MEDRADSC 3LA3 - Pt Assessment Tools

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75 Terms

1
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In the OPQRSTUV assessment acronym, what does the 'O' represent?

Onset (When it began, frequency, and duration).

2
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Which component of OPQRSTUV asks what brings on or improves the symptom?

Provoking/Palliating.

3
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How is the 'Quality' of nociceptive pain typically described?

Sharp, aching, or throbbing.

4
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What descriptors are characteristic of neuropathic pain 'Quality'?

Shooting, burning, tingling, or painfully numb.

5
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The 'R' in the adapted pain assessment acronym stands for _.

Region/Radiation.

6
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What four specific intensity levels should be assessed under 'Severity' in OPQRSTUV?

Right now, at best, at worst, and on average.

7
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What does the 'T' in OPQRSTUV evaluate regarding medications?

Current and past treatments, effectiveness, and side effects.

8
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The 'U' in the pain assessment acronym stands for Understanding/Impact, which includes what patient belief?

What the patient believes is causing the symptom.

9
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In OPQRSTUV, the 'V' stands for _, which identifies the patient's comfort goal.

Values.

10
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What screening tool is used to identify a patient's pain level on a scale from $0$ to $10$?

ESASr.

11
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According to ESASr scoring, what range represents 'Mild Pain'?

$1-3$.

12
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What ESASr score range is categorized as 'Moderate Pain'?

$4-6$.

13
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An ESASr score between $7$ and $10$ is classified as _.

Severe Pain.

14
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How is 'Mild Pain' defined regarding its impact on activities of daily living (ADLs)?

It generally does not interfere with ADLs.

15
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Which level of pain is characterized by a patient feeling it is difficult to concentrate and hard to be distracted?

Moderate Pain.

16
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What is the primary focus of a patient experiencing 'Severe Pain'?

The patient is completely focused on the pain.

17
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What is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment class for neuropathic pain?

Tricyclic antidepressants, anticonvulsants, or duloxetine.

18
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Which specific medication class should be avoided when treating neuropathic pain in the elderly?

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).

19
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List three specific examples of tricyclic antidepressants mentioned for neuropathic pain.

Amitriptyline, desipramine, nortriptyline, or imipramine.

20
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What two anticonvulsants are suggested as initial treatment options for neuropathic pain?

Gabapentin or pregabalin.

21
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Nociceptive pain typically arises from stimuli from _.

Damaged tissue (inflammatory pain).

22
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What two medication types are most effective for responding to nociceptive pain?

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and opioids.

23
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What is the recommended maximum daily dose of dexamethasone for symptomatic patients with increased intracranial pressure?

$16$ mg daily.

24
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How should dexamethasone be administered for intracranial pressure management following surgery?

In four equal daily doses.

25
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What is the recommended radiotherapy dose for uncomplicated bone metastases?

A single $8$ Gy fraction.

26
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What is the immediate pharmacological treatment for suspected metastatic spinal cord compression?

High-dose dexamethasone.

27
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As a general guide, what percentage of the total daily opioid dose should the breakthrough dose be?

Approximately $10$ %.

28
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What is the standard frequency for oral breakthrough opioid dosing?

Every $1$ to $2$ hours as needed (prn).

29
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For what patient population should fentanyl transdermal patches never be initiated?

Opioid-naïve patients or patients with uncontrolled pain.

30
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Which organ dysfunction requires cautious use of opioids and potential frequency alterations?

Liver or kidney dysfunction.

31
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How long does it typically take for tolerance to develop for opioid-induced nausea and drowsiness?

$5-10$ days.

32
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What is the most common prophylactic treatment for preventing opioid-induced constipation?

A combination of a stimulant (senna/bisacodyl) and an osmotic laxative (lactulose/PEG).

33
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Define 'Tolerance' in the context of opioid use.

A state of adaptation where drug exposure results in diminished effects over time.

34
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What is 'Dependence' as manifested by a drug class?

A state of adaptation manifested by a specific withdrawal syndrome upon abrupt cessation.

35
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List the four behavioral characteristics that define 'Addiction'.

Impaired control, compulsive use, continued use despite harm, and craving.

36
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What are three risk factors that place a patient in a 'high risk' category for addiction?

History of alcohol/drug misuse, major psychiatric disorder, or young age.

37
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What tool is recommended for physicians to use when initiating opioid therapy for high-risk patients?

A Written Care Treatment Agreement.

38
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Which two specific analgesics should not be used for mild cancer pain treatment?

Meperidine and pentazocine.

39
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What is the typical starting dose of oral Morphine for an opioid-naïve patient with moderate pain?

$5$ mg PO every $4$ hours.

40
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For elderly or frail patients, what is the suggested starting dose of oral Morphine for moderate pain?

$2.5$ mg PO every $4$ hours.

41
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What is the starting dose of oral Hydromorphone for an opioid-naïve patient with moderate pain?

$1$ mg PO every $4$ hours.

42
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If pain is uncontrolled on an immediate-release opioid, by what percentage should the dose be increased every $24-48$ hours?

$25$ %.

43
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What is the breakthrough dose frequency for a patient on a sustained-release opioid via the subcutaneous route?

Every $30$ minutes as needed (prn).

44
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In a severe pain crisis for an opioid-naïve patient with IV access, what is the 'stat' dose of morphine?

$5-10$ mg IV every $10$ minutes until relief.

45
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Should long-acting opioids be used to manage a severe pain crisis?

No.

46
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List the five steps of the Patient Assessment Process in order.

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.

47
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How does a 'Medical Diagnosis' differ from a 'Nursing Diagnosis'?

Medical identifies a specific disease/pathology; Nursing identifies responses to health problems.

48
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Give an example of a Nursing Diagnosis related to cancer care.

Pain, body image issues, or ineffective breathing patterns.

49
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What does the 'B' in the BATHE assessment tool stand for?

Background.

50
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In the BATHE tool, what does the 'A' (Affect) help the clinician understand?

How the patient feels about their situation and their individual experience.

51
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Which part of the BATHE tool confirms what is bothering the patient the most?

T (Trouble).

52
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What is the purpose of the 'H' (Handling) step in the BATHE tool?

To assess how the patient is managing the problem and their compliance.

53
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What does the 'E' in BATHE stand for, and what is its goal?

Empathy; to provide reassurance and normalize the patient's experience.

54
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Which tool is a communication technique used to share information within the interprofessional team?

SBAR.

55
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What do the letters in SBAR stand for?

Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation/Request.

56
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In the Triage system, what physical signs are associated with 'Severe' pain ($8-10$)?

Agitation, frequent position changes, muscle trembling, or clenching.

57
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What are the four dimensions of cancer pain that must be addressed for quality of life?

Physical, psychological, social, and spiritual.

58
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Why is 'self-reporting' considered the most reliable method of pain assessment?

Because pain is a subjective experience unique to the individual.

59
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In the Planning phase of assessment, what three areas are addressed?

Interventions, strategies, and side effect management.

60
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According to the SBAR paper, what is the primary cause of the majority of reported sentinel events?

Communication errors.

61
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What is 'Allodynia' in the context of neuropathic pain?

Pain caused by a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.

62
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Deep somatic pain is usually described as _.

Dull, aching, or cramping.

63
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What are the common potential stimuli for visceral pain?

Organ distension, muscle spasm, traction, ischemia, or inflammation.

64
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Name one clinical example of Deafferentation Pain.

Phantom limb pain or Post-mastectomy pain.

65
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Which non-pharmacological physical therapy is NOT advisable for areas receiving radiation therapy?

Applying hot or cold packs.

66
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What is the benefit of a patient keeping a 'pain diary'?

It shows patterns of occurrence, frequency, and intensity to help communicate needs.

67
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When should 'breakthrough medication' be taken relative to radiation treatment to ease the setup process?

$1$ hour prior to treatment.

68
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Define 'Abuse' in the context of substance use.

Recurrent use causing clinically significant impairment or failure to meet major responsibilities.

69
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What is the recommended starting dose for oral Oxycodone in an opioid-naïve patient with moderate pain?

$2.5$ mg PO every $4$ hours.

70
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In patients with reduced kidney or liver function, which specialist should be consulted for opioid advice?

A palliative care specialist.

71
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What is the primary goal of the 'Evaluation' phase in the patient assessment process?

Analysis (of the effectiveness of interventions).

72
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What is the starting SC/IV dose of Morphine for an opioid-naïve patient with severe pain?

$2.5$ to $5$ mg SC/IV every $4$ hours.

73
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How often should regular and breakthrough opioid doses be adjusted based on the previous 24h total dose?

Every $24$ to $48$ hours.

74
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What procedure should be considered if oral neuropathic pain agents are ineffective?

A neuroablative procedure.

75
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Mixed pain refers to the presence of both and elements.

Nociceptive; neuropathic.