Cellular Functions, Adaptations, and Genetic Foundations in Human Health

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86 Terms

1
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What are the primary functions of cells?

Cells perform functions essential for life, including movement, secretion, and absorption.

2
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What are cilia and their role in the respiratory system?

Cilia are extensions of the plasma membrane that exhibit coordinated whip-like motion, found in respiratory tract cells to sweep away debris and propel mucus.

3
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What is atrophy in cellular adaptation?

Atrophy refers to the reduction in cell size, often due to decreased workload or blood supply.

4
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What is hypertrophy?

Hypertrophy is the increase in cell size in response to increased demand, such as in muscle cells during exercise.

5
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Define hyperplasia.

Hyperplasia is characterized by an increase in the number of cells, as seen in breast tissue during pregnancy to meet the demand for milk production.

6
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What is metaplasia?

Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of cell into another, often due to irritation, such as in the esophagus due to acid reflux.

7
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What is dysplasia?

Dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth and differentiation, often seen in precancerous conditions.

8
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What is the difference between reversible and irreversible cell injury?

Reversible cell injury can recover if the injurious agent is removed, while irreversible injury leads to cell death.

9
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What is apoptosis?

Apoptosis is a genetically programmed process of cell death essential for maintaining tissue homeostasis.

10
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How can failure of apoptosis contribute to cancer?

Failure of apoptosis can lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation, contributing to cancer development.

11
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What is neoplasia?

Neoplasia refers to cancerous cells that lack normal function, divide uncontrollably, and invade surrounding tissues.

12
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What role do telomeres play in aging?

Telomeres shorten with each cell division, limiting the ability of cells to divide and contributing to aging processes.

13
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What is genomics?

Genomics is the study of an organism's complete set of genes and their interactions, providing insights into genetic predispositions to diseases.

14
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What is pharmacogenomics?

Pharmacogenomics examines how genetic variations affect individual responses to medications, allowing for personalized medicine.

15
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What is a genogram?

A genogram is a visual representation of family history that helps identify genetic risks and patterns of inheritance.

16
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What are genes?

Genes are specific sequences of nucleotides in DNA that encode for proteins, consisting of coding sequences (exons) and non-coding sequences (introns).

17
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How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?

Humans have 23 pairs (46 total) of chromosomes.

18
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What are mutations?

Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence, which can include single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) and whole chromosome defects.

19
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What is the difference between dominant and recessive alleles?

Dominant alleles express their trait with one copy, while recessive traits require two copies for expression.

20
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What is the significance of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes?

Defective BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes can lead to increased cancer risk.

21
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What is trisomy 21?

Trisomy 21 is a chromosomal defect that results in Down syndrome.

22
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What is the role of free radicals in cellular aging?

Accumulated damage from free radicals can lead to cellular aging and dysfunction.

23
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What is glycation?

Glycation is a process where sugar molecules bind to proteins or lipids, leading to cellular damage and aging.

24
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What are sex-linked traits?

Traits associated with genes located on sex chromosomes, often affecting males more due to having only one X chromosome.

25
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What is multifactorial inheritance?

Inheritance that involves both genetic predisposition and environmental factors, as seen in diseases like diabetes and cancer.

26
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Who should be offered prenatal screening?

Women aged 35 or older, those with abnormal ultrasound findings, and couples who are close blood relatives.

27
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What does maternal serum screening test for?

Proteins produced by the placenta and fetus, including AFP, hCG, uE3, and DIA, to assess fetal risk.

28
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What is Marfan syndrome?

An autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene, affecting connective tissues and leading to cardiovascular issues.

29
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What is cystic fibrosis?

An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, primarily affecting the respiratory system and pancreas.

30
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What characterizes Down syndrome?

Trisomy 21, characterized by distinct facial features, intellectual disability, and increased risk of congenital heart disease.

31
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What causes Huntington disease?

A mutation in the HTT gene, leading to neurodegeneration and movement disorders, typically manifesting in mid-adulthood.

32
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What are organelles?

Specialized structures within a cell that perform distinct functions, often referred to as 'little organs'.

33
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What is the function of mitochondria?

The powerhouse of the cell, responsible for energy production through ATP synthesis.

34
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What is the role of the nucleus in a cell?

Contains the cell's DNA, directing all cellular activities and structural plans.

35
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What is ischemia?

A lack of blood flow that can lead to cell death (infarction); different tissues have varying tolerance levels.

36
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What is atrophy?

A decrease in cell size, often due to disuse or reduced blood supply.

37
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What are telomeres?

Protective caps at the ends of chromosomes that shorten with each cell division, leading to cellular aging.

38
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What is a karyotype?

A visual representation of an individual's chromosomes, used to identify chromosomal abnormalities.

39
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What are dominant and recessive traits?

Dominant traits are expressed with one allele, while recessive traits require two copies for expression.

40
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What is hyperplasia?

An increase in the number of cells, as seen in breast tissue during pregnancy.

41
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What are SNPs?

Single nucleotide polymorphisms, which are mutations that can affect gene function and lead to diseases.

42
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What is the significance of BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations?

They are linked to increased risk of breast and ovarian cancer.

43
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What is the role of maternal serum screening tests?

They indicate potential fetal problems and guide further testing.

44
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What genetic disorder is caused by mutations in the FBN1 gene?

Marfan syndrome, which affects connective tissues and can lead to cardiovascular issues.

45
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What are the characteristic features of Neurofibromatosis?

Presence of café-au-lait spots and neurofibromas, with specific diagnostic criteria including family history.

46
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What is cystic fibrosis and its genetic cause?

An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, leading to thick mucus production and respiratory issues.

47
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What is Tay Sachs disease and its prevalence?

A lysosomal storage disorder caused by a mutation on chromosome 15, prevalent in Ashkenazi Jews, leading to neurodegeneration.

48
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What causes Down syndrome?

Trisomy 21, which presents with characteristic physical features and increased health risks.

49
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What are the symptoms of Huntington disease?

Late-onset symptoms including chorea and cognitive decline, linked to a mutation on chromosome 4.

50
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What percentage of adult men in the U.S. are classified as obese?

32% of adult men.

51
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What is the combined prevalence of overweight and obesity in adult women in the U.S.?

64% of adult women.

52
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What is the significance of obesity statistics?

They indicate a potential strain on healthcare systems due to associated health risks like diabetes and heart disease.

53
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What is the purpose of skinfold calipers in body composition assessment?

To estimate body fat percentage by measuring skinfold thickness at specific sites.

54
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What are the recommended body fat percentages for females and males?

30% or lower for females and 25% or lower for males.

55
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How is BMI calculated?

BMI = Weight in pounds x 703 / (Height in inches)^2.

56
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What BMI range is considered ideal?

A BMI of 18.5 to 24.9.

57
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What does BMR represent?

The minimum caloric requirement to sustain metabolic processes at rest.

58
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What caloric deficit is recommended for safe weight loss?

A caloric deficit of 500 to 1,000 calories per day, leading to 1 to 2 pounds of weight loss per week.

59
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What are some pharmacological interventions for obesity?

Antiobesity agents for individuals with a BMI of 30 or greater, or 27 with obesity-related medical problems.

60
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What are common nutritional deficiencies?

Thiamine (beriberi), niacin (pellagra), vitamin B6 (irritability), and vitamin C (scurvy).

61
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What characterizes anorexia nervosa?

Intentional starvation and a BMI of less than 17.5, affecting multiple body systems.

62
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What is bulimia nervosa?

Binge eating followed by purging behaviors, often leading to electrolyte imbalances and dental issues.

63
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What defines binge eating disorder?

Episodes of excessive eating without compensatory behaviors, often resulting in obesity.

64
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What characterizes binge eating disorder?

Episodes of excessive eating without compensatory behaviors, often resulting in obesity.

65
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What type of approach is typically required for treating eating disorders?

A multidisciplinary approach, including psychological support and nutritional counseling.

66
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What is eustress?

Positive stress that can motivate and enhance performance, leading to beneficial outcomes.

67
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What is distress?

Negative stress that can lead to anxiety, decreased performance, and health issues.

68
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How do both types of stress affect the body?

They induce physical responses, highlighting the mind-body connection.

69
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What is acute stress?

A short-term response to immediate threats that subsides once the threat is removed.

70
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What is chronic stress?

Long-term activation of the stress response, which can lead to various disease states.

71
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What does Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) describe?

The three stages of stress response: Alarm, Resistance, and Exhaustion.

72
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What occurs during the alarm stage of stress response?

Initiation by the sympathetic nervous system, leading to hormonal responses preparing the body for fight-or-flight.

73
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What happens during the resistance stage of stress response?

The body copes with stress through sustained hormone secretion, gradually returning to relaxation once the stressor is removed.

74
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What is the exhaustion stage of stress response?

Occurs when the stress response cannot be maintained, leading to physical and emotional depletion.

75
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What is allostasis in McEwen's Stress Response Theory?

The body's ability to achieve stability through change in response to stressors.

76
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What is allostatic load?

The cumulative wear and tear on the body due to chronic stress and the body's response to it.

77
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What is allostatic overload?

Occurs when stress exceeds the body's adaptive capacity, potentially leading to health issues.

78
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What are some lifestyle changes recommended for managing stress?

Reducing caffeine intake, engaging in yoga, increasing exercise, ensuring sufficient sleep, and achieving proper nutrition.

79
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What role does serotonin play in stress management?

Serotonin levels are often depleted during stress, leading to symptoms such as gastrointestinal upset and lack of calmness.

80
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What is the function of tryptophan in relation to serotonin?

Tryptophan is a precursor to serotonin, and its uptake in the brain is facilitated by carbohydrate ingestion.

81
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What is obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

A condition characterized by repeated episodes of airway obstruction during sleep, leading to nonrestorative sleep.

82
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What are common symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea?

Loud snoring, gasping for air during sleep, and excessive daytime fatigue.

83
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What are some pharmacological treatments for stress-related disorders?

Sedatives, antidepressants, and medications that modulate neurotransmitters like serotonin and dopamine.

84
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What are the benefits of regular exercise for stress management?

Improves physical health, enhances metabolic rate, promotes cardiovascular health, and raises endorphin levels.

85
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What health risks are associated with inactivity?

Increased risk of venous stasis, musculoskeletal issues, urinary stasis, and metabolic effects.

86
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What nursing interventions can help prevent pressure ulcers?

Repositioning patients every 2 hours, using transfer devices, and maintaining proper head of bed positioning.