Module 13 Playposit questions

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23 Terms

1
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Opportunistic infections occur when normally harmless microbes become pathogenic in individuals with compromised:

  1. Innate barriers

  2. Adaptive immunity

  3. Genetic defects

  4. All of the above

  1. All of the above

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Patients with cystic fibrosis are prone to infections caused by opportunistic pathogens like:

  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  2. Vibrio vholerae

  3. Bordatella

  4. Mycobacyerium tuberculosis

  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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Opportunistic pathogens cause disease when the host's defense mechanisms are:

  1. Strengthened

  2. Compromised

  3. Active

  4. None of the above

  1. Compromised

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The "accessory" genes in Gram-positive opportunistic infections:

  1. Encode antibiotic resistance genes

  2. Encode virulence factors and can differ among strains

  3. Are responsible for lateral gene transfer

  4. Are always the same among strains

  1. Encode virulence factors and can differ among strains

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Which of the following is NOT an example of a Gram-positive opportunistic pathogen?

  1. Clostridium difficle

  2. Escherichia coli

  3. Entrococcus faecium

  4. Staphylococcus aureus

  1. Escherichia coli

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Staphylococcus epidermidis is primarily found on:

  1. Water sources

  2. Mucous membranes

  3. Internal organs

  4. Human skin

  1. Human skin

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Compared to Staphylococcus aureus, S. epidermidis displays a more:

  1. Aggressive nature

  1. Mild-mannered nature

  2. Virulence factors

  3. Resistance to antibiotics

  1. Mild-mannered nature

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Staphylococcus epidermidis employs multiple mechanisms to protect itself against changes in osmolarity, including:

  1. Exopolysaccharide adhesions

  2. Production of poly-γ-glutamic acis (PGA)

  3. Quorum-sensing system activation

  4. Sodium ion/proton pumps

  1. Sodium ion/proton pumps

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Approximately 70% of Streptococcus pneumoniae fatalities occur in:

  1. Elderly population

  2. Young adults

  3. Infants

  4. Adolescents

  1. Infants

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S. pneumoniae evades immune cells by utilizing its:

  1. Ribosomes

  2. Pili

  3. Exopolysaccharide capsule

  4. Cell wall

  1. Exopolysaccharide capsule

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The widely used vaccine for preventing pneumococcal pneumonia consists of antigens from:

  1. Gram-negative bacteria

  2. All known bacterial strains

  3. The 23 most common capsular types

  4. The most virulent straisn

  1. The 23 most common capsular types

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Influenza vaccinations for healthcare workers have been employed to indirectly protect the elderly from S. pneumoniae infections because:

  1. Influenza and S. pneumoniae are caused by the same bacterium

  2. Influenza and S. pneumoniae often co-infect individuals

  3. Influenza and S. pneumoniae have similar symptoms

  4. Influenza vaccination recognizes S. pneumoniae

  1. Influenza and S. pneumoniae often co-infect individuals

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Which vaccine significantly reduced invasive pneumococcal diseases among infants?

  1. PCV-7

  2. PCV-13

  3. Influenza vaccine

  4. Meningococcal vaccine

  1. PCV-7

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Which proteins are being explored as potential vaccine candidates for Streptococcus pneumoniae?

  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae capsule biosynthetic enzymes

  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae sugar transporters

  3. Pneumolysin and Streptococcus pneumoniae surface proteins

  4. Pili and NanA

  1. Pneumolysin and Streptococcus pneumoniae surface proteins

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Pneumolysin, a virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae, activates pro-inflammatory responses by binding to:

  1. Toll-like receptor 5

  2. Toll-like receptor 2

  3. Toll-like receptor 9

  4. Toll-like receptor 4

  1. Toll-like receptor

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Which enzyme present in Staphylococcus aureus causes blood clotting?

  1. Coagulase

  2. beta-lactamase

  3. Protease

  4. Lipase

  1. Coagulase

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Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) strains often exhibit resistance to which class of antibiotics?

  1. β-lactams

  2. Quinolones

  3. Macrolides

  4. Aminoglycosides

  1. β-lactams

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What is the role of surface proteins in Staphylococcus aureus?

  1. Dissolving blood clots

  2. Binding to extracellular matrix proteins

  3. Anchoring the bacteria to the cytoplasmic membrane

  4. Promoting the release of proinflammatory lipoproteins

  1. Binding to extracellular matrix proteins

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Which toxin released by Staphylococcus aureus causes lysis of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)?

  1. Superantigens

  2. Coagulases

  3. Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL)

  4. α-toxin

  1. α-toxin

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What happens to the risk of Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) when antibiotic treatment begins?

  1. The risk decreases due to the presence of stable gut microbiota

  2. The risk increases due to the presence of antibiotic-resistant strains

  3. The risk increases due to the elimination of . difficile spores

  4. The risk decreases due to the decrease in antibiotic concentration that can also target CDI

  1. The risk increases due to the presence of antibiotic-resistant strains

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How is Clostridium difficile primarily transmitted from person to person?

  1. Throuhg contaminated food and water

  2. Through direct contact with feces

  3. Through airborne particles

  4. Through respiratory droplets

  1. Through direct contact with feces

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How do toxins A and B (TcdA and TcdB) disrupt host cells?

  1. They disrupt cytoskeletal function

  2. They inhibit protein synthesis

  3. They damage the cell membrane

  4. They interfere with DNA replication

  1. They disrupt cytoskeletal function

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What is one strategy to treat recurrent pseudomembranous colitis?

  1. Restricting the use of antibiotics

  2. Administering vancomycin or metronidazole

  3. Increasing the antibiotics dose

  4. Using enema with diluted feces from family members

  5. Implementing better hygeine practices

  1. Using enema with diluted feces from family members