixation in humeral fractures.

Open fractures with soft-tissue damage or poly-trauma.

67
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Give two associated injuries to screen for in clavicle fractures that extend medially.

Pneumothorax and vascular injury (subclavian).

68
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Describe the Stimson gravity method for shoulder reduction.

Patient prone, arm hanging off table with 10-15 lb weight; gentle traction over 20–30 min.

69
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What is the pathognomonic palpation finding in anterior shoulder dislocation?

Empty glenoid fossa with palpable humeral head inferior to coracoid.

70
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Mechanism causing most distal radial fractures in elderly women.

Low-energy FOOSH on osteoporotic bone (Colles’).

71
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Why are pediatric radial neck fractures more common than head fractures?

Cartilaginous head and thinner neck in children absorb force differently.

72
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Most forearm fractures unite in what time frame?

8–12 weeks.

73
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Describe the ‘dimple sign’ in supracondylar fractures.

Skin puckering due to proximal fragment piercing brachialis muscle; indicates severe displacement.

74
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List three late complications of elbow trauma.

Stiffness, mal-union, post-traumatic arthritis.

75
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What fracture should be suspected with pain over the anatomical snuffbox despite normal initial X-rays?

Occult scaphoid fracture.

76
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Explain tension band wiring principle for bone fixation.

Converts tensile forces into compression at fracture site during muscle contraction.