BIOL 214 exam 3 questions

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Last updated 1:21 AM on 5/2/23
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148 Terms

1
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How do novel traits arise?

A. Through an existing trait that reverts to a previous version.

B. Through mutation leading to new phenotypes.

C. Through genes that are inherited from the previous generation.

D. Through a new combination of traits already existing in the individual.
b
2
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What is a paralog?

A. A protein that has taken on a new function.

B. A protein that can have two different functions at once.

C. A gene that serves a similar function in a related species.

D. A gene that has taken on a new function through gene duplication.
d
3
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What is an ortholog?

A. Two genes in two different species that serve the same function and were inherited from a common ancestor.

B. Two genes in two different species that serve the same function but were inherited from different ancestors.

C. Two genes in the same species that serve different functions but were duplicated from the same original gene.

D. Two genes in the same species that serve the same function but were inherited separately from different ancestors.
a
4
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Which of the following processes did not lead to the evolution of snake venom?

A. Gene recruitment.

B. Natural selection.

C. Gene duplication.

D. Broad-sense heritability
d
5
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What do you predict would happen to the hind legs of a fly if the gene Dpp were artificially overexpressed?

A. The legs would grow longer.

B. The legs would not grow as long.

C. The growth of the legs would be completely suppressed.

D. The early leg cells would be reabsorbed into the body.
a
6
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What role does Bmp2 play in the expression of bat wing phenotypes?

A. It is the only protein responsible for the shape of the wing.

B. It is one of two proteins that determine the shape of the wing.

C. It is a regulatory gene that turns on many other genes.

D. It is turned on by the regulatory protein known as calmodulin.
c
7
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Which organism does not use crystallins in its eyes to focus light?

A. Humans.

B. Octopuses.

C. Fishes.

D. Ragworms.
d
8
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What is not an example of antagonistic pleiotropy?

A. Genes that create insect breathing tubes cause decreased production of growth hormones.

B. Mutations that confer resistance to Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) also make insects more vulnerable to natural plant defensive chemicals.

C. Developmental genes that code for greater or fewer than seven cervical vertebrae have negative fitness costs.

D. Carriers of a recessive gene for cystic fibrosis have greater resistance to tuberculosis.
a
9
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Why do giraffes have a recurrent laryngeal nerve that is 19 feet longer than the shortest route possible?

A. Their ancestors were fishes and did not have a larynx.

B. The route of that nerve was inherited from their ancestors.

C. The nerve makes more connections to their lungs than in their ancestors.

D. The route that the nerve takes is the result of random processes.
b
10
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What do you predict would happen if you inserted a Pax-6 gene from a mouse into the genome of an octopus?

A. No eyes would develop in the octopus.

B. The normal two eyes would develop, but they would not work.

C. Extra eyes would develop, but with mouse crystallins.

D. Extra eyes would develop, but with octopus crystallins.
d
11
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Which is not one of the three conditions that must be met for evolution by natural selection to take place?

A. Variation in phenotypic traits must exist in the population.

B. Differences in phenotype influence the probability of survival or reproduction.

C. One extreme of the phenotype leads to greater survival.

D. Differences in phenotypic traits must be at least partially heritable.
c
12
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Which experiment would allow you to test whether coat color affects oldfield mouse fitness?

A. Using dark and light models of oldfield mice to determine predation rates in forest and beach habitats.

B. Trapping oldfield mice in both forest and beach habitats and counting whether there were more dark mice in forest habitats or in beach habitats.

C. Following oldfield mice with dark coats in beach habitats to determine whether they reproduced.

D. Conducting late-night surveys in both forest and beach habitats to determine whether predators could see mice with dark or light coats better in either habitat.
a
13
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In the Pacific Northwest, snowshoe hares molt from summer brown to winter brown instead of the typical summer brown to winter white. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The evolutionary loss of coat color plasticity (brown to white) resulted from an allele that snowshoe hares borrowed from another species that is not plastic (that is, through introgression).

B. Jones et al. (2018) used an Fst outlier approach to identify a mutation in the Agouti gene as the likely genetic basis for the shift to “winter-brown” pelage.

C. The gene tree for the Agouti gene matched the genome-wide (that is, the “species”) tree for the hares.

D. All of these statements are correct.
c
14
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The text describes the galls of flies as examples of extended phenotypes. What are extended phenotypes?

A. Phenotypes that are shared by multiple generations.

B. Behaviors that influence the survival of offspring.

C. Morphological features that affect reproductive output.

D. Structures constructed by organisms that can influence their performance or success.
d
15
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How have selective sweeps affected domesticated animals such as purebred dogs?

A. Variation in flanking loci was reduced.

B. Alleles at flanking loci “hitchhiked” to high frequency.

C. Deleterious mutations leading to disease became more common.

D. All of the above resulted from selective sweeps.
d
16
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Which of the following is not a potential agent of selection?

A. Human fishing.

B. Genetic drift.

C. A flood.

D. A predator.
b
17
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What is the best course of action for a farmer who wants to slow the evolution of resistance of a pest population feeding on her crops?

A. Allowing some nonresistant pests to survive.

B. Decreasing the amount of pesticide, but increasing the concentration.

C. Increasing the amount of pesticide, but decreasing the concentration.

D. Planting genetically modified crops that make their own pesticide.
a
18
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A selective sweep describes which of the following situations?

A. A favorable allele is pushed to fixation within a population so quickly that recombination is not likely.

B. An unfavorable allele is pushed to fixation within a population so quickly that recombination is not likely.

C. A favorable or unfavorable allele is pushed to fixation within a population so quickly that recombination is frequent.

D. Alleles flanking a favorable allele will appear in DNA infrequently.
a
19
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Which of these statements about selection is false

A. During their lifetime, plants may experience many different sources of selection.

B. Insects often experience different types of selection as larvae than they do as adults.

C. Birds can experience different directions of selection in different years.

D. Selection in mammals always operates more strongly on survival than on reproduction.
d
20
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What is the most likely reason that Atlantic cod populations have evolved to become sexually mature at younger ages?

A. Warming ocean temperatures favor faster growth.

B. Removal of their predators from harvesting relaxed selection on juvenile cod.

C. Smaller fish are more likely to escape gill nets and therefore have a survival advantage.

D. All of the above are likely reasons.
c
21
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Which of the following is not a major reason why sexual reproduction can speed the spread of adaptations in a population?

A. Sexual reproduction encourages species to travel to find mates, which allows for individuals to spread their genes over the largest range.

B. Through recombination, meiosis provides an opportunity for paired chromosomes to cross over, creating gametes with unique combinations of alleles.

C. Independent assortment during meiosis can mix and match the maternal and paternal copies of chromosomes, leading to novel combinations of alleles in offspring.

D. Beneficial mutations can be combined and harmful mutations can be purged.
a
22
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The Red Queen effect refers to the fact that

A. parasites often kill their hosts and therefore act as potent agents of selection on host populations.

B. host immune systems evolve continuously and quickly in an arms race with parasite populations that are also evolving to evade their defenses.

C. parasites evolve faster than their hosts.

D. social insect colonies often have reproductive queens who actively suppress the reproductive capacity of worker females in the colony.
b
23
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Which is an example of anisogamy?

A. Male red deer have large antlers, but females do not have antlers at all.

B. Female jacanas are larger in size than the males.

C. Female fiddler crabs have two small claws, but males have one small claw and one huge claw.

D. The eggs of a female kiwi are large, but the sperm of the males are small.
d
24
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Are unequal gamete sizes relevant for explaining adult behavior? Why or why not?

A. No. Divergent gamete sizes are a consequence of sexual reproduction, but they are largely irrelevant for understanding adult behavior.

B. Yes. There typically are insufficient eggs to go around; males end up having to compete for access to them.

C. Yes. Females sometimes build elaborate nests or burrows in which to place their eggs.

D. Yes. Both a male and a female gamete are needed to produce viable offspring.
b
25
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Conspecific females who differ in their fecundity differ in what?

A. The number of offspring they produce that survive to successfully reproduce themselves.

B. The number of eggs they produce at one time.

C. The number of times a female breeds during her lifetime.

D. The number of mates a female has during her lifetime.
a
26
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Which of these situations offers the lowest opportunity for selection for males?

A. Locations that females need access to in order to reproduce are rare.

B. Every female chooses one male to mate with for life.

C. Males fight each other for access to groups of females.

D. Females choose mates with a fancy ornament.
b
27
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Why are traits like the bright colors of a male manakin considered to be honest indicators of male genetic quality?

A. The colors stimulate sensory preferences or biases that are intrinsic.

B. The colors are very costly for males to produce.

C. Bright-colored ornaments evolve extremely rapidly and often diverge in form among populations or closely related species.

D. The colors accurately reveal unpalatability or distastefulness to predators, so that predators can quickly learn to avoid them.
b
28
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Which of the following is not an example of the costs relevant to honest expression of male sexually selected ornaments or weapons?

A. Metabolic or energetic resources that a male must allocate to the growth of ornaments or weapons.

B. The inability of males to invest simultaneously in ornament production and other functions, such as defenses against parasites.

C. The risk a male faces because ornaments slow him down or because bright colors make him more conspicuous to predators.

D. The production of brighter colors in males inheriting particular combinations of alleles than in males with other combinations of alleles.
d
29
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Which of the following is not a strategy used by male insects to increase the likelihood that their sperm will fertilize a female’s eggs?

A. Mate with more females than rival males.

B. Guard females after mating.

C. Physically remove sperm by inflating the penis or using a penile flagellum.

D. Inject toxic chemicals that induce females to avoid re-mating.
a
30
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In the context of sexual selection, antagonistic coevolution refers to

A. the fact that male genitalia sometimes pierce or tear the insides of females in ways detrimental to the females.

B. the arms races that can result as males and females compete for control over fertilization.

C. the fact that suboptimal males will sometimes trick females into mating with them by sneaking up to them and mating while the dominant males are busy fighting or mating with another female.

D. the coercion behaviors that males sometimes adopt during mating, such as tapping or stroking the back of the females, that appear to increase the chances of a female using that male’s sperm to fertilize her eggs.
b
31
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Which statement is the best way to explain why an understanding of life history trade-offs is important when examining the fitness of an organism?

A. Individuals need to live longer, so they will not produce the maximum number of offspring each season.

B. When individuals need offspring, they can choose whether to reproduce or not.

C. Individuals may not be producing the maximum number of offspring they possibly can in any particular breeding season.

D. In any particular breeding season, individuals may need to produce fewer offspring to enhance their own survival.
c
32
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What was Austad’s prediction regarding opossums on Sapelo Island?

A. Opossums on Sapelo Island would mature later and have fewer offspring per season than opossums on the mainland.

B. Opossums on Sapelo Island would have more offspring per season than opossums on the mainland because there were no predators.

C. Natural selection would favor opossums with more stretchable muscle fibers on Sapelo Island.

D. Opossums on Sapelo Island would have higher fitness than opossums on the mainland.
a
33
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Use Figure 12.5 to predict the evolution of life history traits that a population of lake trout (a popular food fish) might experience after a new lakeside fishing resort was built.

A. Because the fishermen act like predators, the lake trout should produce more offspring that are bigger in size.

B. Because the fishermen act like predators, the lake trout will spend less time breeding and should produce fewer offspring.

C. Because the fishermen act like predators, the lake trout should produce more offspring that are smaller in size and the trout will mature at smaller sizes.

D. Nothing will happen to the lake trout
c
34
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Why do male gobies dig up and devour eggs in their nests?

A. The male needs the nutrition, and he can always mate again later.

B. If there is not enough oxygen in the water, the young won’t survive anyway.

C. Male gobies that devour some of their eggs in response to poor environmental conditions tend to have more surviving offspring than male gobies that do not.

D. The male eats the young for the betterment of the species
c
35
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Which of these statements about gene imprinting is true?

A. Gene imprinting is a male reproductive strategy that can reduce the lifetime reproductive success of females.

B. Gene imprinting is a female reproductive strategy that can reduce the lifetime reproductive success of males.

C. Gene imprinting is found only in placental mammals.

D. Both a and b.
d
36
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How does an evolutionary perspective help us understand the aging process?

A. The theory of evolution allows scientists to compare closely related species that differ in how they invest in reproduction and in body maintenance to test for effects on the aging process.

B. The theory of evolution generates predictions about how individuals with certain suites of life history characteristics might fare in the aging process when compared to other individuals without those characteristics.

C. The theory of evolution provides insight into the historical development of adaptations, such as the number of offspring an individual has, that may contribute to life history trade-offs, such as aging.

D. All of the above.
d
37
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Do all scientists agree that menopause is adaptive?

A. Yes. Menopause has to be adaptive because life history theory predicts that women should not outlive their reproductive capacity, so menopause must have some function.

B. Yes. Menopause has to be adaptive because humans, not chimpanzees, experience menopause, and humans are evolutionarily more advanced than chimpanzees.

C. No. Several hypotheses for menopause as an adaptation have been proposed, but they have not been tested.

D. No. Several hypotheses for menopause as an adaptation have been proposed, but more evidence is necessary to support any one of them
d
38
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Investment in reproduction can come at the expense of

A. growth.

B. body maintenance.

C. future fertility.

D. All of the above.
d
39
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The Trivers–Willard hypothesis predicts which of the following?

A. Greater investment in male offspring by parents in good condition.

B. Greater investment in female offspring by parents in good condition.

C. Equal investment in male and female offspring by parents in good condition.

D.Equal investment in male and female offspring by parents in poor condition
a
40
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Senescence describes all of the following conditions except

A. aging cells accumulating malformed proteins.

B. a less effective immune system.

C. the onset of Alzheimer’s disease.

D. higher rates of cancer
c
41
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In which case would the biological species concept not be useful?

A. Different kinds of birds occurring sympatrically with very different appearances.

B. A group of lizards reproducing asexually.

C. Polar bears and grizzly bears living in the Arctic.

D. Both b and c.
b
42
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Why is defining the concept of species such a difficult task?

A. Species are constantly evolving.

B. Species are often defined in relation to research methods.

C. Species are fixed taxonomic units — the difficulty arises from asexually reproducing organisms.

D. Both a and b.
d
43
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Which of the following is an example of gametic incompatibility?

A. A male cat’s reproductive organ does not fit a female’s reproductive tract.

B. A male shark deposits his sperm in a female shark, but those sperm fail to attach to her eggs.

C. A male abalone produces faster-swimming sperm than another male abalone.

D. A male coral releases sperm at a different time of day than another male coral.
b
44
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Which is not an example of a pre-mating isolating barrier?

A. Flowers that make pollen available to pollinators at different times of the day.

B. Frogs that sing in ponds at different elevations.

C. Females of a fish species that prefer one color of male fish over another color.

D. The hybrid offspring of two mice that cannot produce viable gametes.
d
45
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Which is an example of a postzygotic isolating barrier?

A. The genitalia of a male duck that do not fit properly with the genitalia of females of another population.

B. Females of one kind of fly that are not attracted to the buzz of another kind of male.

C. Two species of bats breeding in different habitats.

D. The hybrid offspring of two species of crocodiles that can produce normal gametes but cannot obtain a mate.
d
46
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Which is the most likely order of events that could lead to allopatric speciation?

A. Geographic separation, then genetic divergence, then reproductive isolation.

B. Genetic divergence, then geographic separation, then reproductive isolation.

C. Genetic divergence, then reproductive isolation, then geographic separation.

D. Geographic separation, then reproductive isolation, then genetic divergence.
a
47
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Why did Mendelson and Shaw examine the geological history of the Hawaiian Islands to test their hypothesis about cricket speciation?

A. They predicted that the evolution of the cricket lineages matched the evolution of the islands.

B. Their phylogeny was inconclusive and they needed more evidence.

C. They wanted to find evidence to support the theory of continental drift.

D. They predicted that allopatric speciation was more important in crickets than sympatric speciation
a
48
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Which of these statements about allopolyploidy is false?

A. Allopolyploidy occurs only in plants.

B. Allopolyploidy can involve the doubling of chromosomes as a result of hybridization.

C. Allopolyploidy can quickly lead to speciation.

D. In a phylogeny of Tragopogon, an allopolyploidy event would be represented as a merging of two branches
a
49
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Which of these statements about the speed of speciation is false?

A. Speciation can take millions of years.

B. Speciation can happen in a single generation.

C. Speciation in plants is rarely due to hybridization.

D. Speciation often happens faster in flowering plants than in animals.
c
50
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Why are genetic tests a good way to discover cryptic species?

A. They allow you to compare extinct individuals with living individuals.

B. Grouping similar genotypes might reveal populations that do not or cannot interbreed.

C. The alleles of a species will be identical in each individual.

D. Cryptic species will have more mutations.
b
51
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where did the video for birds of paradise take place
new guinea
52
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how does the king bird of paradise attract females
solo display of ruffling feathers and being upside down
53
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the greater bird of paradise displays a lek which is
a group of displaying mammals
54
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what do humans in new guinea use bird of paradise feathers for
costumes and dances
55
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how does the western parotia attract a mate
fancy dance, clears the ground, iridescent feathers
56
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how does the magnificent bird of paradise attract a mate
dances, and surrounds head with feathers
57
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what sort of display does the blue blue bird of paradise do
hangs upside down and wiggles blue tail feathers then a slow subtle throbbing when female appears
58
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what sort of display does the superb bird of paradise do and how does it make ticking noise
surround their head with their black feathers with a small bit of blue and dance around females, clicking is from the snapping of tail feathers and them hitting against other things
59
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what was challenging about filming birds of paradise
bad lighting in the forest so could not capture the details
60
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where is your coccyx and why is it present in humans
the base of the spine from, vestige of our tail
61
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are the monkeys featured in the film new world or old world? how do you know?
\
62
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list at least 3 features found in primates but not found in other mammals
shape to the skull, type of hand
63
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what is the name of the earliest known primate? when did it live, where as it found?
notharctus, 50 million years ago, was found in wyoming
64
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what skeletal features gave earliest primate an advantage?
long fingers with nails
65
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how did color vision evolve? how many colors can most humans see?
opsins detect color and then send a signal to brain, evolving a 3rd opsin for color through DNA. old opsin was duplicated and then mutated, the gene for opsin 3 just needed to be turned on.
66
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how many genes do we have that detect smell? compare our genes to a dog’s genes for smell.
dogs smell is a lot better (dogs have a thousand and so do we but 600 of them don’t work) so we only have about 400 that work
67
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describe two fossils that shed the most light on bipedalism
Lucy: looked like an ape but walked on two legs, has femurs like we do that form an angle of pulling knees inward to walk as we do.

Artepithecus: walking upright while living in woodlands, could walk on two legs but not as well as Lucy, could grasp thigs with toes could
68
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what are the most obvious consequences of being bipedal? why do we suffer these consequences?
back problems because of the balance of weight
69
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what is the significance of tools in human evolution
hand and the brain together
70
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what is object permanence, and who is better at it, the baby monkey or the baby human? why?
whether we know something exists even if it cant be seen, the baby monkey is better at it because humans have an unusually long childhood
71
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what are the benefits of a long childhood?
brains are being shaped by environment and experience so we can have longer to learn
72
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what are the three parts of all brains?
forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain
73
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how long ago did the first brains begin to evolve?
500 million years old
74
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in the video, “your inner monkey”, what developmental milestone did CJ, the 3-month-oldYour pig-tailed macaque baby, passes that a 3 month old human body lacked
the concept of object permanence
75
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which term describes all living things that cannot be seen without magnification
microorganism
76
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wat causes alloploidy
polyploidy resulting from interspecific hybridization
77
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which scenario is an example of gametic incompatability
the sperm of each sea urchin species uses a different binding protein to make the sperm attach to an egg
78
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which species concept defines a species as the population in an evolutionary lineage whose members interbreed enough to maintain a gene pool in common
morphological species concept
79
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how are species defined according to the phylogenetic species concept
all individuals that share a set of characteristics derived from a single common ancestor
80
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cis-regulatory regions are
portions of the gene control region located on the same chromosome as the gene
81
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what is the triangle figure called
grime’s triagnle
82
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antagonistic pleiotropy occurs when
a mutation produces both beneficial and detrimental effects
83
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a population in which males and females cooperate in the care of young is most likely to have a(n)
unbiased operational sex ratio
84
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how do nazca boobies adjust the number of offspring that fledge
siblicide
85
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the process of senescence is remarkably similar among all living organisms. all of these examples are characteristic of senescence except

A. cells accumulate malformed proteins

B. the immune systems becomes less effective of fighting infections.

C. the rate of noninfectious disease increases

D. all of the above
all of the above
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the mother hypothesis suggests a the following except
an older woman cannot have more children because she is experiencing senescence
87
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what is an organism’s life history
the strategies for reproducing, growing, and surviving that an organism uses during its life organism
88
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the Hox genes are a regulatory network of developmental genes in
animals
89
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horizontal gene transfer is the transfer of genetic material
between organisms, without reproduction
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the co-option of a particular gene or network for a totally different function as a result of a mutation is termed
gene recruitment
91
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in Nasvall’s experiment (covered in the book), the mutant gene hisA in salmonella
encodes an enzyme that produces both histidine and tryptophan
92
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which statement is true regarding venom evolution in snakes

A. venom genes have been recruited from genes expressed in many organs in snakes

B. the venom delivery system is a complex adaptation

C. venom evolved before snakes evolved

D. all the above
all the above
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what does the red queen hypothesis predict
parasite and host populations will coevolve in a cyclic fashion
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what limits male reproductive success in anisogamous populations
access to females
95
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antagonistic pleiotropy occurs when
a mutation with beneficial effects on one trait simultaneously causes detrimental effects on other traits
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what is the operational sex ratio
the ratio of male to female individuals available to reproduce offspring
97
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which example describes an indirect benefit of female choice
males contributing quality genes to a female’s offpsring
98
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which circumstance might keep the positive feedback cycle in the arbitrary choice hypothesis from happening
some unchoosy females in a population mate with unshowy males
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when under pressure from predatory birds, which gall flies are most likely to survive
those that produce small galls
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how are selective pressures different for three-spined sticklebacks in lakes compared to the sea
they have fewer predators in lakes