Riley Pharmacology II - Exam #3

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Glucocorticoids mimic the actions of the adrenal endocrine hormone __________

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1

Glucocorticoids mimic the actions of the adrenal endocrine hormone __________

cortisol

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2

In the adrenal gland, the fasciculata layer secretes __________ that regulates metabolism, response to stress, immune function, etc.

cortisol

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3

In the adrenal gland, the glomerulosa layer secretes __________ that regulates salt and water balance, blood volume, blood pressure, etc.

aldosterone

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4

In the adrenal gland, the reticularis layer secretes __________

androgens

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5

Within the cells of the adrenal cortex, __________ is the starting material for steroid hormone synthesis

cholesterol

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6

During glucocorticoid biosynthesis, cholesterol is first transported to the ______________ by sterol carrier proteins

mitochondria

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7

Cholesterol is delivered from the outer to the inner mitochondrial membrane by the _______ protein, which catalyzes the rate limiting step for the production of all steroid hormones

StAR (steroidogenic acute regulatory protein)

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8

The conversion from cortisol to pregnenalone occurs in the mitochondria, but synthesis from pregnenalone to 11-dexoycortisol occurs in the...

endoplasmic reticulum

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9

True or False. After cholesterol is converted into 11-dexoycortisol, the compound then goes back to the mitochondria to be synthesized into cortisol.

True

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10

True or False. Different adrenal zones contain different CYP enzymes which is how different steroids are synthesized within the adrenal gland.

True

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11

The hypothalamus produces _______, which stimulates cells in the pituitary gland which then causes _______ release which travels in the blood to the adrenal cortex and stimulates the synthesis of adrenocorticoids.

CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone); ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

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12

Cortisol acts as a feedback __________ on the hypothalamus and pituitary to _______ CRH and ACTH production

inhibitor; limit

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13

Synthetic ACTH, called cosyntropin, is often used clinically for...

diagnosis of primary adrenocortical failure (an increase in plasma cortisol rules out adrenal insufficiency)

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14

True or False. Protein-bound cortisol is what is regulated by homeostasis compared to free hormone.

False

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15

The kidney possesses the enzyme ___________________________ to _______ cortisol

11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehdrogenase type 2; inactivate

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16

The liver possesses the enzyme ___________________________ to _______ cortisol

11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehdrogenase type 1; activate

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17

Some glucocorticoid drugs including __________ and __________ are inactive and must be metabolized by liver 11-beta-HSD type 1 which is why these drugs cannot be used topically in most cases.

cortisone; prednisone

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18

True or False. The placenta has 11-beta-HSD type 2 which is why mothers can be given prednisone without fetal side effects.

True

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19

Glucocorticoid mechanism of action

activate or inactivate gene expression

<p>activate or inactivate gene expression</p>
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20

Glucocorticoid trans-activation

binding to a gene and activating gene transcription (dimers)

<p>binding to a gene and activating gene transcription (dimers)</p>
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21

Glucocorticoid cis-repression

binding to a gene and repressing gene transcription (dimers)

<p>binding to a gene and repressing gene transcription (dimers)</p>
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22

Glucocorticoid trans-repression

binding to a protein and repressing its activity (monomers)

<p>binding to a protein and repressing its activity (monomers)</p>
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23

The glucocorticoid gene regulation type(s) that are associated with decreased inflammation

1. Trans-repression
2. Trans-activation

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24

The glucocorticoid gene regulation type(s) that are associated with some adverse effects

Cis-repression

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25

True or False. The glucocorticoid (GR) receptor or type II receptor is expressed by most human cell types.

True

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26

__________ CpG methylation has been positively associated with cortisol response and psychosocial stress.

Increased

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27

True or False. There are glucocorticoid drugs available that exclusively act via non-genomic effects.

False

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28

The pro-inflammatory actions of eicosanoids are inhibited by glucocorticoid drugs through multiple mechanisms: (3)

1. Limit the production of arachidonic acid
2. Limit the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes from arachidonic acid
3. Block actions of leukotrienes

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29

This disease is characterized by primary adrenal insufficiency where the adrenal cortex is selectively destroyed with deficits of both cortisol and aldosterone.

Addison's Disease

<p>Addison's Disease</p>
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30

Recovery from hypothalamic-pituitary axis suppression or HPA (prolonged administration of glucocorticoids) may take...

a year

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31

This syndrome is characterized by excessive cortisol production which has multiple causes.

Cushing's Syndrome

<p>Cushing's Syndrome</p>
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32

Duration of action for cortisol and glucocorticoid analogues are determined by four factors:

1. Fraction of drug bound to plasma proteins (higher binding = longer duration)

2. Affinity for 11-beta-HSD type 2 (lower affinity = longer duration)

3. Lipophilicity (increased lipophilicity = longer duration)

4. Affinity for glucocorticoid receptor (higher affinity = longer duraiton)

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33

True or False. Dexamethasone or betamethasone can be given during pregnancy to promote fetal lung maturation as these drugs are poor substrates for placental 11-beta-HSD type 2.

True

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34

Replacement therapy for primary adrenal insufficiency (2)

1. Typically daily oral hydrocortisone at dosing that replaces cortisol
2. In many cases, mineralocorticoid treatment is also required

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35

Replacement therapy for secondary adrenal insufficiency (2)

1. Typically daily oral hydrocortisone at dosing that replaces cortisol
2. Mineralocorticoid treatment is usually NOT required

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36

Glucocorticoid mechanisms of immune suppression (4)

1. Inhibition of COX-2 and phospholipase A2
2. Inhibition of cytokine production and release
3. Reduced expression of ELAM-1 and ICAM-1 adhesion molecules
4. Inhibit histamine and leukotriene C4 release

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37

True or False. It is possible to inhibit a single type of corticosteroid.

False

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38

Mitotane function and clinical use(s)

Selectively kills adrenocorticoid cells, used to treat Cushing's syndrome from inoperable adrenocortical carcinoma

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39

Aminoglutethimide function and clinical use(s)

Primarily inhibits CYP11A1, used to treat Cushing's syndrome and hormonally responsive tumors

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40

Ketoconazole function and clinical use(s)

Inhibits CYP17, most effective drug for Cushing's disease

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41

Metyrapone function and clinical use(s)

Selective inhibitor of CYP11B1, most commonly used to diagnosis HPA axis disorders

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42

Mifepristone function and clinical use(s)

Glucocorticoid receptor antagonist at higher concentrations, treatment of life-threatening glucocorticoid levels in ectopic ACTH syndrome, and emergency contraceptive

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43

Aldosterone actions (4)

1. Enhanced Na+ reabsorption
2. Enhanced K+ excretion
3. Enhanced H+ excretion
4. Retain fluid and increase blood and ECF volume

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44

The mineralocorticoid receptor agonist used for replacement therapy with minimal first pass metabolism

Fludrocortisone

<p>Fludrocortisone</p>
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45

Aspirin is the only _____________ inhibitor of COX-1

irreversible

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46

Aspirin inhibits...

COX-1 and COX-2

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47

Epi-lipoxins are non-classical eicosinoids that are formed via the acetylation of _______ in the presence of acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)

COX-2

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48

Unlike Aspirin, other NSAIDs are competitive inhibitors of COX-1 and the _____________ effects end when the drug is gone

antiplatelet

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49

For age 45-74 years old, the risk for significant GI bleeding with NSAIDs increases about...

4-fold

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50

For age >75 years old, the risk for significant GI bleeding with NSAIDs increases about...

20-fold

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51

True or False. Other NSAIDs used with low dose aspirin can prevent cardiovascular benefits.

True

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52

At low doses, Aspirin elimination follows ______-order kinetics

first

<p>first</p>
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53

At high doses, Aspirin elimination follows ______-order kinetics

zero

<p>zero</p>
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54

Acetaminophen mechanism of action

a selective COX-2 inhibitor that has reduced effectiveness at sites of peripheral inflammation

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55

True or False. Toxic doses of acetaminophen are only 2-3 times the maximum therapeutic dose.

True

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56

Therapeutic use(s) for gold salts

secondary line of therapy for rheumatoid arthritis

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57

Therapeutic use(s) for Omalizumab

functions as an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody for allergies and asthma

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58

Therapeutic use(s) for Zileuton

used for long-term control of asthma by inhibiting the production of LTB4, LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4

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59

List the agents that neutralize acid in the GI system (4)

1. Aluminum hydroxide
2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Calcium bicarbonate

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60

List the agents that reduce acid secretion via H2 receptor antagonism on parietal cells (4)

1. Cimetidine
2. Ranitidine
3. Famotidine
4. Nizatidine

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61

What class of drugs block acid secretion via irreversible inhibition of the H+/K+ ATPase?

Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)

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62

What is the prostaglandin analogue used specifically for treatment of NSAID-induced ulcers?

Misopristol

<p>Misopristol</p>
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63

What is the agent that treats mucosal inflammatory/ulceration by forming a viscous gel that "coat"s epithelial cells and ulcer craters?

Sucralfate

<p>Sucralfate</p>
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64

Which agents are used for the treatment of inflammatory bowel diseases that contain an azo bond that is cleaved by resident bacteria in the colon?

Sulfasalzine, balsalazide, and olsalazine

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65

Which agent, for the treatment of Inflammatory Bowel Diseases, utilizes Mesalamine-based, time-released microgranules that spread throughout the small intestine?

Pentasa

<p>Pentasa</p>
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66

Which agent, for the treatment of Inflammatory Bowel Diseases, utilizes Mesalamine-based, pH-sensitive resin that dissolves in the distal ileum and proximal colon?

Asacol

<p>Asacol</p>
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67

What is the name of the mesalamine-based enema that delivers high concentrations to the rectum and sigmoid colon?

Rowasa

<p>Rowasa</p>
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68

What is the name of the mesalamine-based suppositories that deliver high concentrations to the rectum and sigmoid colon?

Canasa

<p>Canasa</p>
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69

What is the name of the biological agent used as an anti-tumor necrosis factor therapy in Crohn’s Disease?

Infliximab

<p>Infliximab</p>
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70

What is the name of the biological agent used to target alpha-4 integrin subunit in patients with severe Crohn's Disease?

Natalizumab

<p>Natalizumab</p>
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71

For patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome who mainly have symptoms of diarrhea, what type of therapy is recommended?

Anti-kinetic, 5-HT3 antagonists (i.e. Alosetron)

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72

For patients with Irritable Bowel Syndrome who mainly have symptoms of constipation, what type of therapy is recommended?

Pro-kinetic, 5-HT4 agonists (i.e. Tegaserod)

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73

Colchicine (Colcyrs®) mechanism of action and clinical use(s)

-Binds to tubulin and prevents microtubule polymerization
-Prophylaxis and treatment of gout flares

<p>-Binds to tubulin and prevents microtubule polymerization<br>-Prophylaxis and treatment of gout flares</p>
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74

List the three discussed drugs that increase colchicine levels (3)

1. Cyclosporine
2. Tacrolimus
3. Verapamil

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75

List the Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitors (XOI) that decrease the formation of urate (2)

1. Allopurinol (Zyloprim®)
2. Febuxostat (Uloric®)

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76

True or False. Febuxostat (Uloric®) is a non-purine Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor.

True

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77

List the discussed uricosuric agent that blocks uric acid reabsorption via the URAT1 transporter

Probenecid (Probalan®)

<p>Probenecid (Probalan®)</p>
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78

List the discussed recombinant uricase agent used for the treatment of patients with refractory gout

Pegloticase (Krystexxa®)

<p>Pegloticase (Krystexxa®)</p>
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79

List the discussed recombinant uricase agent used for the treatment of patients with tumor lysis syndrome

Rasburicase (Elitek®)

<p>Rasburicase (Elitek®)</p>
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80

True or False. It is appropriate to recommend recombinant uricase agents for patients that are G6PD deficient.

False

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81

______ generation antihistamines tend to be more lipid soluble and enter the CNS

First

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82

______ generation antihistamines tend to be substrates for P-glycoprotein transporter in the blood-brain barrier

Second

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83

True or False. Tolerance may occur with first generation antihistamines.

True

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84

H1 antihistamine peak blood concentrations occur in ______ hours after oral administration

1-3 hours

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