Pharmacology - Old Exams 1 & 2

What is a science dealing with the properties of drugs and their effects on living systems?

pharmacology

What is a branch of pharmacology that deals directly with the effectiveness and safety of drugs in the clinical setting?

clinical pharmacology

the amount of drug given at one time

dose

lowest concentration that produces the desired effect

minimum inhibitory concentration

dose that was effective in 50% of animals (efficacy study)

ED50

the drug concentrations associated with efficacy and not toxicity

therapeutic range

relative measurement of biological activity

potency

What is the trade name?

proprietary name

What is an example of a proprietary name?

Albon

An adverse event that is idiosyncratic, unpredictable, and often nondose-dependent.

Type B reaction

an adverse event that can be anticipated based on the known mechanism of the drug. Usually dose-dependent

Type A reaction

a substance that blocks the action of an agonist

antagonist

binds to the same site as an agonist but doesn't activate it and blocks the agonist action

competitive antagonist

produces an effect when it binds with the receptor, but not as strong as full agonist

partial agonist

the drug may have agonist activity at one receptor site while simultaneously producing an antagonist activity at another site

agonist-antagonist

Where does metabolism occur?

liver

Why are some oral doses higher than injectable doses?

a large portion of an orally administered drug is inactivated by the liver before it enters the circulation

given a different name and packaged differentlycan say "sold only through licensed veterinarians" but this is a marketing ploy and has no legal basis

ethical products

What regulates pesticides?

EPA

Oral or paternal pesticides are regulated under the ?

FDA

What are veterinary biologics regulated by?

USDA

What does the DEA regulate?

enforces controlled substances act of 1970 and subsequent amendments

Refills for a non-controlled prescription drug may be authorized by the veterinarian for a maximum of _________ from date on the original prescription.

1 year

What schedule drugs cannot be refilled?

schedule II

What schedule drugs can be refilled a maximum of five times and are valid for 6 months?

schedule III and IV

What schedule drugs can be refilled as authorized by the practitioner and are valid for one year by federal law?

schedule V

What is the exception for schedule V drugs in mississippi?

the maximum refill is 5 times and it is valid for 6 months only

recognized among experts to be safe and effective for use and have been labeled with directions for the layman

OTC veterinary drug

What does "safe use" for veterinary OTC include?

safety to the animal

the person administering it

food products derived from the animals treated

the environment

What does AMDUCA do?

legalizes extra-label drug use in animals under certain circumstances

Must a veterinarian choose a veterinary-approved product over a human-approved product when prescribing for non-food animals?

no

When an OTC product is used extra-label in animals, it must be treated as a ______________ in accordance with the provisions of AMDUCA

prescription drug

All products compounded for use in veterinary patients require a ?

prescription

What is a compounded product?

based upon individual need

reformulated from either a commercial product or a from an API (active pharmaceutical ingredient)

What is not approved for compounded products?

resale

duplication of a commercially available product

a commercial product that must be reconstituted prior to use

Who can legally compound for veterinary patients?

veterinarians and pharmacists

chemical substances that have a high potential for abuse and have no legitimate medical use in the US

schedule I drugs

drugs that have a current accepted medical use in the US but have a high potential for abuse

schedule II drugs

drugs accepted in medical use in the US and have less potential for abuse than schedule I and II

schedule III drugs

drugs with a lower potential for abuse than schedule III

schedule IV drugs

drugs with the lowest potential for abuse

schedule V drugs

What form are schedule II drugs ordered with?

form DEA-222 preprinted with the registrants name and address

How are schedule III-V drugs aquired?

written purchase order, FAX, phone calls, or off the web

What are the rules for a DEA-222 form?

no liquid paper

no strikeouts

ink or typewriter

description must be exact

According to the DEA, records must be kept for ?

2 years

What form must be filed if the veterinarian is involved in loss or theft?

DEA form-106

What form is filed for disposal of controlled substances?

DEA form-41

During repolarization, __________ moves out of the cell.

potassium

After repolarization, sodium and potassium are on the "wrong" side of the cell. The ____________ works to reestablish order.

sodium-potassium pump

What is emesis?

vomiting

Emetics should be contraindicated if the patient has?

comatose or seizures

depressed pharyngeal reflexes

shock or dyspnea

ingestion of volatile liquids

What are the functions of centrally acting emetic drugs?

works on emetic center and CRTZ

stimulates dopamine receptors

includes apomorphine and alpha 2 agonists such as xylazine

What are the functions of locally acting emetic drugs?

irritates the GI tract, distends the stomach, and causes parasympathetic stimulation of the emetic center

Lidocaine is the drug of choice for controlling __________ and _______________.

PVCs and arrhythmias

Who are more sensitive to lidocaine?

cats

As a technician, if you go to grab a dose of lidocaine, be sure that it is not combined with ?

epinephrine

What causes vomiting in cats?

xylazine

Spironolactone can cause ____________ in cats.

facial dermatitis

What are used to increase blood pressure when fluid therapy is not sufficient?

vasopressors

What is an example of a vasopressor?

epinephrine

What are class I antiarrhythmics?

sodium channel blockers

What are class II antiarrhythmics?

beta blockers

What are class III antiarrhythmics?

potassium channel blockers

What are class IV antiarrhythmics?

calcium channel blockers

What are the side effects of beta-2 adrenergic bronchodilators?

tachycardia

muscle tremors

Is theophylline compatible with IV fluids?

yes

Aminophylline is incompatible with ?

IV fluids

What is designed to breakup, lyse, the mucous to reduce the viscosity and make it easier for the cilia to transport it out of the respiratory tract?

mucolytic

What is acetaminophen toxic in?

cats

neurokinin receptor antagonist antiemetic

blocks the action of substance P in the CNS

cerenia (maropitant)

Cerenia (maropitant) can _____ when given as an injection.

burn

Generic name for Zofran?

ondansetron

How do antihistamines work?

decrease vestibular apparatus to the emetic center by blocking H1 receptors in the CRTZ

What are antihistamines more effective in?

dogs

Why are antihistamines more effective in dogs?

have greater number of H1 receptors on the CRTZ

What are examples of antihistamines?

diphenhydramine and dimenhydrinate

Antihistamines are only effective in ?

allergic diseases

Antihistamines tend to dry out secretions and generally should not be used in ?

respiratory disease

Antihistamines must be given ?

orally

What is the systemic antacid/antiulcer drug?

famotidine

What are things that influence the vomiting reflex?

stimulation of neurons from emetic center

stimulation of CRTZ

distension or irritation of digestive system

inner ear/balance

What is a short acting beta blocker used to test if an arrhythmia is responsive to beta blockers?

esmolol

What beta blocker is preferred?

esmolol

What beta blocker treats hypertension and feline cardiomyopathy?

atenolol

What are the four positive inotropic drugs?

dobutamine

digoxin

pimobendan

dopamine

Metoclopramide is ___________ and ____________ acting.

centrally, locally

How does metoclopramide act centrally?

dopamine and serotonin receptor antagonist in CRTZ

Metoclopramide is more effective in ?

dogs

What are the clinical signs associated with metoclopramide?

seizure disorders

bowel obstruction

drowsiness

What is an example of a centrally acting antitussive?

hydrocodone

What treats hypothyroidism?

levothyroxine

What treats cushings?

mitotane and trilostane

What treats hyperthyroidism?

radioactive iodine 131 and methimazole

What treats hypoadrenocorticism (addisons)?

DOCP and Fludrocortisone

What treats diabetes mellitus?

glipizide

What treats insulomas?

diazoxide and glucocorticoids

Never use ___________ for any TDM samples.

serum separator tubes (drug diffuses into gel and lowers measured drug level)

Do not treat hypoadrenocorticism with prednisone or prednisolone until after ?

ACTH test

Does not require PTH for activation and is the preferred form of Vitamin D in hypoparathyrodism.

dihydrotachysterol

What is the best treatment for diabetes mellitus?

insulin