Studied by 13 people
To further ensure that test results are accurate, what test must be done along with the patient sample?
a. Proficiency test
b. Daily check
c. Calibration
d. Control test
d. Control test
Which of the following best describes the purpose of using oil immersion?
a. Scatter light rays throughout the field
b. Decrease magnification
c. Visualize all objects in the field
d. Multiply ocular lens magnification
d. Multiply ocular lens magnification
Which of the following is true about an electron microscope?
a. Most often found in small clinics
b. Can be used for visualization of viruses
c. None of the above
d. Requires no special training
b. Can be used for visualization of viruses
Which of the following is the primary factory for the production of blood cells?
a. Lymph nodes
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Bone marrow
d. Bone marrow
Which of the following best describes why OSHA requires safety needles be made available to employees?
a. Can only be used with specific guidelines
b. Protects patients completely from accidental sticks
c. Eliminates the need for biohazard waste containers
d. Prevents on-the-job needle stick injuries
d. Prevents on-the-job needle stick injuries
When a blood sample cannot be obtained, which of the following should be done?
c. All the above.
b. Advance the needle slightly.
c. Try another tube.
d. Withdraw the needle slightly.
c. All the above.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of additives?
a. Chemical to help preserve blood
b. Substance to accelerate the clotting process
c. Anticoagulant to prevent clotting
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following best describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified?
a. Test name on label
b. Laboratory use
c. Size of the tube
d. Tube stopper color
d. Tube stopper color
Which of the following is the most appropriate action when using a phlebotomy tray?
a. Use to transport blood specimens only.
b. Keep covered with a sterile cover.
c. Label with an approved biohazard symbol.
d. Keep away from patient examination rooms.
c. Label with an approved biohazard symbol.
Which of the following is the first step in performing a successful venipuncture?
a. Use non-sterile disposable gloves.
b. Position the patient in a sitting position.
c. Clean the site with an alcohol prep pad.
d. Put the patient at ease.
d. Put the patient at ease.
Which of the following is the recommended order for checking the best available vein site?…..
1. back of the hand
2. antecubital region of the arm
3. back of the wrist
4. ankle or foot
a. 4, 1, 3, 2
b. 2, 3, 1, 4
c. 4, 3, 1, 2,
d. 2, 1, 3, 4,
d. 2, 1, 3, 4,
Which of the following is NOT a quality assurance control?
a. Patient label must have complete information.
b. Specimen must be in correct anticoagulant.
c. Specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached.
d. Each specimen must have its own label attached to the specimen’s primary container.
c. Specimens are in syringes with a needle still attached.
Which of the following is in a mixture of blood obtained from capillary puncture specimens?
a. All the above
b. Interstitial fluid
c. Blood from venules
d. Blood from arterioles
a. All the above
Which of the following best describes the cause of hemolysis?
a. Using a needle that is too short
b. Puncturing the skin before allowing the alcohol to dry completely
c. Separating serum at the wrong time
d. Inverting evacuation tubes gently
b. Puncturing the skin before allowing the alcohol to dry completely
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step when a medical assistant attempts a venipuncture on an adult patient and cannot obtain a sample, and a second medical assistant is also unsuccessful?
a. Explain the problem to the patient and try the other arm.
b. Get another medical assistant to attempt a draw.
c. Schedule the patient to come back the next day.
d. Inform the physician of unsuccessful attempts.
d. Inform the physician of unsuccessful attempts.
When performing a venipuncture, which vein is used the majority of the time?
a. Median cubital
b. Basilic
c. Radial
d. Cephalic
a. Median cubital
Which of the following is required for the synthesis of the heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Calcium
c. Iron
d. Phosphorus
c. Iron
Which of the following is the major component of the RBC that transports oxygen?
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Hemoglobin
d. Protein
c. Hemoglobin
Which of the following best describes a hematocrit test?
a. Measures the total volume of WBCs
b. Ratio of the volume of packed red blood cells
c. Requires a large amount of blood
d. Requires filling one capillary tube
b. Ratio of the volume of packed red blood cells
Platelets or thrombocytes are involved in doing what in the blood?
a. Fighting infection
b. Coagulation
c. Carry’s oxygen
d. All the above
b. Coagulation
Which of the following is the most common type of hemoglobin disease seen in ambulatory care?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Hypovolemia
a. Iron deficiency anemia
Which of the following is the normal range of values for hemoglobin of adult women?
a. 13–18 g/dl
b. 12–16 g/dl
c. 9–14 g/dl
d. 12–14 g/dl
23.
b. 12–16 g/dl
How can the WBC count be estimated when performing the microhematocrit test?
a. By measuring buffy coat thickness
b. Cannot be estimated
c. Measured at the bottom of the tube
d. By the amount of plasma and platelets
24.
a. By measuring buffy coat thickness
WBCs are divided into two basic groups known as what?
a. Mononuclear and agranulocytes
b. Polymorphonuclear and apolymorphonuclear
c. Granulocytes and cytoplasm
d. Granulocytes and agranulocytes
d. Granulocytes and agranulocytes
Which of the following best describes erythrocyte indices?
a. Calculations that provide size and hemoglobin content of RBCs
b. Allows for calculations of oxygen in hemoglobin
c. Abbreviated MCV, MCA, and MCC
d. Provides information for hematocrit
a. Calculations that provide size and hemoglobin content of RBCs
Which of the following statements is true about performing an accurate “sed rate” procedure?
a. The venous sample must be well-mixed
b. Tube must be read at exactly 2 hours.
c. Test is conducted at 50 degrees Fahrenheit.
d. Test should be set up within 3 hours after the blood is drawn.
a. The venous sample must be well-mixed
Which of the following is the most frequently performed procedure in the medical office laboratory?
a. Chemistry
b. Hematology
c. Microbiology
d. Urinalysis
d. Urinalysis
Near the end of the blood’s journey through the kidney, in which area are the other substances that have not already been filtered secreted into the urine?
a. Henle’s loop
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Glomerulus
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Distal convoluted tubule
What is the most frequently seen parasite in the urine?
a. Trichomonas
b. Sperm
c. Amorphous
d. Yeast
a. Trichomonas
Which of the following specimens usually requires added preservatives in the container?
a. Catheterized
b. Fasting timed
c. 24-hour
d. Random
c. 24-hour
Which of the following is the most appropriate action when observing urine color?
a. Place against a blue background.
b. Transparency is not important.
c. Use a dark room.
d. Record the color
d. Record the color
When must quality control be performed when using a refractometer?
a. At the beginning of each day
b. Before testing each specimen
c. At the end of the day
d. By comparing values with tap water
b. Before testing each specimen
Which of the following is the most common urine specimen collection, performed in the outpatient setting?
a. Random (spot)
b. First morning
c. Catheterized
d. Midstream clean-catch
a. Random (spot)
Which of the following is an appropriate action for a microscopic examination of urine sediment?
a. Completed after specimen settles for 1 hour
b. Heated before examination
c. Performed using a urine color atlas
d. Performed on soluble materials
c. Performed using a urine color atlas
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the significance of seeing many squamous epithelial cells on microscopic examination?
a. Indicates that the specimen is contaminated with skin cells
b. Reported as few, moderate, or many
c. Has no medical significance
d. Indicates possible squamous cell cancer
d. Indicates possible squamous cell cancer
Which of the following are significant crystals that need to be documented?
a. Uric acid
b. Ammonium biurate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Triple phosphate
a. Uric acid
Which of the following is NOT true about casts?
a. They are formed when ketones accumulate.
b. They are classed according to the substances in them.
c. They are cylindrical with round or flat ends.
d. The most common is the hyaline cast.
a. They are formed when ketones accumulate
Mycology is the study of
a. Algae
b. Protozoa
c. Fungi
d. Bacteria
c. Fungi
Which of the following best describes when a safety hood is mandatory in laboratory use?
a. Performing a culture with a potential of aerosol
b. Performing an anaerobic culture
c. Working with a foul-smelling specimen
d. Examining a stool specimen
a. Performing a culture with a potential of aerosol
Which of the following is used for a stab culture?
a. Inoculating needle
b. Bunsen burner
c. Incinerator
d. Inoculating loop
a. Inoculating needle
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when handling microbiology specimens?
a. Look for leaks on the outside of the transporting container.
b. Wear gloves.
c. Use the appropriate container when sending specimens to an outside lab.
d. Handle the specimen as if it is not contaminated.
d. Handle the specimen as if it is not contaminated.
Which of the following is NOT part of a quality control program in microbiology?
a. Do not use media past the shelf life.
b. Update the laboratory manual daily.
c. Make the SDS available to reference.
d. Monitor all equipment with temperature controls daily.
b. Update the laboratory manual daily.
Which of the following best describes the use of a culturette tube?
a. Transporting stool samples
b. Keeping the swab moist
c. Transporting blood specimens
d. All the above
b. Keeping the swab moist
Which of the following should be used when obtaining a nasopharyngeal collection for a culture?
a. Sterile tongue depressor
b. Sterile applicator stick
c. Special swab on a thin wire
d. None of the above
c. Special swab on a thin wire
Which of the following applies to the collection of specimens?
a. Wear gloves only when needed.
b. Lab assistants do not need to wear gloves.
c. Occasionally follow instructions in the lab manual.
d. Must strictly adhere to standard precautions.
d. Must strictly adhere to standard precautions.
A wet mount is used to:
a. Stain bacteria
b. Suspend the organism in a liquid to study
c. Examine organisms under a microscope
d. Both b and c
d. Both b and c
The correct specimen and diagnostic test used to identify ova and parasites is
a. Urine and a culture and sensitivity
b. Vaginal and culture
c. Stool and culture
d. None of the above
c. Stool and culture
If a spill should occur in the lab, which of the the following agents is used for cleanup:
a. 10% bleach
b. 2% phenol
c. 10% phenol
d. 3% bleach
a. 10% bleach
Which of the following is the type of media classification that supports the growth of one type of organism while inhibiting the growth of another?
a. Basic
b. Enriched
c. Differential
d. Selective
d. Selective
Which of the following bacteria are round in shape and can occur in clusters or pairs?
a. Spirilla
b. Bacilli
c. Cocci
d. None of the above
c. Cocci
Which of the following is NOT included in inoculating techniques?
a. Loop
b. Colony count
c. Random streak
d. Lawn streak
c. Random streak
What is the organism that causes strep throat?
a. Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
b. Group A, alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
c. Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
d. Group B, alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
c. Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcus
After the agar plate has been inoculated and properly labeled, what must you do with the plate?
a. Nothing, agar plates require nothing special.
b. Place it back with the other agar plates in the original package.
c. Leave it right-side-up, and place in the proper environment for growth.
d. Turn it upside down, and place in the proper environment for growth.
d. Turn it upside down, and place in the proper environment for growth.
When a patient has a bacterial infection that is not responding to the antibiotic, what test might the physician order?
a. Differential stain
b. C & S
c. KOH
d. All the above
b. C & S
Which of the following is true when collecting stool for O & P identification?
a. Do not contaminate the stool specimen with urine.
b. Use special vials.
c. Collect the stool in wide-mouth containers.
d. All the above.
d. All the above.
When a parasite test comes back negative for worms, how many confirmatory tests should be performed?
a. several
b. 7
c. 5
d. 8
a. several
How can a fungus infection be diagnosed?
a. Use a Wood’s lantern.
b. Use a Woody lamp.
c. Use a Wood’s lamp.
d. Use a Wooden lamp.
c. Use a Wood’s lamp.
Foodborne illnesses are often caused by which of the following?
a. Raw or uncooked food
b. Contaiminated food handlers
c. Both A & B
d. Fish from polluted waters
c. Both A & B
Giardiasis Lamblia is often contracted by which of the following?
a. Sanitation workers
b. Children
c. Athletes
d. Mountain hikers
d. Mountain hikers
Which organ is responsible for producing cholesterol?
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Heart
b. Liver
How is the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis primarily transmitted?
a. Saliva
b. Injection
c. Vector
d. Aspiration
a. Saliva
Which of the following does NOT refer to Prothrombin time?
a. INR
b. Protime
c. PT
d. PTT
d. PTT
Which of the following is the blood type of the universal donor?
a. AB
b. B
c. A
d. O
d. O
Which of the following can affect the results of semen analysis by a decrease in the volume of semen?
a. Age
b. Marital status
c. Cigarette smoking
d. Intelligence
c. Cigarette smoking
Why is a phenylalanine-restricted diet important?
a. It will prevent the need for special dieting.
b. It will cure the underlying condition.
c. It will prevent mental retardation.
d. It is a high protein diet.
c. It will prevent mental retardation.
Which of the following is NOT a factor that may influence the Guthrie test?
a. Testing after 3 to 4 days of the beginning of a milk diet
b. Ingesting insufficient phenylalanines
c. Prematurity
d. Breastfeeding mother taking aspirin
a. Testing after 3 to 4 days of the beginning of a milk diet
Which of the following is an incorrect step in obtaining a blood sample for PKU testing?
a. Soak blood completely through the paper.
b. Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle.
c. Make a puncture approximately 2–3 mm deep in the lateral heel.
d. Allow PKU test card to completely dry.
b. Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle.
Which of the following tests is NOT used in the screening for and diagnosis of tuberculosis?
a. Mantoux
b. Chest x-ray
c. BCG
d. Tine
c. BCG
After excess glucose is converted into glycogen, where is it stored long term?
a. Liver
b. Bloodstream
c. Muscle cells
d. Adipose tissues
d. Adipose tissues
Normal total bilirubin levels range between:
a. 0.1-1.2 mg/dL
b. 0.5-1.5 mg/dL
c. 0.1-0.2 mg/dL
d. 1-6 mg/dL
c. 0.1-0.2 mg/dL
What percentage of North Americans are Rh positive, and what percent are Rh negative?
a. 15% positive; 85% negative
b. 75% positive; 25% negative
c. 25% positive; 75% negative
d. 85% positive; 15% negative
d. 85% positive; 15% negative
Systemic inflammation is the predominant cause of what disease?
a. Irritable Bowel Syndrome
b. Diabetes
c. Blood clots
d. Heart disease
d. Heart disease
Which of the following electrodes is NOT used as part of the recording?
a. LA
b. RA
c. LL
d. RL
d. RL
Where is the lead for a V6 reading placed?
a. Horizontal to V4 at left midaxillary line
b. Fifth intercostals space at midclavicular line
c. Horizontal to V4 at left anterior axillary line
d. Fourth intercostals space at right sternal margin
a. Horizontal to V4 at left midaxillary line
Which of the following best describes the function of standardization of the EKG machine?
a. To determine the correct placement of chest electrodes
b. To set machine timing
c. To check for artifacts
d. To determine whether the machine is set and working properly
d. To determine whether the machine is set and working properly
Why should the ECG tracing be performed in a quiet, warm, exam room away from electrical equipment?
a. Wandering baseline is reduced.
b. Artifacts are reduced.
c. Transmission of microorganisms is minimized.
d. Patient is able to sleep.
b. Artifacts are reduced.
Which of the following is the lead that records electrical activity between the right arm and the left leg?
a. Lead II
b. AVL
c. Lead I
d. Lead III
e. AVF
a. Lead II
Which of the following tests requires injecting the patient with a radioactive substance?
a. Coronary artery bypass
b. Echocardiogram
c. Thallium stress test
d. Electrocardiogram
d. Electrocardiogram
Which of the following is an example of an artifact caused by electrical interference?
a. DC interference
b. Patient sneeze
c. Patient cough
d. AC interference
d. AC interference
Which of the following artifacts can be caused by poor quality electrolyte gel?
a. Voluntary muscle movement
b. Wandering baseline
c. Alternating current
d. Somatic tremor
b. Wandering baseline
Why would the medical assistant place the power cord pointing away from the patient and not allow the cable to go underneath the table?
a. Helps reduce wandering baseline
b. Causes interrupted baseline
c. Causes somatic tremor artifacts
d. Helps reduce AC interference
d. Helps reduce AC interference
What does the cardiac cycle represent?
a. Contraction of the ventricles
b. One heartbeat
c. Relaxation of the entire heart
d. Contraction of the atria
b. One heartbeat
Which of the following describes when the myocardial cells recovers electrically?
a. Negative deflection
b. Depolarization
c. Polarization
d. Repolarization
d. Repolarization
The standard electrocardiogram shows the heart’s electrical activity from different angles through “leads.” How many leads are recorded?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 7
d. 12
d. 12
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a three-channel or multichannel electrocardiogram?
a. It records one lead at a time
b. Three or more leads are recorded at one time.
c. Speed is an advantage.
d. The tracing is recorded on 8 1/2 by 11-inch paper.
e. It fits into a patient’s chart with no cutting or mounting.
a. It records one lead at a time
Which of the following would NOT result in somatic tremor artifact?
a. Apprehensive patient
b. Improper grounding of the ECG machine
c. Patient coughing or talking
d. Patient discomfort
b. Improper grounding of the ECG machine
Which of the following occurs if the metal tip of a lead wire becomes detached from an electrode?
a. Wandering baseline
b. Alternating current artifacts
c. Interrupted baseline
d. Muscle artifacts
c. Interrupted baseline
Which of the following represents an error in technique when running an electrocardiogram?
a. Instructing the patient to lie still and not to talk during the procedure
b. Beginning application of electrodes on the patient’s left side
c. Positioning the limb electrodes on the fleshy part of the upper arms and lower legs
d. Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
d. Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table
During a coronary balloon angioplasty, a catheter with a deflated balloon is inserted into which of the following arteries?
a. Carotid
b. Femoral
c. Radial
d. Brachia
b. Femoral
Which of the small devices sends a small dose of electricity to jar the heart back into a normal rhythm?
a. CMR
b. ICD
c. Pacemaker
d. CCT
e. ECG
b. ICD
Which of the following types of atrial arrhythmia is characterized by extremely rapid incomplete contractions?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Premature atrial contraction
c. Atrial fibrillation
Which category of tests is simple, unvarying, and require a minimum of judgment and interpretation?
a. Waived
b. Low complexity
c. High complexity
d. Moderate complexity
a. Waived
Which of the following is NOT a content of the law in regard to CLIA regulations?
a. Regulations apply to all labs.
b. Quality assurance measures are used.
c. Brand name products are used in testing.
d. All labs must register.
c. Brand name products are used in testing.
What is the purpose of CLIA?
a. Safeguards the public by regulating all testing
b. Ensures you have insurance to cover any errors
c. Ensures all equipment is put away safely
d. Promotes a healthy and safe work environment
a. Safeguards the public by regulating all testing
There are how many primary goals that an employer must accomplish to be in compliance with the OSHA standard for chemical exposure?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 6
d. 2
b. 3
Which of the following is the major purpose of a material safety data sheet?
a. Provides information to protect patients
b. Completes all OSHA regulations
c. Identifies hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures, and spill and leak procedures
d. Provides information on expiration dates
c. Identifies hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures, and spill and leak procedures
The employer must provide a hazard communication educational program within how many
days of employment?
a. 20
b. 10
c. 30
d. 5
c. 30
Which of the following is most important for students to remember in the clinical classroom?
a. Follow all safety procedures as outlined by OSHA.
b. Fume hoods are not required in the presence of toxic gases.
c. MSDS are not needed.
d. Hazardous chemicals are not used.
a. Follow all safety procedures as outlined by OSHA.
Which of the following best describes how the quality of test results can be ensured?
a. Check the calibration of instruments and machines consistently.
b. Perform testing only when there is time.
c. Refrigerate all specimens.
d. Perform preventive maintenance on all equipment annually.
a. Check the calibration of instruments and machines consistently.
Which of the following laboratory types is used by hospitals and physicians for complex, expensive, or specialized tests?
a. Procurement stations
b. Reference laboratories
c. Satellite laboratories
d. Hospital-based
b. Reference laboratories
Note 
Flashcard (71)