PD II eyes

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The cornea is ____ to the sclera

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1

The cornea is ____ to the sclera

anterior

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2

What is the thin membrane that lines the sclera anterior?

conjunctiva

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3

What is the inside layer of the sclera called?

uvea

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4

What does the conjunctiva NOT cover?

cornea

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5

What does the anterior chamber contain?

lens, iris, ciliary body

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6

How does the blood flow from the ophthalmic artery?

deep to peripheral

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7

How does the blood flow from the choroid plexus?

peripheral to deep

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8

What is the site where all vessels terminate?

macula

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9

What supplies blood to the macula and fovea?

choroid plexus

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10

What CN provides sensory to cornea and conjunctiva?

CN V

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11

Which CN is for vision?

CN II

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12

What CN controls opening of the eye, eye movement, sympathetic pupil dilation, and parasympathetic pupil constriction?

CN III

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13

What is OD?

oculus dexter; right eye

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14

What is OS?

oculus sinistral; left eye

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15

What is OU?

oculus uterus; both eyes

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16

What is emmetropic?

no vision correction needed

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17

What is myopic?

nearsighted

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18

What is hyperopic?

farsighted

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19

What is presbyopia?

age related farsightedness

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20

What is amblyopia?

poor vision of eye that is other wise physically normal; “lazy eye”

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21

What is a scotoma?

blind spot

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22

What is entropion?

eyelid folds inward

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23

What is ectropion?

eyelid folds outward

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24

what is hypopyon?

pus in anterior chamber

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25

What is epiphora?

overflow of tears

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26

What is synechiae?

iris adheres to cornea or lens

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27

What is ptosis?

drooping of upper eyelid margin

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28

What is hyperemia?

congestion of blood in any part of eye

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29

What is stroma?

connective tissue framework

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30

What is heterochromia?

different colored eyes

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31

What is aphakia?

no lens in the eye

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32

What is dyschromatopsia?

acquired color blindness which occurs due to CN disease or degenerative disease of macula

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33

What is a slit lamp used for?

measure depth of an abrasion or of an infection

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34

What should you use if slit lamp is unavailable?

ophthalmoscope

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35

what would you use to differentiate between ulcer and abrasion?

fluorescein stain

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36

What is a tono-pen / tonometer?

measures the intraocular pressure; anesthetize w/ tetracaine and compare 3 measurements

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37

What is normal intraocular pressure?

10-21 mmHG

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38

What is the intraocular pressure for chronic open angle glaucoma?

20-30 mmHg

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39

What is the intraocular pressure for acute angle closure glaucoma?

> 40 mmHg

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40

How do you measure setting in the orbit?

place a flat object over eyebrow and maxilla and note the distance between the closed eye and flat object

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41

When the patient is looking forward, the upper lid should cover …

the upper portion of the cornea

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42

What is exophthalmos?

bulging of eye anterior out of orbit

<p>bulging of eye anterior out of orbit</p>
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43

What is bilateral exophthalmos due to?

abnormal connective tissue deposition in the orbit and extraocular muscle that can be visualized on CT or MRI

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44

What is bilateral exophthalmos associated with?

graves disease

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45

What is unilateral exophthalmos associated with?

orbital tumor

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46

What are findings you might see with exophthalmos?

stare on frontal gaze, lid lag up and down, anxiety, heat intolerance, palpitations

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47
<p>What is this?</p>

What is this?

enophthalmos

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48

What type of enopthalmos is congenital?

primary

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49

Which enopthalmos is acquired change in volumetric relationship b/t rigid bone cavity, the orbit, and it’s contents?

secondary

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50

What is Horner’s syndrome?

damage to pathway in SNS that regulates HR, pupil size, perspiration, BP, etc; results in ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis

<p>damage to pathway in SNS that regulates HR, <strong>pupil size</strong>, perspiration, BP, etc; results in <strong>ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis</strong></p>
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51

what would CN III palsy result in?

ptosis

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52

What is an internal hordeolum?

acute infection of meibomian gland deep to the eyelid surface

<p>acute infection of meibomian gland deep to the eyelid surface</p>
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53

What is an external hordeolum?

pustule in an eyelash gland (moll or zeis)

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54

What is a chalazion?

chronic enlargement of meibomian gland due to obstruction

<p>chronic enlargement of meibomian gland due to obstruction</p>
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55

What is xanthelasma?

yellow plaque or patch on eyelid or periorbital skin

<p>yellow plaque or patch on eyelid or periorbital skin </p>
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56

What are causes of xanthelasma?

familial hyperlipidemia, DM, hypothyroidism

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57

What might patients with xanthelasma also present with?

abdominal pain from pancreatitis or eruptive xanthomas

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58

What is dacryostenosis?

blocked tear duct

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59

What is special about newborns with dacryostenosis?

usually gets better without treatment

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60

What is a marker for elevated lipids?

xanthelasma

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61

How often should patients aged 40-65 years have a visual acuity examination?

every 2-4 years

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62

How often should patients over 65 have a visual acuity examination?

every 1-2 years

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63

What can you use to exam a child’s visual acuity after the age of 3 instead of snellen?

tumbling E chart or picture chart

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64

What visual acuity is considered legally blind?

20/200 or worse

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65

What do you do when testing for visual acuity if patient is legally blind?

test again at 15 and 10 feet, then assess with fingers, hand movement, and a light source

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66

Which conditions improve with lenses- refractory or nonrefractory?

refractory

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67

When no light is perceived (NLP), that is considered ____

total blindness

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68

How do you differentiate between nonrefractory and refractory?

have patient read snellen chart through a pinhole to see if there is improvement

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69

What chart is used to test color vision?

ishihara

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70

What is the only part of the retina with cones?

fovea centralis

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71

What is the earliest detectable clinical feature of macular degeneration?

drusen

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72

What is used to asses macular degeneration and gross scotoma?

amsler visual grid

<p>amsler visual grid</p>
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73

What is macular degeneration?

acute or chronic deterioration of central vision characterized by drusen and no pain or redness

<p>acute or chronic deterioration of central vision characterized by drusen and no pain or redness</p>
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74

What CN keeps eyes open?

CN III

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75

What CN closes eyelid?

CN VII

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76

How would visual acuity present in a patient with an optic chiasm tumor?

loss of entire half of temporal field bilaterally

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77

How would a normal patient see the amsler visual grid?

not wavy and central point through visual fields; absolute scotoma 10 degrees on temporal midline

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78

How would a patient with macular degeneration see the amsler visual grid?

wavy and decreased ability to see central dot

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79

How would a patient with chronic glaucoma see the amsler visual grid?

multiple scotomas on periphery and scotoma on an arc extending from blind spot to superior nasal area

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80

At what visual acuity, with visual sx, would you refer to ophthalmologist?

less than 20/50 in one or both eyes

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81

At what visual acuity, without visual sx, would you refer to ophthalmologist?

less than 20/40 in one or both eyes

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82

When do you evaluate visual fields?

after visual acuity has been done

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83

When testing visual fields by confrontation, what do you do if there is a temporal defect on one eye?

have patient cover opposite eye and slowly move object from defective area to the better vision in order to define the border

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84

Where is the lesion location in horizontal (altitudinal) visual field defects and how does the VF loss present?

branch of central retinal after or ischemia of optic nerve

unable to see below a horizontal point on the same eye

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85

Where is the lesion location in a blind eye? How does VF loss present?

optic nerve; unilateral blindness

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86

Where is the lesion location in bitemporal hemianopsia? How does VF present?

optic chiasm; temporal half of each field

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87

Where is the lesion location for left homonymous hemianopsia? How does VF present?

right optic tract;

affects temporal visual field on the left and nasal visual field on the left

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88

Where is the lesion location in homonymous left superior quadratic defect? How does VF loss present?

partial right optic radiation;

homonymous quadratic defect “pie in the sky”

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89

What is nystagmus?

repetitive, oscillatory, jerky movements of eyes

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90

What 3 disorders are associated with Horner’s syndrome?

partial ptosis, anhidrosis, miosis

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91

What muscles does CN III innervate?

superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, medial rectus

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92

what is seen with CN III?

ptosis and inability to elevate and adduct eye

<p>ptosis and inability to elevate and adduct eye</p>
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93

What is normal motion of superior oblique?

look down and medially

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94
<p>What would defects with the superior oblique be caused by?</p>

What would defects with the superior oblique be caused by?

trauma to orbit or uncle herniation

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95

What does CN IV innervate?

superior oblique

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96

What are deficits seen with the superior oblique muscle?

moderate exotropia or slight deviation upward

<p>moderate exotropia or slight deviation upward</p>
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97

What does CN VI innervate?

lateral rectus muscle

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98

What is the normal movement of the lateral rectus muscle?

move eyes laterally

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99

What is a deficit with the lateral rectus muscle?

esotropia

<p>esotropia</p>
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100

What causes deficits with the lateral rectus?

congenital weakness, trauma

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