1C8X3 CDC Vol. 1 Unit Review Questions (Introduction to the 1C8X3 Career Field & Computer Fundamentals)

(001) What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

a. Establish a viable job qualification standard (JQS).

b. Establish a viable specialty training standard (STS).

c. Plan upcoming Specialty Training Requirement Team (STRT).

d. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

d. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

(002) Where is a newly graduated 3-level required to attend training after arriving at his or her new base?

a. Professional Development Center.

b. Airman Leadership School (ALS).

c. First-Term Airman Center (FTAC).

d. Airman Family and Readiness Center (A&FRC).

c. First-Term Airman Center (FTAC).

(002) Which course is designed to target NCOs who completed Airman Leadership School (ALS) at least three years before and/or who have not yet attended the NCO academy?

a. Airman Leadership School (ALS).

b. Enlisted Professional Military Education (EPME).

c. Noncommissioned Officer Professional Enhancement course (NCOPE).

d. Senior Noncommissioned Officer Professional Enhancement course (SNCOPE).

c. Noncommissioned Officer Professional Enhancement course (NCOPE).

(003) What specific Air Force specialty code (AFSC) maintains equipment that assists in the safe and expedient movement of air traffic throughout the National Airspace System (NAS) as well as provides support to the National Weather Service (NWS)?

a. 1C8X1.

b. 1C8X2.

c. 1C8X3.

d. 1C8X4.

c. 1C8X3.

(003) Who provides critical maintenance and repair to navigational aids, instrument landing systems, and many other pieces of equipment that ensure the safety of aircrews accomplishing their missions?

a. Aircraft maintenance.

b. Aircrew safety management.

c. Computer systems technicians.

d. Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) technicians.

d. Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) technicians.

(003) Where are details concerning specific responsibilities for your Air Force specialty code (AFSC) found?

a. Your AFSC-specific Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

b. Enlisted Professional Military Education (EPME).

c. Your base functional manager (BFM).

d. Job qualification standard (JQS).

a. Your AFSC-specific Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

(004) What information system supports base, wing, and work center level training management activities?

a. Training Business Area (TBA).

b. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

c. Management Internal Control Toolset (MICT).

d. Global Cyber Support Systems-Dashboard (GCSS-D).

a. Training Business Area (TBA).

(004) What information system uses inputs from various sources, provides the capability to view equipment status, and drill down capability to serial number information from all levels?

a. Training Business Area (TBA).

b. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

c. Management Internal Control Toolset (MICT).

d. Global Cyber Support Systems-Dashboard (GCSS-D).

d. Global Cyber Support Systems-Dashboard (GCSS-D).

(005) Who is responsible for unit self-assessments?

a. Commanders.

b. Unit training manager.

c. Wing inspector general (IG).

d. Base training manager (BTM).

a. Commanders.

(006) What program assesses the effectiveness of a work center's training program, technician competence, and technical and procedural data adequacy?

a. Self-inspection.

b. Personnel evaluation.

c. Equipment evaluation.

d. Unit type code equipment evaluation.

b. Personnel evaluation.

(006) Which evaluation assesses unit type code (UTC) personnel readiness against the UTC mission capability (MISCAP) and ensures mission reliability?

a. Special personnel evaluation.

b. Equipment personnel evaluation.

c. UTC personnel evaluation.

d. Individual personnel evaluation.

c. UTC personnel evaluation.

(006) Who can authorize the substitution of pre/post deployment inspections to satisfy the requirements for an equipment evaluation?

a. Commander.

b. Unit training manager (UTM).

c. Wing inspector general (IG).

d. Base training manager.

a. Commander.

(006) How often will quality assurance (QA) evaluate all core base voice/video/data transport and transmission systems?

a. Every 6 months.

b. Every 12 months.

c. Every 18 months.

d. Every 24 months.

c. Every 18 months.

(006) Where can you find the sampling plan for unit type code (UTC) equipment evaluations?

a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

b. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36-2651, Air Force Training Program.

c. AFI 13-204, Volume 4, Management of Ground Radar and Airfield Systems, Attachment 4, Sampling Plan.

d. AFI 63-101/20-10, Integrated Life Cycle Management.

c. AFI 13-204, Volume 4, Management of Ground Radar and Airfield Systems, Attachment 4, Sampling Plan.

(007) Technicians will be decertified if they receive which rating on a personnel evaluation?

a. Satisfactory (Sat).

b. Unsatisfactory (Unsat).

c. Not in compliance (NIC).

d. Complies-with comments (CWC).

c. Not in compliance (NIC).

(007) Who is the closing authority for unsatisfactory evaluations?

a. Unit commander.

b. Unit training manager (UTM).

c. Wing inspector general (IG).

d. Base training manager (BTM).

a. Unit commander.

(008) Which operational support flight provides airfield management and air traffic operations services to the base flying wing transient and civil users?

a. Aircrew flight equipment flight.

b. Current operations flight (OSO).

c. Airfield operations flight (OSA).

d. Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) flight.

c. Airfield operations flight (OSA).

(008) Which operational support flight performs maintenance on radar, navigational aids, weather, and air traffic control (ATC) radio systems?

a. Aircrew flight equipment flight.

b. Current operations flight (OSO).

c. Airfield operations flight (OSA).

d. Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) flight.

d. Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) flight.

(009) What agency acts as the lead command for the creation and application of criteria, procedures, and precision equipment for worldwide instrument flight operations, air traffic control, airfield management, and air traffic control and landing systems for the Air Force?

a. Air traffic control (ATC).

b. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

c. Air Force Flight Standards Agency (AFFSA).

d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

c. Air Force Flight Standards Agency (AFFSA).

(010) Where is the headquarters of the 557th Weather Wing located? a. Davis-Monthan AFB, Arizona.

b. Mountain Home AFB, Idaho.

c. Keesler AFB, Mississippi.

d. Offutt AFB, Nebraska.

d. Offutt AFB, Nebraska.

(010) What program is Operating Location Kilo responsible for managing?

a. Environmental climatology program.

b. Combat weather systems development.

c. American Forces Network Weather Center.

d. Department of Defense's portion of the next-generation weather radar program.

d. Department of Defense's portion of the next-generation weather radar program.

(011) What dictates when air traffic control squadrons are activated for deployment?

a. Operations tempo.

b. Time from last deployment.

c. Air National Guard training schedule.

d. Ten-year deployment plan developed by congress.

a. Operations tempo.

23. (011) Who provides the theater Air Force commander a rapid reaction mobile air control system and control/reporting center during worldwide contingencies?

a. Intelligence squadron.

b. Air control squadron.

c. Operations support squadron.

d. Air traffic control squadron.

b. Air control squadron.

(012) Who is the only entity that can grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards?

a. Department of Labor.

b. Air Force Chief of Safety.

c. Major command (MAJCOM) commanders.

d. Bioenvironmental Occupational and Environmental Working Group (BOEWG).

a. Department of Labor.

(013) Which action is not a determining factor for the severity of an electric shock?

a. Amount of time exposed.

b. Body's physical condition.

c. Amount of current flowing through the body.

d. Conductance ratio of voltage versus time exposed.

d. Conductance ratio of voltage versus time exposed.

(013) What amount of current flow through the human body can cause shock that may cause you to go into cardiac arrest?

a. 50 milliamperes or more.

b. 40 milliamperes or less.

c. 50 volts or more.

d. 40 volts or less.

a. 50 milliamperes or more.

(013) Which statement is true regarding electrical arcing?

a. Objects must contact the electricity source to create an arc.

b. Objects do not have to contact the electricity source to create an arc.

c. Arcing is not dangerous since it only exerts a small amount of the originating voltage.

d. Arcing cannot occur when power is removed from the equipment you are working on.

b. Objects do not have to contact the electricity source to create an arc.

(013) What does non-ionizing radiation cause?

a. A cooling effect in the body.

b. Radioactive poisoning of the blood.

c. Damage of deep body tissues and organs.

d. Radioactive poisoning of the cells in deep body tissues.

c. Damage of deep body tissues and organs.

(014) When working on energized equipment, what is a good practice to perform?

a. Make sure the equipment is tagged with Air Force Visual Aid 91-306, DANGER—HIGH VOLTAGE.

b. Keep one hand in your pocket or behind your back.

c. Have a safety observer, only if available.

d. Permanently bypass all interlocks.

b. Keep one hand in your pocket or behind your back.

(015) What are the two types of fall protection?

a. Rescue and tower.

b. Passive and active.

c. Positioning and restraint.

d. Environmental and structural.

b. Passive and active

(015) Why do workers suspended in a full body harness often lose consciousness after a fall?

a. Dehydration.

b. Head trauma from the fall.

c. Neck whipping motion due to the fall.

d. Restrictions in blood flow to extremities caused by the harness.

d. Restrictions in blood flow to extremities caused by the harness.

(015) Which hazard is not an example of an environmental climbing hazard?

a. Corrosion.

b. Moisture.

c. Ice/snow.

d. The sun.

a. Corrosion.

(015) What does a knot in a lanyard do to its overall strength?

a. Increases strength by 25 percent.

b. Increases strength by 50 percent.

c. Reduces strength by 50 percent.

d. Has no effect.

c. Reduces strength by 50 percent.

(015) Carabiners used in climbing should be rated to handle how many pounds?

a. 500.

b. 1,000.

c. 5,000.

d. 10,000.

c. 5,000.

(016) Joint publications provide guidance for military services to use while preparing

a. appropriate joint operations plans.

b. doctrinal guidance for a host nation in time of war.

c. United States military involvement in domestic emergencies.

d. secretary of the Air Force guidance for Air Force forces in remote locations.

a. appropriate joint operations plans.

(016) What do allied communication publications do?

a. Provide procedural guidance on Air Force policies.

b. Standardize communication procedures for allied forces.

c. Provide routing information for allied nations to route appointment letters.

d. Establish a common directory of policies in English and French for allied and United States leadership.

b. Standardize communication procedures for allied forces.

(017) Who manages Air Force publications?

a. Air Force Publications and Forms Management Office.

b. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office.

c. Air Force E-Publishing Website.

d. Air Force Doctrine Department..

b. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office.

(017) What publications are usually written at a lower organizational level, such as the squadron and flight level?

a. Operating instructions (OI).

b. Air Force manuals (AFMAN).

c. Air Force policy directives (AFPD).

d. Air Force doctrine documents (AFDD).

a. Operating instructions (OI).

(017) Where are Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) publications located?

a. Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System (STARS) online.

b. Aviation Data Exchange Portal (ADXP) online.

c. Aeronautical Data Exchange (ADX) online.

d. FAA Exchange (FAAX) online.

c. Aeronautical Data Exchange (ADX) online.

(018) What online system functions to acquire, improve, publish, catalog, manage, store, distribute and display official technical orders?

a. Electronic technical operations (eTO).

b. Technical order distribution office (TODO).

c. Air Force Technical Ordering System (ATOS).

d. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

d. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

(018) Using the Joint Electronics Type Designation System, what does "GRR" represent?

a. Ground Radar Receiver.

b. Ground Radio Receiver.

c. General Radar Receiver.

d. General Radio Receiver.

b. Ground Radio Receiver.

(018) What technical order provides instructions on how to modify military systems or equipment?

a. Work unit code (WUC) manuals.

b. Time compliance technical order (TCTO).

c. Standard installation practices technical order (SIPTO).

d. Depot maintenance modification technical order (DMMTO).

b. Time compliance technical order (TCTO).

(018) With a minimum of formal training time, what technical order serves as a manual of instruction in developing installation and maintenance proficiency?

a. Operating instructions.

b. Work unit code (WUC) manuals.

c. Time compliance technical order (TCTO).

d. Standard installation practices technical order (SIPTO).

d. Standard installation practices technical order (SIPTO).

(019) Who is responsible for the civilian accreditation of the many industry standards used to develop the cyberspace support equipment the Air Force operates and maintains?

a. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

b. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

c. Electronic Industry Components Association (EICA).

d. Acquisition Streamlining Standardization Information System (ASSIST).

a. American National Standard Institute (ANSI

(019) Why is military standardization beneficial to the Air Force?

a. Ensures products meet certain requirements set forth by the United Nations.

b. Ensures Air Force communication systems cannot be used by other countries.

c. Ensures Air Force equipment has broad engineering and technical requirements.

d. Achieves Department of Defense interoperability, commonality, reliability, and compatibility with logistics systems.

d. Achieves Department of Defense interoperability, commonality, reliability, and compatibility with logistics systems.

(019) What describes the essential technical requirements for purchased material that is military unique or substantially modified commercial items?

a. Military detail (MIL-DTL).

b. Military performance (MIL-PRF).

c. Military specification (MIL-SPEC).

d. Military workbook (MIL-WRKBK).

c. Military specification (MIL-SPEC).

(020) What resource priority level (PL) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States?

a. PL1.

b. PL2.

c. PL3.

d. PL4.

b. PL2.

(021) When an organization submits a security standard waiver request, what compensatory measures should be taken until fix actions occur?

a. Extra security patrols, reduced work hours, or additional locks.

b. Reduced work hours, extra security patrols, or new procedures.

c. Reduced work hours, new procedures, barricades, or additional locks.

d. Extra security patrols, new procedures, barricades, or additional locks.

d. Extra security patrols, new procedures, barricades, or additional locks.

(021) Which is not a type of facility secured area?

a. Limited access.

b. Controlled.

c. Restricted.

d. Critical.

d. Critical.

(022) Where are basic input/output system (BIOS) settings saved?

a. Cache.

b. Random access memory (RAM).

c. Compact disc-read-only memory (CD-ROM).

d. Complementary metal oxide semiconductor (CMOS) memory.

d. Complementary metal oxide semiconductor (CMOS) memory.

(022) What type of power supply is most commonly used in computers today?

a. Linear.

b. Switching.

c. Internal disk.

d. Non-volatile.

b. Switching.

(023) What was developed to enhance a computer's video subsystem because of the increased performance requirements on high-end PCs?

a. FireWire.

b. Universal Serial Bus (USB).

c. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP).

d. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA).

c. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP).

(024) Why is it essential for critical information from hard disk drives to be backed up or copied onto other media?

a. Hard drives connect by FireWire and Universal Serial Bus (USB).

b. Disk drives are subject to mechanical failure.

c. Stored data is susceptible to hackers.

d. It is not essential.

b. Disk drives are subject to mechanical failure.

(024) What performs the function of displaying the screen you see on a computer monitor?

a. Liquid crystal display.

b. Cathode ray tube.

c. Graphics/video card.

d. Image scanner.

c. Graphics/video card.

(025) Which operating system (OS) is a clone of Unix?

a. International Business Machines (IBM) Solaris.

b. Windows.

c. Kernel.

d. Linux.

d. Linux.

(026) Which action is not a possible result of computer system damage originating from viruses?

a. Redirecting power supply voltages.

b. Reformatting of a hard disk.

c. Erasing programs and files.

d. Destroying disk directories.

a. Redirecting power supply voltages.

(026) What is a common way malicious code can get into your system?

a. Visiting the Air Force Portal.

b. Backing up files to external media.

c. Clicking an e-mail link or attachment.

d. Logging in to weather systems for maintenance.

c. Clicking an e-mail link or attachment.

(027) How many traditional Unix directories are there?

a. 5.

b. 6.

c. 7.

d. 8.

c. 7.

(027) What directory is the highest-level directory in the Unix file system?

a. home.

b. root.

c. mstr.

d. bin.

b. root.

(028) What is considered the standard Unix editor?

a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

b. Command.

c. Insert.

d. vi.

d. vi.

(029) What layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) model provides a variety of coding and conversion functions applied to application layer data?

a. Session.

b. Physical.

c. Presentation.

d. Application support.

c. Presentation.

(030) Who is the governing body for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD)?

a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

b. Defense Information Systems Network (DISN).

c. Open Systems Interconnect Organization (OSI).

d. International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

a. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

(031) In positive acknowledgement, what does the sender do?

a. Receives "CONNECT MADE" packet from recipient when connection is established.

b. Keeps a record of each data packet sent and expects an acknowledgement.

c. Sends data packets and is satisfied when sending buffer equals "1".

d. Activates a timer in the recipient system to track responses.

b. Keeps a record of each data packet sent and expects an acknowledgement.

(031) Flow control methods prevent network congestion by

a. ensuring transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

b. ensuring a window for transmitting devices is established in the error table.

c. determining whether transmitted data has become corrupt or damaged.

d. sending data through redundant paths to ensure delivery.

a. ensuring transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices with data.

(031) Which connection protocol sends out data packets to the receiving system and does not require a receipt acknowledgement?

a. Source Port Protocol (SPP).

b. Connection-oriented communication.

c. Datagram Checksum Protocol (DCP).

d. Connectionless-oriented communication.

d. Connectionless-oriented communication.

(031) User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is best for what type of transmission?

a. When minor data loss is not acceptable.

b. When windowing or acknowledgement is necessary.

c. Applications that need to put sequences of segments together.

d. Sending small amounts of data where guaranteed delivery is not required.

d. Sending small amounts of data where guaranteed delivery is not required.

(032) What is the basic communication language or protocol of the Internet?

a. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

b. Advanced Research Projects Agency Network (ARPANET).

c. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN).

d. Domain Name System (DNS).

a. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

(032) What protocol enables Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) to Internetwork?

a. Internet Protocol (IP).

b. Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).

c. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

d. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).

a. Internet Protocol (IP).

(032) In what octet of an Internet Protocol (IP) address can you identify the class of the address?

a. Registry.

b. Second.

c. Third.

d. First.

d. First.

(032) Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) addresses are how much larger than Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4) addresses?

a. Twice as large.

b. Six times larger.

c. Four times larger.

d. Three times larger.

c. Four times larger.

(032) What are the three types of Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6) addresses?

a. Anycast, dualcast, and unicast.

b. Unicast, multicast, and anycast.

c. Anycast, dualcast, and singlecast.

d. Unicast, manycast, and universalcast.

b. Unicast, multicast, and anycast.

(033) When a client computer initiates contact with a server, what does it use to request a particular service?

a. Port numbers.

b. Web browser.

c. Hybrid stacks.

d. Physical topologies.

a. Port numbers.

(034) What network type is essentially a private Internet for a company or organization?

a. Intranet.

b. Extranet.

c. Bus topology.

d. Hybrid topology.

a. Intranet.

(034) What are Intranets that share a portion of their content with customers, suppliers, or other businesses, but not with the public?

a. Subnet mask.

b. Extranets.

c. Arpanets.

d. Dualnet.

b. Extranets.

(035) A wide area network (WAN) connects networks that are typically separated by

a. firewalls.

b. different languages.

c. geographical distances.

d. different network topologies.

c. geographical distances.

(036) What network topology consists of devices connected to a common or shared cable?

a. Bus.

b. Star.

c. Scale.

d. Dual ring.

a. Bus.

(036) What network topology consists of cabling segments from each computer connecting to a centralized component?

a. Bus.

b. Star.

c. Scale.

d. Dual ring.

b. Star.

(036) In what network topology does each workstation act as a repeater for a transmission?

a. Bus.

b. Car.

c. Star.

d. Ring.

d. Ring.

(037) What device modulates signals to encode digital information and demodulates signals to decode the transmitted information?

a. Bridge.

b. Router.

c. Switch.

d. Modem.

d. Modem.

(038) What device logically separates a single network into multiple segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

a. Bridge.

b. Router.

c. Switch.

d. Modem.

a. Bridge.

(039) If a router does not know how to forward a packet, what does it do?

a. Drops the packet.

b. Retransmits the packet.

c. Returns the packet to the originator.

d. Switches the address to a known good address.

a. Drops the packet.

(039) In what routing method does a network administrator program a router to use specific paths between nodes?

a. Dynamic.

b. Default.

c. Admin.

d. Static.

d. Static.

(040) What term best describes when a sender locks transmitted information down with a secret combination, or key, and the receiver can unlock the information assuming they have the same key?

a. Key defense.

b. Cryptology.

c. Encryption.

d. Algorithm.

c. Encryption.

(041) What could happen if you used the wrong type of radio-guide (RG) cable?

a. The nominal impedance of the connected equipment will decrease.

b. The nominal impedance of the connected equipment will increase.

c. Decreased electromagnetic interference (EMI) impedance.

d. Equipment damage and or system failure.

d. Equipment damage and or system failure.

(041) What is the most common standard used for wireless networking?

a. Laser links.

b. Infrared links.

c. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 801.22.

d. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.11.

d. Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.11.