Pulmonology

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What are the 2 types of pleural fluid that can accumulate in pleural effusions?

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1

What are the 2 types of pleural fluid that can accumulate in pleural effusions?

  1. transudate (protein-poor)

    1. fluid buildup d/t increased hydrostratic P OR decreased oncotic P

    2. CHF, NEPHORSIS, CIRRHOSIS

  2. exudate (protein-rich)

    1. fluid buildup d/t abnml capillary permeability (BV damage) OR decreased lymphatic drainage

    2. INFX OR MALIGNANCY (CANCER)

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2

What are the most common sxs of exudative pleural effusion?

dyspnea + hypoxemia

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3

Which type of pleural effusion is associated w/ hemothorax?

exudative

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4

What are some (rarer) primary causes of pleural effusion

  • TB

  • AI disease

  • bleeding / chest trauma

  • asbestos exposure

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5

Why will whispering pectoriloquy produce a louder sound if the pt has a pleural effusion?

water is a better conductor of sound than air, so fluid-filled part of lung will make whisper sound louder

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6

What is pleurodesis?

irritant is placed into pleural space (thoracoscopy or chest tube) → causes fibrous adhesions like velcro = no more fluid accumulates

  • used for CHRONIC or SLOW TO RESOLVE pleural effusions

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7

What is the nml amount of fluid in the pleural space?

~3-15mL (nml lymph drainage)

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8

In thoracentesis, should the needle be inserted above or below the rib?

ABOVE - to avoid piercing the intercostal VAN (which is below the rib)

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9

What is the utility of Light’s criteria in diagnosing pleural effusions?

can help differentiate which type of effusion (exudative vs. transudate)

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10

What is Light’s criteria for exudative effusion?

  • pleural fluid protein / serum protein ration > 0.5

  • pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH > 0.6

  • pleural fluid LDH = greater than 2/3 of nml upper limit

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11

What is a parapneumonic effusion and how should you treat them?

pleural effusion that accompanies bacterial PNA

  • IF SIMPLE (small): do NOT drain … instead, tx underlying PNA w/ abx

  • IF COMPLICATED (large/loculated/empyema): consider thoracentesis

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12

For which patients is indwelling pleural catheter a good tx option (pleural effusion)?

pts w/ poor prognosis … this is b/c there is a long-term risk of infx

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13

What is an empyema?

loculated collection of pus (like an abscess)

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14

What is interstitial/restrictive lung disease?

category of diseases that cause irreversible fibrosis 2/2 alveolar epithelial cell injury

NO IDENTIFIABLE CAUSE

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15

What are some Ddx to asthma? (“all that wheezes is not asthma”)

  • allergic rhinitis

  • GERD

  • COPD

  • sinusitis / PND

  • FBO

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16

How can you ID a pneumothorax on XR?

areas of black space (no white streaks/vasculature)

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17

For which conditions might you see a tracheal shift (away from the affected side) on XR?

  • massive pleural effusion

  • tension pneumothorax

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18

What are “honeycomb lungs” on chest CT?

thickened cystic spaces in lung walls; indicative of SEVERE IPF (idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis)

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19

What is Lofgren vs. Heerfordt syndrome?

both are clinical presentations of sarcoidosis (you can dx W/O A BX)

LOFGREN

  • b/l hilar adenopathy

  • erythema nodosum, fever, arthralgia

HEERFORDT

  • ant. uveitis

  • parotitis, fever, facial nerve palsy

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20

What are the prognoses/outcomes for sarcoidosis involving lung parenchyma, skin, hilar adenopathy?

  • hilar only = BEST

  • skin involvement = GOOD

  • lung parenchyma = WORSE

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21

What is Virchow’s triad?

  1. venous stasis

  2. endothelial injury

  3. hypercoagulability

CONTRIBUTING FACTORS THAT FORM A PE

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22

What is a saddle embolus?

PE that forms at the bifurcation of main pulmonary artery → then travels distally + gets stuck in a branch of the artery

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23

What kinds of PE thrombi are likely to cause pulmonary infarction + pleuritis?

SMALLER thrombi located DISTALLY

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24

What effects in the body does a PE cause (what is the pathophysiologic response)?

  1. infarct (10%)

    • pleuritic CP

    • hemoptysis

  2. abnml gas exchange

    • V/Q mismatch = intrapulmonary shunt (ventilated but NOT perfused)

    • resp. alkalosis

    • hypoxemia (low PO2)

    • hypocapnia (low PCO2)

  3. CV compromise

    1. hypotension

    2. increased pulmonary vascular resistance

    3. decreased CO

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25

What is an intrapulmonary shunt?

an area of the lung that is VENTILATED (air goes through) but NOT PERFUSED (no gas exchange)

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26

What is Wells Criteria?

diagnostic criteria for PE

  • 0-1 pts: LOW risk

  • 2-6 pts: MODERATE risk

  • >6 pts: HIGH risk

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27

If you have a patient with profound hypoxia and nml CXR, what diagnosis should you have a high suspicion for?

PE

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28

What is the primary tool for dx of PE?

chest CTA (CT angiography)

… NOT PLAIN CHEST CT!!

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29

What are contraindications to CTA?

  • kidney problems (CKD or acute kidney injury)

  • IV contrast dye allergy

    • relative contraindication; depends on severity of rx

  • asthma

    • relative contraindication; needs premedication protocol

  • heart failure

  • pregnancy

    • do V/Q first (CTA still may be needed)

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30

For what conditions does pneumoconiosis increase risk of?

  • TB

  • fungal infx

  • COPD

  • chronic bronchitis

  • AI DZ

  • CKD

  • lung cancer (asbestos mesothelioma)

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31

Define: FEV1, FVC

  • FEV1 = amnt of air someone can forcefully exhale in 1 second

  • FVC = amnt of air someone can forcefully exhale in 1 breath

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32

What is the nml range of values for FEV1/FVC ratio?

0.75-0.85

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33

What is the difference b/t obstructive and restrictive lung disease?

  • restrictive - pts cannot INHALE fully

    • nml FEV1/FVC

  • obstructive - pts cannot EXHALE fully

    • decreased FEV1/FVC

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34

What are 4 examples of obstructive lung disease?

  1. asthma

  2. COPD

  3. bronchiectasis

  4. CF

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35

What are the 2 types/categories of restrictive lung disease?

  1. intrinsic (ie. INTERSTITIAL LUNG DISEASE)

  2. extrinsic (ie. obesity, pleural effusion, scoliosis)

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36

What results on spirometry will indicate asthma? (2 possible methods)

  1. after baseline, 12% improvement s/p bronchodilator therapy

  2. positive methacholine challange test (causes airway spasm) = FEV1 drops 20%

    • NOT FOR EVERYONE, CAN BE DANGEROUS

      • pregnant/nursing

      • recent MI/stroke

      • aneurysm

      • FEV1 <65%

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37

What are the 2 goals of asthma tx/management?

  1. optimize control

  2. prevent future flares (by optimizing pharmacotherapy)

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38

What are the 2 categories of asthma medications?

  1. quick relievers — directly relax bronchiole smooth muscle; used PRN + for exercise-induced

  2. long term controllers — decrease inflammation; used daily

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39

What are 5 classes of asthma medications?

  1. bronchodilators

    • beta2 agonists: SABA (albuterol) or LABA

    • muscarinic agents: SAMA (ipratropium) or LAMA

  2. steroids

    • inhaled corticosteroids (fluticasone, budesonide, mometasone)

    • systemic steroids (prednisone, methylprednisone)

  3. mast cell stabilizers

  4. leukotriene modifiers

    • montelukast

  5. methylxanthines

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40

What are the 2 standards that exist for selecting asthma meds?

  1. NAEPP - everyone gets a SABA; spirometry/peak flow will determine asthma severity

  2. GINA - severity is based on sxs frequency; no spirometry; no step 1 SABA

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41

What does well-controlled asthma look like?

  • daytime sxs or reliever use: 2x/wk

  • nighttime awakening (d/t sxs): 2x/mo

  • peak flow + spirometry nml

  • PO steroids or UC visit: 1x/yr

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42

What does a-antitrypsin deficiency cause?

  • lung related

  • liver = cirrhosis

  • skin = panniculitis

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43

Define chronic bronchitis

productive cough x 3mo in 2 consecutive years

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44

Define emphysema and clinical findings that support the dx

abnml permanent enlargement of alveoli/airspaces (associated w/ COPD)

  • “blebs” / apical bullae on CXR or CT

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45

What is the gold standard for COPD dx?

PFT

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46

A decrease in DLCO (on PFTs) indicates what type of COPD?

emphysema

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47

What are the GOLD levels/stages for COPD?

  1. mild … FEV1 >80%

  2. moderate … FEV1 50-80%

  3. severe … FEV1 30-50%

  4. VERY severe … FEV1 <30%

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48

Should you use inhaled/IV/PO steroids as pharmacological monotherapy for COPD?

NO!

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49

What are the goals of COPD tx?

1) help prevent + manage exacerbations

2) relieve sxs

3) slow progression

4) reduce morbidity + mortality

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50

What posible pharmacological therapies are available for COPD?

  • bronchodilators

  • steroids

  • abx

  • PDE-4 inhibitor

  • theophylline

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51

What is a common cause/trigger of COPD exacerbation?

RESPIRATORY INFXS (70%) from bacteria or viruses

  • S. pneumonia

  • H. influenza

  • M. catarrhalis

  • P. aeruginosa

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52

How should mild vs. moderate vs. severe COPD exacerbations be treated?

  • mild - short bronchodilator (SABA or SAMA)

  • moderate - SABA or SAMA + abx (may add PO steroid)

  • severe - ER visit or hospitalization

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53

What 3 sxs define a moderate or severe exacerbation of COPD?

  1. increased dyspnea

  2. increased sputum volume

  3. increased sputum purulence

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54

Is it acceptable to start a COPD pt on prophylactic abx therapy?

YES (prophylaxis for frequent exacerbations)

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55

What is the definition/criteria for hemodynamically UNstable PE?

results in hypotension

  • systolic BP <90
    OR

  • systolic BP drops at least 40mmHg x 15min
    OR

  • vasopressor required

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56

Why is it important to distinguish b/t hemodynamically stable vs. unstable PE?

UNstable PE has more risks:

  • more likely to die from obstructive shock

  • death usually w/in first 2hrs

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57

What is the most common source of PEs?

proximal DVT from LE

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58

In what kind of pts are upper extremity PE’s seen?

  • pts w/ cancer

  • pts w/ central venous catheter

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59

What is the greatest risk factor for PE?

immobility (ie. hospitalization, stroke, obesity, heavy smoking, spinal cord injury, total joint replacement)

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60

Why is it important to maintain a high level of clinical suspicion for PE?

SXS VARY A LOT and many pts are ASXS (even w/ large PE)

therefore sxs are NOT specific for PE

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61

What ABG findings are diagnostic for PE?

ABG IS NOT DIAGNOSTIC FOR PE!!!!

supportive findings:

  • respiratory alkalosis

  • hypoxemia (low PO2)

  • hypocapnia (low PCO2)

  • abnml A-a gradient

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62

When/Why would you order D-dimer labs for possible PE pts?

order for low/moderate risk pts in order to determine if you should get IMAGING for them

  • <500 ng/mL = most likely NO PE

  • >500 ng/mL = maybe PE → further workup

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63

What venous US findings are supportive for PE/DVT?

  • inability to compress femoral/popliteal veins = likely DVT

  • full compression b/l = likely NO DVT

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64

What 2 CXR signs are supportive for PE?

  • Westermark — central pulm a. w/ low blood flow (“cuts off”)

  • Hampton’s hump — “wedge-shaped defect” opacity (= hemorrhage + infarct)

other: atelectasis, effusion, infiltrates

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65

How does a V/Q scan work?

  1. VENTILATION: pt inhales radiolabeled gas → then see how gas is distributed in lungs

  2. PERFUSION: pt is injected w/ radiolabeled IV albumin → then see blood flow to lung

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66

What types of anticoagulants can be used for PE?

  • heparin — fractionated (low molecular weight) vs. unfractionated

  • vit K antagonist

    • warfarin/coumadin) use w/ IV heparin

  • direct oral a/c (DOAC)

    • apixaban (eliquis) — monotherapy

    • rivaroxaban (xarelto) — monotherapy

    • dabigatran (pradaxa) — use w/ IV heparin

    • edoxaban (savaysa) — use w/ IV heparin

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67

How do unfractionated heparins work (in the setting of PE tx)?

PREVENTION (rather than a true tx)

  • binds to antithrombins (inactivate clotting factors) = SLOWS DOWN FURTHER CLOT FORMATION

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68

How do you treat PE w/ UNfractionated heparin?

  1. IV heparin

    • NOT subQ — this is only for prophylaxis

  2. 3-6mo of PO warfarin

  3. monitor labs (CBC, PT, APTT, INR, heparin induced thrombocytopenia)

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69

What is the #1 complication of anticoagulant therapy?

hemorrhage/bleeding — monitor closely w/ labs, ESP IF:

  • kidney DZ (adjust DOAC dose)

  • foods (warfarin)

  • other medications (drug-drug interactions)

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70

What are the benefits/drawbacks of thombolytic therapy (TPA, streptokinase, urinokinase)?

  • PRO: directly lyse clots = faster resolution of thrombi

  • CON: greater risk of big bleeds

THEREFORE USE ONLY FOR unstable PE, hemodynamic instability, R heart strain (per echo)

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71

What are the advantages of fractionated heparin (low molecular weight heparins AKA LMWH) over unfractionated?

  • lower risk of bleeding

  • lower risk of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

  • dose is based on body weight (qD or BID)

  • can be home-based tx

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72

Why are DOACs preferred over VKAs (warfarin)?

  • fewer drug interactions

  • drug level monitoring is NOT needed

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73

In what pts are DOACs contraindicated?

pts w/ hepatic DZ & coagulopathy

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74

What is normal mean pulm artery pressure (mPAP) & how do you measure it?

~14mmHg

measured by R heart catheterization

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75

What are the 5 classes of pulmonary HTN?

  1. idiopathic or other cause

    • idiopathic: poor prognosis (only one)

  2. 2/2 L heart failure

  3. 2/2 lung DZ or hypoxia

  4. chronic thomboembolic pulmonary HTN (or 2/2 other pulm a. obstructions)

  5. unclear or multifactorial cause

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76

What is the most important prognostic factor in all cases of pulmonary HTN?

RV function

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77

Is RV a better VOLUME pump or PRESSURE pump?

VOLUME — can adapt better to changes in PRELOAD (vol) than AFTERLOAD (resistance)

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78

What are some diagnoses that pulmonary HTN can be secondary to?

  • HIV/AIDS

  • anorexigenic drugs

  • connective tissue disorder

  • L heart failure

  • hepatitis/cirrhosis

  • sleep apnea

  • other lung problems

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79

What are the goals of pulmonary HTN tx?

reduce vasoconstriction + cellular proliferation

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80

How is the size of a SPN related to risk of malignancy?

  • 2-5mm … 1%

  • 6-10mm … 24%

  • 11-20mm … 33%

  • 21-45 … 80%

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81

What are the 2 methods available for biopsy of a SPN?

  1. bronchoscopy

    • lower diagnostic yield

    • not very good for small peripheral nodules

  2. TTNA (transthoracic needle aspiration)

    • higher diagnostic yield BUT HIGHER FALSE NEGATIVE

    • higher risk of complications (ie. pneumothorax)

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82

Who should receive an annual low-dose radiation CT scan (screening for lung cancer)?

  • ages 50-80 w/ 20+ pack-yr smoking hx

    • who currently smoke OR quit less than 15yrs ago

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83

What is a LUNG-RADS classification?

LUNG imaging CT Reporting And Data System

  • included w/ low-dose CT report — classifies the lung condition

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84

What are the 4 histologic subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)?

  1. squamous cell carcinoma

  2. adenocarcinoma

  3. adenocarcinoma in situ

  4. large cell carcinoma

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85

What is a paraneoplastic syndrome?

organ dysfx caused by neoplasms (via immune system or secretory effects)

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86

What lung cancers can cause paraneoplastic syndromes?

  • small cell LC → SIADH = hyponatremia

  • squamous cell LC → hypercalcemia

  • small cell LC & bronchial carcinoids → ectopic ACTH secretion

  • small cell LC → Eaton-Lambert Myasthenic Syndrome (mimics myasthenia gravis)

  • any → clubbing, anemia, peripheral neuropathy

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87

What kind of tumors can cause a false negative read on PET scan?

tumors w/ low metabolic activity

  • carcinoid tumors

  • minimally invasive

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88

What lung cancer is the most common in smokers? (presents as intraluminal mass)

SCC

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89

What lung cancer arises from epithelial cell near terminal bronchioles OR mucus glands — presents as peripheral nodule/mass?

adenocarcinoma

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90

What lung cancer is spread along alveolar structures and has no invasion?

adenocarcinoma in situ

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91

What lung cancer is a misc. group of aggressive tumors (fast doubling times)?

LCC (large cell carcinoma)

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92

What lung cancer causes bronchi narrowing, is very aggressive, + metastasizes (usually via blood)?

SMALL CELL LUNG CANCER

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93

What is SVC syndrome?

lung tumor blocks SVC flow = R sided face/neck swelling

  • ONCOLOGIC EMERGENCY … urgent radiation therapy

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94

What is Horner syndrome?

  • ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

  • pancoast tumor

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95

What is a pancoast tumor?

adenocarcinoma in superior lung

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96

What is carcinoid syndrome?

  • flushing

  • diarrhea

  • wheezing

  • hypotension

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97

What are characteristics of a person w/ latent TB infx?

  • NOT contagious + no sxs

  • positive TB skin/blood test

  • should be treated still to prevent transition into active TB disease

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98

What are risk factors for TB?

KNOWN OR POTENTIAL exposure to mycoplasma TB:

  • born in OR recent travel to countries where TB is common

  • health care workers

  • workers/residents of homeless shelters, jails, nursing homes

IMMUNOCOMPROMISED

  • HIV

  • substance abuse

  • silicosis

  • cancer

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99

How do you read a TB skin test?

>5mm is (+) for:

  • HIV

  • recent exposure

  • organ transplants, immunocompromised

>10mm is (+) for:

  • born in countries where TB is common

  • substance abuse

  • occupational risk

  • low body weight

>15mm is (+) for: everyone else

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100

How do you treat latent TB infx?

  • isoniazid AKA INH (+ vitB6) … 300mg qD x 9mo

    • monitor for hepatotoxicity (check liver enzymes)

    • d/c if LFTs are 3xNML w/ sxs OR 5xNML

  • isoniazid + rifampin … x 3mo

  • rifampin … x 4mo

REFER TO PULM

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