ap bio evolution multiple choice

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37 Terms

1
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Both Darwin's and Lamarck's ideas regarding evolution suggest which of the following?

a. all species were fixed at the time of creation

b. acquired physical characteristics can be inherited

c. the giraffe's long neck is the result of artificial selection

d. the main mechanism of evolution is natural selection

e. the interaction of organisms with their environment is important to the evolutionary process.

e.

2
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During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly large, hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what should one expect to result from natural selection?

a. small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts

b. small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring have larger beaks

c. small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and, consequently, growing larger beaks

d. more small-beaked birds dying than the larger-beaked birds. The offspring produced in subsequent generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks

e. larger birds eating less so smaller birds can survive.

d.

3
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natural selection is based on all of the following except...

a. variation exists within populations

b. the fittest individuals tend to leave the most offspring

c. there is differential reproductive success within populations

d. populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.

e. individuals must adapt to their environment

e.

4
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To observe natural selectionʹs effects on a population, which of these must be true?

A) One must observe more than one generation of the population.

B) The population must contain genetic variation.

C) Members of the population must increase or decrease the use of some portion of their anatomy.

D) A and C only

E) A and B only

E

5
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Which of the following statements is not an inference of natural selection?

a.) subsequent generations of a population should have greater proportions of individuals the possess favorable traits.

b.) an individual organism undergoes evolution over the course of its lifetime

c.) often only a fraction of offspring survive, because there is a struggle for limited resources

d.) individuals whose inherited characteristics best for them to the environment should leave more offspring

e.) unequal reproductive success among its members leads a population to adapt over time

b.

6
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DDT was once considered a ʺsilver bulletʺ that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have been required for this pest eradication effort to be successful in the long run?

A) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied.

B) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time.

C) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher.

D) all of the individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them resistant to DDT.

E) DDT application should have been continual.

D

7
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Some members of a photosynthetic plant species are genetically resistant to an herbicide, while other members of the same species are not resistant to the herbicide. Maintaining resistance against the herbicide is metabolically expensive for the plants. Which combination of events should cause the most

effective replacement of the non-herbicide-resistant strain of plants by the resistant strain?

1. about abundance of sunny weather

2. about abundance of cloudy weather

3. The presence of the herbicide in the environment

4. The absence of the herbicide from the environment

5. The maintenance of the proper conditions for one generation

6. The maintenance of the proper conditions for many generations

a.) 2, 4 and 5

b.) 2, 3, and 5

c.) 1, 4, and 6

d.) 1, 3, and 6

e.) 2, 3 , and 6

d.

8
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What would be the best technique for determining the evolutionary relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree?

a.) examining the fossil record

b.) comparison of homologous structures

c.) comparative embryology

d.) comparative anatomy

e.) DNA or RNA analysis

e.

9
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Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even

though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are

a.) homologous.

b.) examples of convergent evolution.

c.) adaptations to a common environment.

d.) A and C only

e.) B and C only

e.

10
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Which definition of evolution would have been most foreign to Charles Darwin during his lifetime?

a.) change in gene frequency in gene pools

b.) descent with modification

c.) the gradual change of a populationʹs heritable traits over generations

d.) populations becoming better adapted to their environments over the course of generations

e.) the appearance of new varieties and new species with the passage of time

a.

11
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In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, tests of blood-type genes show that 160 have the genotype AA, 480 have the genotype ABOUT, and 360 have the genotype BB.

---

What is the frequency of the A allele?

a.) 0.001

b.) 0.002

c.) 0.100

d.) 0.400

e.) 0.600

d.

12
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In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, tests of blood-type genes show that 160 have the genotype AA, 480 have the genotype ABOUT, and 360 have the genotype BB.

---

What is the frequency of the B allele?

a.) 0.001

b.) 0.002

c.) 0.100

d.) 0.400

e.) 0.600

e.

13
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In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, tests of blood-type genes show that 160 have the genotype AA, 480 have the genotype ABOUT, and 360 have the genotype BB.

---

What percentage of the population has O type blood?

a.) 0

b.) 10

c.) 24

d.) 48

e.) 60

a.

14
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In a hypothetical population of 1,000 people, tests of blood-type genes show that 160 have the genotype AA, 480 have the genotype ABOUT, and 360 have the genotype BB.

---

If there are 4,000 children born to this generation, how many would be expected to have AB blood under the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a.) 100

b.) 960

c.) 1,920

d.) 2,000

e.) 2,400

c.

15
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Which of the following is not a requirement for maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?

a.) an increasing mutation rate

b.) random mating

c.) large population size

d.) no migration

e.) no natural selection

a.

16
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You are studying three populations of birds. Population 1 has ten birds, of which one is brown (a recessive trait) and nine are red. Population 2 has 100 birds. In that population, ten of the birds are brown. Population 3 has 30 birds, and three of them are brown.

---

In which population is the frequency of the allele of brown feathers highest?

a.) Population 1

b.) Population 2

c.) Population 3

d.) They are all the same.

e.) It is impossible to tell from the information given

d.

17
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You are studying three populations of birds. Population 1 has ten birds, of which one is brown (a recessive trait) and nine are red. Population 2 has 100 birds. In that population, ten of the birds are brown. Population 3 has 30 birds, and three of them are brown.

---

In which population would it be least likely that an accident would significantly alter the frequency of the brown allele?

a.) Population 1

b.) Population 2

c.) Population 3

d.) They are all the same.

e.) It is impossible to tell from the information given

b.

18
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You are studying three populations of birds. Population 1 has ten birds, of which one is brown (a recessive trait) and nine are red. Population 2 has 100 birds. In that population, ten of the birds are brown. Population 3 has 30 birds, and three of them are brown.

---

Which population is most likely to be subject to the bottleneck effect?

a.) Population 1

b.) Population 2

c.) Population 3

d.) They are all the same.

e.) It is impossible to tell from the information given

a.

19
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In a large, sexually reproducing population, the frequency of an allele changes from 0.6 to 0.2. From this change, one can most logically assume that, in this environment,

a.) the allele is neutral

b.) the allele mutates readily

c.) random processes have changed allelic frequencies

d.) there is no sexual selection

e.) the allele reduces fitness

e.

20
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The following important concepts of population genetics are due to random events or chance except

a.) mutation.

b.) the bottleneck effect.

c.) the founder effect.

d.) natural selection

e.) sexual recombination

d.

21
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Natural selection is most nearly the same as

a.) diploidy

b.) gene flow

c.) genetic drift

d.) nonrandom mating

e.) differential reproductive success.

e.

22
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Through time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing

a.) nonrandom reproduction

b.) geographic isolation

c.) genetic drift

d.) mutations

e.) gene flow

e.

23
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When we say that an individual organism has a greater fitness than another individual, we specifically mean that the organism

a.) lives longer than others of its species

b.) competes for resources more successfully than others of its species

c.) mates more frequently than others of its species

d.) utilizes resources more efficiently than other species occupying similar niches

e.) leaves more viable offspring than others of its species

e.

24
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Which of the following statements best summarizes evolution as it is viewed today?

a.) it is goal-directed

b.) it represents the result of selection for acquired characteristics

c.) it is synonymous with the process of gene flow

d.) it is the descent of humans from the present-day great apes

e.) it is the differential survival and reproduction of the most fit phenotypes

e.

25
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Cattle breeders have improved the quality of meat over the years by which process?

a.) artificial selection

b.) directional selection

c.) stabilizing selection

d.) A and B

e.) A and C

d.

26
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The allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU) is harmful, except when an infant's diet lacks the amino acid, phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's gene pool?

a.) heterozygote advantage

b.) stabilizing selection

c.) balanced polymorphism

d.) diploidy

e.) balancing selection

d.

27
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Which of the following is most likely to have been produced by sexual selection?

a.) a male lion's mane

b.) bright colors of female flowers

c.) the ability of desert animals to concentrate their their urine

d.) different sizes of male and female pinecones

e.) camouflage coloration in animals

a.

28
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Successfully breeding two individual organisms at a zoo and obtaining fertile offspring for several generations is no guarantee that the same could occur in nature (i.e., in the wild). Which species concept becomes difficult to confirm because of this fact?

a.) biological

b.) ecological

c.) morphological

d.) phylogenetic

e.) paleontological

a.

29
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Some species of Anopheles mosquito live in brackish water, some in running fresh water, and others in stagnant water. What type of reproductive barrier is most obviously separating these different species?

a.) habitat isolation

b.) temporal isolation

c.) behavioral isolation

d.) gametic isolation

e.) postzygotic isolation

a.

30
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Which of the following must occur during a period of geographic isolation in order for two sibling species to remain genetically distinct following their geographic reunion in the same home range?

a.) prezygotic barriers

b.) postzygotic barriers

c.) ecological isolation

d.) reproductive isolation

e.) temporal isolation

b.

31
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Several closely related frog species of the genus Rana are found in the forests of the southeastern United States. The species boundaries are maintained by reproductive barriers.

---

Males of one species sing only during rainy conditions; males of another species sing only when it is not raining. This reproductive barrier is...

a.) behavioral

b.) gametic

c.) habitat

d.) temporal

e.) mechanical

a.

32
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Several closely related frog species of the genus Rana are found in the forests of the southeastern United States. The species boundaries are maintained by reproductive barriers.

---

Males of one species are too small to perform amplexus (an action that stimulates ovulation) with females of all other species. This reproductive barrier is...

a.) behavioral

b.) gametic

c.) habitat

d.) temporal

e.) mechanical

e.

33
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Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is most similar to which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms?

a.) reduced hybrid fertility

b.) hybrid breakdown

c.) mechanical isolation

d.) habitat isolation

e.) gametic isolation

d.

34
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Which example below will most likely guarantee that two closely related species will persist only as distinct

biological species?

a.) colonization of new habitats

b.) convergent evolution

c.) hybridization

d.) geographic isolation from one another

e.) reproductive isolation from one another

e.

35
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The Hawaiian Islands are a great showcase of evolution because of intense

a.) ecological isolation and sympatric speciation

b.) adaptive radiation and allopatric speciation

c.) allopolyploidy and sympatric speciation

d.) cross-specific mating and reinforcement

e.) hybrid vigor and allopatric speciation

b.

36
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The Galapagos archipelago appeared about 2 million years ago, when submerged volcanoes (seamounts) rose above the ocean's surface. A single hypothetical colonization event introduced a species of finch to one island in the distant past. Today, several islands in the archipelago contain unique species of finches. What must have happened following the initial colonization event to account for the current situation?

1. cladogenesis

2. anagenesis

3. allopatric speciation

4. adaptive radiation

a.) 1 and 3

b.) 1 and 4

c.) 2 and 3

d.) 1, 3, and 4

e.) 2, 3 , and 4

d.

37
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Two closely related populations of mice have been separated for many generations by a river. Climatic change causes the river to dry up, thereby bringing the mice populations back into contact in a zone of overlap. Which of the following is not a possible outcome when they meet?

a.) They interbreed freely and produce fertile hybrid offspring.

b.) They no longer attempt to interbreed.

c.) They interbreed in the region of overlap, producing an inferior hybrid. Subsequent interbreeding between

inferior hybrids produces progressively superior hybrids over several generations.

d.) They remain separate in the extremes of their ranges but develop a persistent hybrid zone in the area of

overlap.

e.) They interbreed in the region of overlap, but produce sterile offspring.

c.

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