Pharmacology - New Material

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202 Terms

1
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What are antifungals used to treat?

dermatophytes

yeast

systemic mycoses

2
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What dermatophyte topical treatment is safe in puppies and kittens?

lime-sulfur

3
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What is thiabendazole found in?

tresaderm

4
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What is chlorhexadine found in?

shampoos with ketoconazole

5
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What are systemic dermatophyte treatments used for?

onchomycosis (nail infections)

multifocal infections

where topical application is not practical

6
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Griseofulvin is effective only on ?

dermatophytes

7
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How can absorption of griseofulvin be enhanced?

administration with a fat-containing meal, margarine, or by using formulations containing propylene glycol

8
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Particle size greatly affects __________ absorption.

oral

9
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What is the most serious hematological effect caused by griseofulvin?

bone marrow suppression

10
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Who are more affected to hematological toxicity with griseofulvin?

cats

11
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Do not use griseofulvin during ?

pregnancy

12
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Can griseofulvin be given to food producing animals?

no

13
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What can be used as an alternative treatment for those that cannot tolerate griseofulvin?

azoles

14
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What can lufenuron be used to prevent?

fleas and ringworm (inhibits chitin)

15
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What can lufenuron be used to treat?

active dermatophyte infections

16
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What is an alternative in dogs or cats with either Malassazia or dermatophytosis when they cannot tolerate the azoles?

terbinafine

17
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Nausea and vomiting have been reported in _________ treated with terbinafine.

cats

18
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What yeast therapy drugs are too toxic to use systemically?

nystatin and clotrimazole

19
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What are the etiologic agents of systemic mycoses?

blastomycosis

histoplasmosis

coccidiomycosis

cryptococcosis

sporotrichosis

aspergillosis

20
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What is mainly used in combination with fluconazole for cryptococcal meningitis?

fluorocytosine

21
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What is a major side effect of fluorocytosine?

bone marrow suppression

22
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What is useful for systemic candidal infections and most systemic mycoses?

amphoteracin B

23
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Amphoteracin B is only given _______. Why?

IV, poorly absorbed orally and irritating to SQ tissues if extravasated

24
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What is a major side effect of amphoteracin B?

nephrotoxicity

25
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You should maintain ____ during amphoteracin B therapy.

GFR

26
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What amphoteracin product prevents damage to the kidney?

liposomal

27
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What azole is is an enzyme inhibitor that is important in drug interactions?

ketoconazole

28
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Should ketoconazole be given with food?

yes

29
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Should itraconazole be given with food?

yes

30
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Does fluconazole have to be given with food?

no

31
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What azole has activity against aspergillus?

voriconazole

32
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What can voriconazole be used in?

dogs, birds, horses

33
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What can voriconazole not be used in?

cats (neurotoxic)

34
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Unlike other azoles, if voriconazole is given with a ____________, it may decrease absorption.

fatty diet

35
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What is used to treat sporotrichosis and woody tongue in cattle?

sodium iodide

36
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What is used orally, often in feed, to control bovine infectious pododermatitis (bacterial foot rot)?

EDDI (ethylenediamine dihydriodide)

37
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Sporotrichosis is caused by the fungus ?

Sporothrix schenckii

38
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How is sporotrichosis transmitted in dogs?

puncture wounds

39
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How is sporotrichosis transmitted in cats?

scratch or bite with contaminated claws or teeth

40
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How is sporotrichosis transmitted in humans?

open, draining sores on infected cats

41
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What are drugs that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms?

antimicrobials

42
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The suffix __________ indicates that the drugs kill microorganisms.

-cidal

43
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The suffix _________ indicates that the drug inhibits replication, but does not directly kill the microorganism.

-static

44
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What is the goal of antimicrobial therapy?

kill or disable pathogens without killing the host

45
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What does successful administration of antimicrobials require?

microorganism is susceptible to chosen antimicrobials

the antimicrobial is able to reach the site of infection at appropriate concentrations

animal must be able to tolerate high concentrations of the drug

46
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A bacterial strain with a MIC for an antimicrobial that is low enough to not to produce significant side effects in the host is said to be ?

sensitive

47
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A concentration that is required to kill or inhibit the pathogen is so high that it would cause significant side effects in the host the bacteria is said to be ?

resistant

48
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What is when bacteria and other microorganisms have developed the ability to survive in the presence of antimicrobial drugs designed to kill them?

drug resistance/antimicrobial resistance

49
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What are examples of aminoglycosides?

gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin

50
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What can gentamicin be used in?

IM/SQ in dogs and cats

more commonly given IV

51
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What is amikacin used in?

approved for intrauterine use in horses

usually used IV

52
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What is tobramycin used in?

approved for IV use in humans

used IV in animals as an alternate to amikacin

53
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Aminoglycosides are __________ and effective against ?

bactericidal, oxygen dependent bacteria

54
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Aminoglycosides are not absorbed well ?

orally

55
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What is the only labeled oral aminoglycoside?

neomycin

56
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Topical aminoglycosides are not well absorbed across ______________ but can be absorbed across ____________.

intact skin, burns and wounds

57
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What toxicity occurs when the renal tubule selectively absorbs the drug where it covalently binds to ribosomes and mitochondria?

nephrotoxicity

58
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What ototoxicity leads to deafness?

chochlea

59
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What ototoxicity leads to ataxia and nystagmus?

vestibular nerve injury

60
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What is the least common toxicity associated with aminoglycosides?

neuromuscular blockade

61
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With ototoxicity, _____ are very sensitive to the vestibular side effects.

cats

62
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What is related to aminoglycosides, but lacks nephro and ototoxicity?

aminocyclitols

63
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What is the only member of the aminocyclitols?

spectinomycin

64
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What are the injectable fluoroquinolones?

enrofloxacin

danofloxacin

ciprofloxacin

65
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Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is used for __________ (Baytril 100) is used for ____________.

dogs and cats, bovine respiratory disease

66
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Rapid administration of enrofloxacin causes ?

seizures

67
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Give danfloxacin (A-180) for ?

bovine respiratory disease

68
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What are the oral fluoroquinolones?

enrofloxacin

difloxacin

orbifloxacin

marbofloxacin

ciprofloxacin

pradofloxacin

69
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What drugs can cause arthropathy?

fluoroquinolones

70
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What fluoroquinolone can cause blindness due to retinal injury in cats?

enrofloxacin

71
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What fluoroquinolone can cause bone marrow suppression in dogs?

pradofloxacin

72
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What are the most commonly used drugs for rickettsial diseases?

tetracyclines

73
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What are examples of tetracyclines?

tetracycline HCl

chlortetracycline

oxytetracycline

doxycycline

minocycline

74
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What is the primary injectable tetracycline in veterinary medicine?

oxytetracycline

75
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What tetracycline is used as a feed additive, used in food animal species for disease treatment and prevention, and can be used as a growth promotant?

chlortetracycline

76
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What is a Type A Medicated Article for disease control and treatment in chickens, including laying hens and turkeys? It is the only tetracycline class drug with no restrictions for use in laying chickens

aureomycin (chlortetracycline)

77
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What tetracycline is primarily used in small animals (capsule and liquid) and in poultry (water additive)?

tetracycline HCL

78
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What is the preferred tetracycline in small animals? It requires q12h dosing for Ehrlichiosis treatment.

doxycycline

79
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What is GI floral disruption, yeast overgrowth, and salmonella in horses caused by?

tetracyclines

80
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Expired tetracyclines can cause ?

nephrotoxicity

81
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The tablet form of ____________ can cause esophageal ulcers in cats.

doxycycline

82
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What are used mostly for coccidiosis and bovine foot rot?

sulfonamides

83
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What are examples of sulfonamides?

sulfadimethoxine (albon)

sulfachlorpyridazine (vetisulid)

sulfadiazine

84
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Never give injectable sulfonamides any other route than ____ because it causes tissue slough.

IV

85
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What type of adverse reactions of sulfonamides affects dobermans?

B

86
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"The use of ________________ in lactating dairy cattle, other than those medications specifically approved for use, has been specified by the Food and Drug Administration as a high priority for regulatory attention."

sulfonamides

87
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What are some common macrolides?

erythromycin

tylosin

azithromycin

tilmicosin

clarithromycin

88
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What is one of the macrolides used to treat C. (Rhodococcus) equi infections in foals?

erythromycin

89
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What macrolide is sometimes recommended for the treatment of chronic colitis in small animals? It is commonly used in dogs to treat tear staining (epiphora).

oral tylosin

90
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What macrolide is indicated for the treatment of bovine or ovine respiratory disease caused by Mannheimia (Pasturella) haemolytica?

tilmicosin

91
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What macrolide has been shown to be ineffective in the treatment of Mycoplasma haemofelis or eliminating Chlamydophila felis in cats? It may be potentially useful for treating Rhodococcus infections in foals.

azithromycin

92
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What macrolide is used in small animals for campylobacter diarrhea?

erythromycin

93
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What macrolide can cause colic and death in horses?

tylosin

94
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Tilmicosin can be ___________ to ducks, goats, horses, pigs, and humans.

cardiotoxic

95
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What macrolide is approved to treat beef cattle and swine for respiratory disease?

tulathromycin

96
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Azithromycin has a ___________ half life and ___________ GI side effects than erythromycin.

longer, fewer

97
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What macrolide is sometimes used in Rhodococcus equi infected foals where a non-respiratory foci (e.g., endocarditis) exist due to its longer plasma life?

clarithromycin

98
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What is the slaughter withdrawal for tildipirosin?

21 days

99
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What are examples of phenicols?

chloramphenicol

florfenicol

100
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What phenicol is used extra-labely in hospitalized horses? Short half-life requires high and frequent dosing.

chloramphenicol