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The collection of microorganisms that exists on the body-bacteria, viruses, and single-celled prokaryotic organisms is called the _____
HUMAN MICROBIOME
A type of relationship wherein neither organism is harmed or benefited.
Commensalism
A type of human-microbe relationship where both organisms benefit from one another.
Mutualism
A type of human-microbe relationship where the host is harmed
Parasitism
The ability of a pathogen to establish infection, often measured by how many exposed individuals become infected.
Infectivity
The inherent capacity of an organism to cause disease by its genetic makeup
Pathogencity
Refers to The degree of damage caused by a microbe
Virulence
TRUE OR FALSE
Bacteria lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles but have
ribosomes, plasmids, and inclusion bodies.
TRUE
MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE
Statement 1: Gram Positive Bacteria do not possess a peptidoglycan; hence, they have a thin cell wall.
Statement 2: Gram Negative bacteria possess lipopolysaccharide and Lipid A which can be fatal.
A. Statement 1 is true
B. Statement 2 is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
B.
Structure that help bacteria in locomotion and attachment
Flagella
A structure of bacteria which enable binding to host cells, resist phagocytosis, and undergo antigenic variation
Fimbriae/pili
A structural component of bacteria which consist of surface molecules bind that host receptors
Afimbrial Adhesins
A structure of bacteria which is a polysaccharide layer that blocks phagocytosis, antibody binding, and complement activation.
Capsule
What is the main virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Capsule
An extracellular virulence factor of bacteria that break down host defenses,
damage tissue, and aid spread.
Invasins
Found in gram-negative LPS, is released when cells die and riggers cytokine release
Lipid A (Endotoxin)
Exotoxins are mostly produced by:
A. Gram positive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
A.
This type of exotoxins block protein synthesis
Cytotoxin
This type of exotoxins produce spams and paralysis
Neurotoxins
A type of exotoxin which cause diarrhea and inflammation
Enterotoxins
Match the following:
Diphtheria toxin
Botulinum toxin
Tetanospasmin
Difficile Toxin A
Difficile Toxin B
A. Cytotoxins
B. Neurotroxins
C. Enterotoxins
A
B
B
C
A
Antigens which Hyperactivate T cells, causing massive cytokine release ‚ leading to toxic shock syndrome.
Superantigens
Syphilis is also known as:
French Disease
Spanish Disease
Great Pox
Evil Pox
Treponemal specie which cause human syphilis
Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
Treponemal specie which cause yaws
Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue
Treponemal specie which cause non-venereal endemic syphilis
Treponema pallidum subspecies endemicum
Causative agent of pinta
Treponema carateum
Syphilis in which rabbits are affected is caused by
Treponema cuniculi
Match the following:
Chancre
Gummas
Condylomata lata
No clinical symptoms
A. Early Syphilis
B. Secondary Syphilis
C. Latent syphilis
D. Tertiary Syphilis
A
D
B
C
MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE
Serological tests are the gold standard method in detecting primary syphilis.
Darkfield microscopy is one of the diagnostic methods for detecting secondary syphilis.
A. Statement 1 is true
B. Statement 2 is true
C. Either
D. Neither
B.
A stage of syphilis characterized by lack of clinical symptoms
Latent Syphilis
TRUE OR FALSE
A pregnant individual with a latent syphilis tend to be non-infectious
FALSE
How is tertiary syphilis diagnoses?
By Reactive Serological Test or Reactive Spinal Fluid Test
A direct detection of Treponema which detects T. pallidum in lesion fluid
Darkfield microscopy
TRUE OR FALSE
Darkfield microscopy requires live motile organisms
TRUE
Methods using labeled antibodies; HIGHLY SPECIFIC, and can use fixed slides
Fluorescent Antibody Tests
What does non-treponemal test detect?
Reagin Antibodies
Titers for non-treponemal test peak in what stage of syphilis?
Secondary stage
A positive result can be obtained for non-treponemal test _____ after chancre
1-4 weeks
Match the following:
Pregnancy
Prozone
Infections
Postzone
Autoimmune disease
A. FALSE POSITIVE
B. FALSE NEGATIVE
A
B
A
B
A
Tests which detect antibodies specific to T. pallidum
Treponemal Tests
Match the following:
FTA-ABS
TPPA
EIA
VDRL
RPR
CLIA
MFI
A. Confirmatory
B. Screening
A
A
A
B
B
A
A
Match the following:
Used to monitor treatment
Useful in late syphilis
More specific
Cannot distinguish active vs. past infection
Less sensitive in neurosyphilis
A. Screening
B. Confirmatory
A
B
B
B
B
Traditional testing of syphilis involves screening with ____ and confirm it with ____
Non-treponemal; Treponemal
Reverse Sequence testing of syphilis are screened with ______ and is confirmed with ______ for discrepancies
Automated treponemal; Non-treponemal or TP-PA
Molecular testing is highly sensitive in what stage of syphilis
Primary Syphilis
Gold standard method for diagnosing neurosyphilis
CSF VRDL
What are the supportive findings of a neurosyphilis?
A. Increased lymphocyte, decreased protein
B. Increased monocyte, decreased protein
C. Increased lymphocyte, increased protein
D. Decreased monocyte, decreased protein
C
Bacteria that cause Group A Streptocoocal infection
Streptococcus pyogenes
Hemolysis produced by GAS in BAP
B-hemolysis
A main component of Streptococcus pyogenes that inhibit phagocytosis, reduce complement deposition and aids attachment
M Protein
responsible for scarlet fever
ExoToxins (SpeA, SpeC)
A sequeale of GAS which occurs 2-3% of the time after pharyngitis and wherein autoimmune cross reactivity happen
Acute Rheumatic Fever
A sequelae of GAS characterized by immune deposition in kidneys
Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
Rapid Antigen Detection used for GAS
Lateral Flow Assays
A 2-fold increase in titer of streptozyme test is considered:
A. Significant
B. Not significant
B.
Gram-negative, spiral, microacrophilic bacterium, which is a major cause of gastric & duodenal ulcers
Helicobacter Pylori
Virulence Factor of H. pylori which is injected into gastric cells, disrupting signal and cytoskeletons
CagA Protien
A virulence factor of H. pylori linked to ulcers and carcinoma
VacA Toxin
Match the following virulence factors of H. pylori to its function:
Spiral Shape and Flagella
Urease
Flagellar Sheath
A. Production of ammonia and neutralization of acid
B. Motility and Mucus penetration
C. Protection from acid
B
A
C
What can be the long term risk of infection with H. pylori
Gastric Carcinoma
What is the enzyme detected in endoscopy and biopsy to confirm infection with H. pylori?
Urease
Most specific test for H. pylori but has low sensitivity
Culture
Presence of urease in detecting H. pylori is indicated by a color change. what will be its color upon reaction if positive?
A. Pink to yellow
B. Yellow to pink
C. Yellow to Red
D. Red to Yellow
B,
Most reliable immunoglobulin used for diagnosis of H. pylori since it remain elevated even if untreated
IgG
The serological test considered as the method of choice for H. pylori
ELISA
Considered to be the smallest free living organisms
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
MODIFIED TRUE OR FALSE
Mycoplasma pneumoniae’s main virulence factor is its cell wall.
Hence, penicillin is a great choice for treating M. pneumoniae since it directly attacks the cell wall.
A. Statement1. is true
B. Statement 2 is true
C. Either
D. Neither
D.
This is said to be the leading cause of respiratory infections worldwide
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Mode of transmission of M. pneumoniae
Respiratory Droplets
Skin or mucosal emergency
A. Stevens-Johnson
B. Rauvnaud
A.
Cold-induced vasospasm of digits
A. Stevens-Johnson
B. Rauvnaud
B,
A bacteria that show a fried egg appearance upon culture
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
A diagnostic tool that was historicaly used for detection of M. pneumoniae but is non specific hence not recommended
Cold Agglutinin Test
Mode of Transmission of Rickettsial Infections
Arthropod-borne / Vector Borne except R. prowazekii
Match the following Organisms to the disease they cause
R. rickettsii
R. japonica
R. felis
R. akari
R. typhi
R. prowazekii
A. Flea-borne spotted fever
B. Rickettsial pox
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
E. Endemic typhus
F. Japanese spotted fever
D
F
A
B
E
C
Determine the appropriate vector of:
R. rickettsi
R. japonica
R. felis
R. akari
R. typhi
R. prowazekii
A. Tick
B. Mites
C. Fleas
D. Lice
E. NOTA
A
A
E
B
C
D
What is the target of rickettsial infections?
Vascular endothelium
Gold standard method for detecting Rickettsial infection
Indirect Immunofluorescence Assay (IFA) with paired sera (24-fold rise)
Obligate intracellular, Gram negative-like coccoid bacteria characterized by a unique biphasic cycle
Chlamydia trachomatis
Gram negative diplococci kidney shaped fastidious bacteria.
Neisseria meningitidies
A disease caused by Neisseria meningitidis characterized by photphobia
A. Meningitis
B. Meninogococcemia
A.
A group of symptoms caused by N. meningitidis resulting from the failure of adrenal glands to function normally as a result of bleeding into the gland
Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome
Culture media used for detection of N. meningitidis
Chocolate agar, with CO2
To detect the capsular antigen of N. meningitidis, _____ can be employed
LATEX AGGLUTINATION
A gram negative pleomorphic coccobacilli that has the Greek word meaning of “blood-lover”
Haemophilus spp.
What are the requirements of Haemophilus for growth?
X factor (hemin)
V Factor (NAD)
Detection of antigens of Haemophilus spp. is done by?
Latex Agglutination
Major cause of childhood meningitis
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)