Private Pilot Theory Exam 3

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HW ?'s #16, #17, #18, #19, #20, #21, #23

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139 Terms

1
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What is the FAA definition of "crewmember" and in what FAR can it be found?

A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time, 14 CFR 1.1

2
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What is the meaning of the FAR abbreviation “MEL” and in what FAR is it found?

Minimum equipment list, 14 CFR 1.2

3
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Who can change the oil in your airplane, and in what FAR is that information found?

owners, mechanics, repairmen
14 CFR 43.3

4
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In what FAR can your doctor find the specific requirements for a FAA 3rd Class medical physical?

14 CFR 67.301

5
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How long is a Student Pilot Certificate valid for, and in what FAR is it found?

After April 1, 2016, it never expires, 14 CFR 61.21

6
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How long is a Class 3 medical certificate valid for when someone is younger than 40 and in what FAR is that found?

60 calendar months after date of examination, 14 CFR 61.19

7
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Can a Private Pilot be hired to fly someone’s pets from Omaha to Green Bay, and in what FAR is that found?

no, 14 CFR 61.113

8
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How and where do you log training time given by your flight instructor, in what FAR is it found?

in logbook with date and total flight time, 14 CFR 61.51

9
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You have a beer at lunch and want to fly that night. What restrictions are you held to and in what FAR is it found?

within 8 hours after last drink, 14 CFR 91.17

10
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Which FAR describes aircraft Right-of-Way rules?

14 CFR 91.113

11
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Which FAR describes aircraft ATC light signals?

14 CFR 91.125

12
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Which FAR describes VFR cruising altitude rules?

14 CFR 91.159

13
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What equipment is required for VFR day flight and in what FAR is this found?

14 CFR 91.205

A - airspeed indicator

T - Tachometer for each engine

O - oil pressure

M - manifold pressure gauge

A - altimeter

T - temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine

O - oil temperature gauge

F - fuel gauge indicating quantity in each tank

L - landing gear position indicator

A - anti-collision light system

M - magnetic direction indicator

E - emergency locator transmitter

S - seat belts

14
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What additional equipment is required for VFR night flight and in what FAR is this found?

14 CFR 91.205

F - fuses

L - electric landing light

A - anti-collision light

P - position lights

S - source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment

15
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Which Title and Part describes what to do in case you are involved in an accident?

FAA order 8020.11

16
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For Class "A" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums.

visibility: None

Distance from clouds: none

17
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For Class "B" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums.

visibility: 3 statute miles

Distance from clouds: clear of clouds

18
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For Class "C" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums.

visibility: 3 statute miles

Distance from clouds: 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal

19
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For Class "D" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums.

visibility: 3 statute miles

distance from clouds: 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 horizontal

20
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For Class "E" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums at or above 10,000 MSL

visibility: 5 Statue miles

Distance from clouds: 1000 above, 1000 below, 1 SM horizontal

21
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For Class "E" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums at less than 10,000 MSL

visibility: 3 Statute miles

distance from Clouds: 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal

22
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For Class "G" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums at 1,200 AGL or less during the day

visibility: 1 statute miles

distance from clouds: clear of clouds

23
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For Class "G" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums at 1,200 ft AGL or less at night

visibility: 3 statute miles

distance from clouds: 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal

24
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For Class "G" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums from more than 1,200 but less than 10,000 at day

visibility: 1 statute mile

distance from clouds: clear of clouds

25
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For Class "G" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums more than 1,200 but less than 10,000 at night

visibility: 3 statute miles

distance from clouds: 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal

26
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For Class "G" Airspace, state the basic VFR visibility and distance from clouds minimums more than 1,200 and at/above 10,000

visibility: 5 statute mile

distance from clouds: 1000 above, 1000 below, 1 SM horizontal

27
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the prime meridian is how many degrees latitude or longitude?

0 degrees of longitude

28
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the prime meridian runs through?

Greenwich, England

29
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Where would a pilot find information about a Military Operations Area (MOA) such as Altitude of Use, Time of Use, and Controlling Agency?

back of sectional charts

30
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Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL

31
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A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

class D

32
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In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Class A

33
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what hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas that have a solid blue line around with dashes on the inside?

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

34
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What are the differences between civilian and military airport beacons?

civilian is green and white

military is green and 2 white

35
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What is the minimum altitude over a congested area

1000 ft

36
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what is the minimum altitude over an uncongested area

500 ft

37
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What actions do we take if we're converging head-to-head with another aircraft?

turn to the right

38
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What actions do we take if we're converging at an angle with another aircraft that is the same category?

aircraft on the right has the right of way

39
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What actions do we take if we're converging at an angle with another aircraft that is a different category?

less maneuverable aircraft has right of way

40
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What actions do we take if we're overtaking another aircraft from the rear?

Pass on the right

41
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What does it mean if a runway is designated 32L or 32C?

parallel runways (L is left) (C is center)

42
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What is the rule for VFR cruising altitudes regarding direction of flight for 000-179?

odd thousands + 500’

43
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What is the rule for VFR cruising altitudes regarding direction of flight for 180-359?

even thousands + 500’

44
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When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

45
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Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

46
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The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

to enter at 45 degree at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

47
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<p><span>What is the length of the displaced threshold for runway 22 at Toledo (TDZ)?</span></p>

What is the length of the displaced threshold for runway 22 at Toledo (TDZ)?

380 ft

48
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An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.

49
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The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

090° and 270° magnetic.

50
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<p><span>When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with&nbsp;</span></p>

When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with 

Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz

51
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Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

Student pilots

52
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What does the outbound destination sign identify?

 

Identifies direction to take-off runways

53
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While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

54
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<p><span>Where in relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport?</span></p>

Where in relation to the airfield is the airport beacon located for Sioux City (SUX) airport?

East of runway 17-35.

55
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<p><span>From the cockpit, marking G confirms the aircraft to be</span></p>

From the cockpit, marking G confirms the aircraft to be

on a runway, about to clear

56
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<p><span>For information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln Regional/ Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to</span></p>

For information about the parachute jumping operations at Lincoln Regional/ Harder (LHM) Airport, refer to

the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport/Facility Directory)

57
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<p><span>What minimum equipment is required for a flight from Kleberg Co. Airport (area 7) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3)?</span></p>

What minimum equipment is required for a flight from Kleberg Co. Airport (area 7) to Corpus Christi Intl. Airport (area 3)?

Two-way radio and Mode C transponder with altitude reporting equipment

58
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<p><span>The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?</span></p>

The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace?

class E

59
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<p><span>The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is</span></p>

The airspace directly overlying the town of Findlay is

surface area Class E airspace

60
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<p><span>What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?</span></p>

What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

61
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<p><span>An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?</span></p>

An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time?

1030 MST

62
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<p>An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?</p>

An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

2230Z

63
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<p><span>During preflight planning, your course is plotted to fly through R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?</span></p>

During preflight planning, your course is plotted to fly through R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?

On the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area

64
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<p>The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?</p>

The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL

65
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<p><span>What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?</span></p>

What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

1,548 feet MSL

66
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<p><span>What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?</span></p>

What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

1,403 feet MSL

67
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Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

2,000 feet AGL

68
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Define "true airspeed"

speed at which a plane travels through the air

69
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Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

70
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<p><span>Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?</span></p>

Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

Minot Intl. (area 1)

71
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<p>The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents</p>

The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents

wind direction and velocity

72
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Traveling eastward across the dateline from Hong Kong to Hawaii, you would expect to gain 1 day

false

73
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The VFR cruising altitude rules are based on  ___________ heading of the route of flight and state_________________________.

magnetic, 000° - 179° odd thousands plus 500 feet

74
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An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
'TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...'
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

south

75
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<p><span>Identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport.</span></p>

Identify the airspace over Tomlinson Airport.

Class G airspace - surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace - 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.

76
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<p><span>The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is</span></p>

The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is

19 feet

77
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<p><span>The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from</span></p>

The terrain elevation of the light tan area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL

78
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How many feet are in a nautical mile

6067

79
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<p><span>What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?</span></p>

What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?

unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

80
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<p><span>What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of Dallas Executive (RBD)?</span></p>

What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of Dallas Executive (RBD)?

3549

81
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Using the E6-B find the density altitude given:

Pressure altitude: 3000’

Temp: 20 C

4000

82
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Using the E6-B find the density altitude given:

Pressure altitude: 10,000’

Temp: -20 C

8000

83
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Using the E6-B find the density altitude given:

Pressure altitude: 4000’

Temp: -25 C

0

84
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Using E6-B find the time it takes to fly 240 NM at 180 kts

80 minutes

85
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Using E6-B find time it takes to fly 33 NM at 110 kts

18 minutes

86
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Using E6-B if you fly for 2 hours at a speed of 110 kts how far did you go in NM?

220

87
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Using E6-B if you fly for 1:30 at 100 kts how far did you go in NM

150

88
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Using E6-B if it takes 43 minutes to travel 90 NM how fast are you flying?

125 kts

89
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Using E6-B if it takes 19 minutes to fly 35 NM how fast were you flying?

111 kts

90
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Using E6-B if your plane burns 12 GPH and it burns 30 gallons how long were you flying

150 minutes

91
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Using E6-B if your plane burns 11 GPH and it burns 24 gallons how long were you flying

131 minutes

92
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Using E6-B if you fly for 40 minutes and burn 7 gallons of fuel what is your rate in GPH

10.5

93
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Using E6-B if you fly for 4 hours and 11 minutes and burn 36 gallons of fuel what is your rate in GPH

8.4

94
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Using E6-B if you fly for 15 minutes and your fuel burns at 14 GPH how much fuel did you use

3.5

95
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Using E6-B if you fly for 28 minutes and your fuel burns at 11 GPH how much fuel did you use

5.15

96
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Using E6-B what’s your true airspeed if
CAS: 125
temp: 15
press. alt: 5000

137 kts

97
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Using E6-B whats your true airspeed if
CAS: 110
temp: 0
press. alt: 8000

124 kts

98
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Using E6-B what’s your true airspeed if
CAS: 149
temp: -5
press. alt: 12,000

180 kts

99
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Using E6-B find your true heading and groundspeed
TC: 30
TAS: 170
Wind: 080/20kt

TH: 35
GS: 156

100
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Using E6-B find your true heading and groundspeed.
TC: 310
TAS: 120
Wind: 180/16kt

TH: 304
GS: 130