Image Eval Lecture Midterm Practice Questions

Match each term to its correct definition:

1. ALARA

2. Decubitus

3. Distortion

4. Dose creep

Definitions:

A. Gradual increase in patient exposure over time due to reliance on digital post-processing to fix overexposed images.

B. Misrepresentation of size or shape of anatomy on an image (includes magnification, elongation, foreshortening).

C. Position where patient is lying down and x-ray beam is horizontal (e.g., lateral decubitus chest).

D. Principle of keeping radiation exposure As Low As Reasonably Achievable through good technique, shielding, and collimation.

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. A

Match each term to its correct definition:

1. Double exposure

2. Elongation

3. Foreshortening

4. Image receptor (IR)

Definitions:

A. Two exposures recorded on the same IR, causing overlapping images and "ghosting."

B. Shape distortion where the part appears shorter, usually due to part being inclined relative to CR/IR.

C. Type of shape distortion where the part appears longer, usually caused by angling the CR/IR incorrectly.

D. Device that captures the x-ray image (CR cassette, DR panel, film-screen).

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. D

Match each term to its correct definition:

1,. Field of view (FOV)

2. Focal spot

3. Matrix

4. Pixel

Definitions:

A. Smallest image element; more of them = better spatial resolution.

B. Digital image layout in rows & columns of pixels.

C. Area of anatomy included on the IR and displayed on the image.

D. Area of the anode target struck by electrons that produces x-rays — small size = sharper detail.

1. C

2. D

3. B

4. A

Match each term to its correct definition:

1. Inverse square law

2. Object-image receptor distance (OID)

3. Source-image receptor distance (SID)

4. Source-skin distance (SSD)

Definitions:

A. Radiation intensity decreases proportionally to the square of the distance from the source.

B. Distance from object (anatomy) to IR; shorter = less magnification.

C. Distance from x-ray tube focal spot to patient's skin surface; must be ≥ 12 in. for mobiles.

D. Distance from x-ray tube focal spot to IR; longer distance reduces magnification.

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

Match each term to its correct definition:

1. Anterior

2. Posterior

3. Lateral

4. Medial

Definitions:

A. Toward the midsagittal plane (middle) of the body.

B. Side view of body part; also describes body surface farther from midsagittal plane.

C. Front surface of the body or body part.

D. Back surface of the body or body part.

1. C

2. D

3. B

4. A

Match each term to its correct definition:

1. Midcoronal plane

2. Midsagittal plane

3. Flexion

4. Profile

Definitions:

A. Plane dividing the body into right/left halves.

B. Bending a joint, decreasing the angle between parts (e.g., flexed elbow at 90°).

C. Side view of a structure (e.g., seeing scapula in profile).

D. Plane dividing the body into anterior/posterior halves.

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

Match each term to its correct definition:

1. Motion unsharpness

2. Voluntary motion

3. Involuntary motion

4. Recorded detail

Definitions:

A. Motion beyond patient control (peristalsis, tremors, heartbeat).

B. Blurring of recorded detail caused by patient movement during exposure.

C. Motion that can be controlled by patient (breathing, moving).

D. Sharpness or definition of structures recorded on an image (synonymous with spatial resolution).

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. D

Match each term to its correct definition:

1. Picture archival and communication system (PACS)

2. Radiolucent

3. Radiopaque

4. Spatial resolution

Definitions:

A. Digital system used for storing, retrieving, and viewing medical images.

B. Material that allows x-rays to pass (appears dark).

C. Ability of an imaging system to distinguish small structures close together.

D. Material that blocks x-rays (appears white).

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

Match each term to its correct definition:

1, Spatial frequency

2. Values of interest (VOI)

3. Posterior

4. Lateral

Definitions:

A. Measurement of resolution in line pairs per millimeter (lp/mm).

B. Pixel data used to create a histogram representing the anatomy being imaged.

C. Back surface of the body or body part.

D. Side view of body part; also describes body surface farther from midsagittal plane.

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

Which of the following is the primary reason technologists should strive for optimal, not just acceptable, images?

A. It reduces PACS storage space.

B. It decreases the number of radiology reads.

C. It minimizes repeats, patient anxiety, and radiation exposure.

D. It ensures all projections have perfect anatomy alignment.

C. It minimizes repeats, patient anxiety, and radiation exposure.

What effect will 2-3° of rotation on a PA chest projection most likely have?

A. It will produce quantum mottle.

B. It will alter lung field brightness and compromise mediastinal evaluation.

C. It will cause overcollimation of the apices.

D. It will produce elongation of the clavicles.

B. It will alter lung field brightness and compromise mediastinal evaluation.

When evaluating display accuracy, which of the following would indicate a correct AP projection?

A. The left marker appears reversed.

B. The patient's right side is displayed on the viewer's right.

C. The patient's right side is displayed on the viewer's left.

D. The marker text is mirrored and unreadable.

C. The patient's right side is displayed on the viewer's left.

Where should a left marker be placed on an AP lumbar spine?

A. Medially over the spinous processes

B. Anywhere within the collimated field

C. Laterally, left of the vertebral column

D. On the tabletop near the patient's head

C. Laterally, left of the vertebral column

What is the minimum collimation requirement around the VOI for most projections?

A. 0.25 inch (0.6 cm)

B. 0.5-1 inch (1.25-2.5 cm)

C. 1.5-2 inches (3.8-5 cm)

D. No margin is required if the VOI fills the IR.

B. 0.5-1 inch (1.25-2.5 cm)

How many degrees of rotation on a PA chest projection can significantly affect lung appearance?

A. 1° or less

B. 2-3°

C. 5-7°

D. More than 10°

B. 2-3°

What is the PRIMARY purpose of image analysis?

A. To eliminate the need for repeats entirely

B. To standardize EI numbers for all procedures

C. To increase the number of images sent to PACS

D. To evaluate projections for acceptability, correct errors, and improve future performance

D. To evaluate projections for acceptability, correct errors, and improve future performance

On an optimal PA chest projection, the normal heart shadow should occupy:

A. One third of the thoracic transverse diameter

B. Slightly less than 50% of the thoracic transverse diameter

C. Exactly 50% of the thoracic transverse diameter

D. More than 50% of the thoracic transverse diameter

B. Slightly less than 50% of the thoracic transverse diameter

Rotation on a PA chest projection MOST compromises which of the following evaluations?

A. Clavicular symmetry

B. Rib fracture detection

C. Mediastinal widening and cardiac size measurement

D. Lung apices visualization

C. Mediastinal widening and cardiac size measurement

Which of the following is considered REQUIRED demographic information on an image?

A. Patient's name, DOB/age, ID number, exam date/time

B. Patient's name, DOB, and referring physician

C. Patient's diagnosis and treatment plan

D. Patient's name only

A. Patient's name, DOB/age, ID number, exam date/time

In computed radiography (CR), patient association occurs:

A. Automatically after cassette readout

B. By scanning the cassette barcode and linking to patient order before readout

C. Only after images are sent to PACS

D. After markers are placed

B. By scanning the cassette barcode and linking to patient order before readout

Why must the correct exam, position, and side be selected at the workstation prior to exposure with DR?

A. To select the correct processing algorithm and ensure accurate display/marker orientation

B. To allow PACS to rotate images automatically

C. To lock out exposures on the wrong side

D. To save radiation dose by lowering mAs

A. To select the correct processing algorithm and ensure accurate display/marker orientation

When aligning extremities, why should the long axis of the part be aligned with the long axis of the IR?

A. To prevent motion and optimizes exposure field recognition

B. Allows part to be perpendicular or parallel to the IR

C. To allow even collimation, fill the display correctly, and optimize exposure field recognition

D. To increase patient dose

C. To allow even collimation, fill the display correctly, and optimize exposure field recognition

What is the MAIN reason for obtaining oblique views?

A. To reduce exposure time

B. To visualize anatomy obscured on AP/PA or lateral projections

C. To improve EI accuracy

D. To reduce magnification

B. To visualize anatomy obscured on AP/PA or lateral projections

Where does the x-ray beam have the least divergence?

A. At the edges of the collimated field

B. Near the tabletop

C. At the anode heel

D. At the central ray (CR)

D. At the central ray (CR)

Which type of distortion occurs when the part is inclined while CR and IR remain perpendicular?

A. Elongation

B. Foreshortening

C. Size distortion

D. Magnification

B. Foreshortening

What must occur for a joint space to appear open on a projection?

A. The joint must be perpendicular to the IR

B. The exposure must use a grid

C. The SID must be 72 inches

D. The CR or diverging rays must be parallel with the joint space

D. The CR or diverging rays must be parallel with the joint space

Which focal spot produces better spatial resolution?

A. Small focal spot

B. Large focal spot

C. Either - focal spot size does not affect detail

D. Virtual focal spot

A. Small focal spot

If SID is increased but mAs is not adjusted, what is most likely to occur?

A. Overexposure

B. Quantum mottle

C. Underexposure

D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

How can voluntary motion be best controlled?

A. Use the largest focal spot

B. Use the shortest exposure time and give clear breathing/position instructions

C. Force patient to hold still

D. Harass or assault the patient if they don't follow your instructions

B. Use the shortest exposure time and give clear breathing/position instructions

Why is it necessary to continually evaluate radiation protection practices?

A. To meet state inspection requirements only

B. To lower mAs on every exam

C. Because radiation risk is linear, non-threshold, any dose may cause an effect

D. To avoid histogram errors

C. Because radiation risk is linear, non-threshold, any dose may cause an effect

Which are BENEFITS of good collimation?

1. Lower patient dose

2. Improved visibility of recorded detail

3. Reduction in scatter radiation

4. Automatic elimination of motion blur

5. Reduction in histogram analysis errors

1, 2, 3, 5.

Which factors minimize magnification (size distortion)?

1. Long SID

2. Short OID

3. Increased OID

4. Using a grid

5. Correct CR centering

1, 2.

Which are CORRECT marker placement guidelines?

1. Place markers laterally on AP/PA torso views, side corresponding to anatomy

2. Use an arrow marker for decubitus to indicate "side up"

3. Mark only after image is sent to PACS

4. Mark both right and left projections when both are on the same IR

5. Place marker anteriorly when possible on laterals

1, 2, 4, 5.

Which of the following is TRUE about demographic reassociation in digital imaging?

A. It can be corrected after images are sent to PACS by the technologist.

B. It must be corrected before the image is sent to PACS to prevent misdiagnosis.

C. It is not important if the correct side marker is visible.

D. It is automatically corrected if the exam is rescanned.

B. It must be corrected before the image is sent to PACS to prevent misdiagnosis.

If an extremity is placed diagonally on the IR, what is the most likely outcome?

A. Histogram analysis will fail completely.

B. The SID must be increased to correct distortion.

C. The image will not fill the display monitor properly.

D. The focal spot size must be reduced to restore sharpness.

C. The image will not fill the display monitor properly.

What happens if a projection is flipped rather than rotated to correct display?

A. The marker may indicate the wrong side of the patient.

B. The collimation borders will be lost.

C. Quantum mottle will appear on the image.

D. The EI number will shift significantly.

A. The marker may indicate the wrong side of the patient.

Which is the BEST method to avoid marker distortion or magnification?

A. Place the marker directly on the patient's skin

B. Place marker outside collimation border

C. Tape the marker to the collimator light field

D. Place the marker face-up directly on the IR

D. Place the marker face-up directly on the IR

What is the BEST method for determining CR location using collimated borders?

A. Measure the SID from the tabletop

B. Connect opposite corners of the collimated field with imaginary lines

C. Place CR at midpoint of patient body habitus

D. Use the Bucky tray indicator

B. Connect opposite corners of the collimated field with imaginary lines

What is the relationship between SID and divergence angle?

A. Shorter SID = greater divergence per inch

B. Longer SID = greater divergence per inch

C. SID does not affect divergence

D. Divergence angle is fixed by collimator size

A. Shorter SID = greater divergence per inch

If the part is not centered to the CR, what type of distortion will MOST likely occur?

A. Foreshortening

B. Elongation

C. Size distortion

D. Motion blur

B. Elongation

What is the most magnified structure on a lateral chest projection?

A. The lung closest to the IR

B. The lung farthest from the IR

C. The mediastinum

D. The clavicles

B. The lung farthest from the IR

When evaluating a blurry abdomen image, sharp bony cortices with blurry bowel gas patterns most likely indicate:

A. Patient moved voluntarily during exposure

B. The SID was too short

C. Involuntary motion caused by peristalsis

D. Double exposure occurred

C. Involuntary motion caused by peristalsis

When increasing SID to offset magnification from a large OID, what must ALSO be adjusted to maintain IR exposure?

A. kVp

B. Collimation size

C. mAs using the exposure maintenance formula

D. Pixel size

C. mAs using the exposure maintenance formula

Why are x-rays especially avoided in the embryonic stage of pregnancy?

A. Embryos absorb more x-rays than adults

B. The mother cannot give consent

C. The embryo has lower bone density

D. Rapidly dividing cells are highly radiosensitive, increasing mutation risk

D. Rapidly dividing cells are highly radiosensitive, increasing mutation risk

1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of an Intravenous Urography (IVU) exam?

A. To investigate hematuria, kidney stones, and evaluate the size, shape of kidneys, ureters, and bladder

B. To evaluate bladder wall thickness

C. To detect gallstones

D. To measure bladder volume

A. To investigate hematuria, kidney stones, and evaluate the size, shape of kidneys, ureters, and bladder

What is the main reason a Cystogram is performed?

A. To visualize gallbladder function

B. To evaluate uterine shape and fallopian tube patency

C. To evaluate reflux into ureters, bladder leaks, and bladder pathology

D. To diagnose spinal cord compression

C. To evaluate reflux into ureters, bladder leaks, and bladder pathology

A Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG) is done to:

A. Check liver and pancreas ducts

B. Evaluate urethral function and detect reflux while voiding

C. Measure GFR levels

D. Identify stomach ulcers

B. Evaluate urethral function and detect reflux while voiding

The main indication for a Retrograde Urethrogram is:

A. Evaluate esophageal motility

B. Diagnose appendicitis

C. Detect gallstones

D. Identify urethral trauma, strictures, or congenital abnormalities

D. Identify urethral trauma, strictures, or congenital abnormalities

Which of the following is the primary purpose of a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)?

A. Evaluate causes of infertility, uterine shape, and fallopian tube patency

B. Assess colon motility

C. Evaluate gastric emptying time

D. Diagnose pancreatitis

A. Evaluate causes of infertility, uterine shape, and fallopian tube patency

Myelography is primarily performed to:

A. Evaluate ureter obstruction

B. Assess spinal canal for lesions, herniated disks, or spinal stenosis

C. Diagnose GERD

D. Detect kidney stones

B. Assess spinal canal for lesions, herniated disks, or spinal stenosis

The main reason for performing an Esophagram (Barium Swallow) is:

A. Assess gastroesophageal reflux, dysphagia, or achalasia

B. Detect kidney stones

C. Identify gallbladder sludge

D. Diagnose appendicitis

A. Assess gastroesophageal reflux, dysphagia, or achalasia

A Modified Barium Swallow is most often ordered for:

A. Evaluating patients with suspected aspiration or swallowing dysfunction (often post-stroke)

B. To demonstrate the entire esophagus

C. Measuring stomach pH

D. Assessing pancreas function

A. Evaluating patients with suspected aspiration or swallowing dysfunction (often post-stroke)

A Small Bowel Follow Through is performed to:

A. Evaluate small bowel disease, obstruction, or polyps

B. Detect gallstones

C. Measure renal function

D. Evaluate colon motility

A. Evaluate small bowel disease, obstruction, or polyps

Surgical Cholangiography is used to:

A. Assess blood flow to kidneys

B. Visualize bile ducts intraoperatively and check for blockages

C. Evaluate esophageal motility

D. Detect bladder tumors

B. Visualize bile ducts intraoperatively and check for blockages

Which of the following is the purpose of ERCP?

A. Diagnose and treat problems of the liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, and pancreas

B. Evaluate esophageal reflux

C. Diagnose bladder infection

D. Assess kidney shape and size

A. Diagnose and treat problems of the liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, and pancreas

Which statement is TRUE regarding kidney position?

A. Both kidneys lie at the exact same level

B. Left kidney is slightly lower because of spleen

C. Kidneys drop 1 lumbar vertebra when standing

D. Kidneys rise 2 inches during inspiration

C. Kidneys drop 1 lumbar vertebra when standing

Which of the following is not a kidney function?

A. Remove nitrogenous waste

B. Regulate water balance

C. Regulate electrolyte/acid-base balance

D. Produce bile salts

D. Produce bile salts

The top of the left kidney is typically at the level of:

A. L5

B. T11-T12 intervertebral space

C. L1-L2 intervertebral space

D. T9

B. T11-T12 intervertebral space

The primary problem with early high-atomic-number agents (e.g., bismuth, thorium) was:

A. Poor radiopacity

B. They were hyperosmolar only

C. Toxicity and severe, persistent reactions

D. Rapid renal clearance made them ineffective

C. Toxicity and severe, persistent reactions

The purpose of contrast media in radiography is to:

A. Increase subject contrast by altering tissue attenuation

B. Reduce scatter radiation

C. Lower patient dose

D. Shorten exposure time

A. Increase subject contrast by altering tissue attenuation

Contrast media are best described as:

A. Only radiopaque substances for x-ray

B. Radioisotopes used in nuclear medicine

C. Substances introduced to visualize internal structures

D. MRI pulse sequences

C. Substances introduced to visualize internal structures

The effectiveness of contrast media depends primarily on:

A. Patient age and SID

B. Tissue atomic number, contrast concentration, and kVp

C. OID and grid ratio

D. mA and exposure time

B. Tissue atomic number, contrast concentration, and kVp

Positive and negative contrast agents are classified respectively as:

A. Radiopaque / Radiolucent

B. Radiolucent / Radiopaque

C. Ionic / Nonionic

D. Paramagnetic / Ferromagnetic

A. Radiopaque / Radiolucent

The standard MRI contrast agent type is:

A. Iodinated nonionic (T2 shortening)

B. Gadolinium-based, paramagnetic (T1 shortening)

C. Barium sulfate (T1 shortening)

D. Microbubble agents (T1 enhancement)

B. Gadolinium-based, paramagnetic (T1 shortening)

An example of a negative contrast agent is:

A. Barium sulfate

B. Iodinated dimer

C. Air or CO₂

D. Gadolinium

C. Air or CO₂

Which of the following is a contrast is a type metal?

A. Barium sulfate

B. Iodinated dimer

C. Air or CO₂

D. Gadolinium

D. Gadolinium

A serious potential complication when air is introduced intravenously is:

A. Pancreatitis

B. Air embolus

C. Thyroid storm

D. Laryngospasm

B. Air embolus

The most common positive GI contrast agent is:

A. Iodixanol

B. Iohexol

C. Barium sulfate

D. Gadolinium DTPA

C. Barium sulfate

The atomic number of barium is:

A. 56

B. 53

C. 42

D. 74

A. 56

Barium sulfate for GI use is prepared as:

A. An aqueous solution

B. An oil-based emulsion

C. A suspension mixed with water

D. A gaseous dispersion

C. A suspension mixed with water

Cold tap water is recommended for barium enema preparation primarily because it:

A. Increases mucosal coating

B. Relaxes the colon and reduces cramping

C. Speeds peristalsis excessively

D. Prevents electrolyte shifts

B. Relaxes the colon and reduces cramping

If a colon perforation is suspected, you should:

A. Proceed with thick barium

B. Use oil-based contrast

C. Cancel the exam

D. Use water-soluble contrast to avoid barium peritonitis

D. Use water-soluble contrast to avoid barium peritonitis

The main adverse effect of retained barium and the best post-exam advice are:

A. Diarrhea; avoid fluids

B. Constipation/impaction; encourage fluids/fiber and a mild laxative if needed

C. Hyponatremia; restrict water

D. Allergic rash; take antihistamines only

B. Constipation/impaction; encourage fluids/fiber and a mild laxative if needed

Older patients on long-term steroids are at higher BE risk due to:

A. Bowel wall weakening leads to perforation risk

B. Electrolyte imbalance

C. Hyperperistalsis

D. Contrast allergy

A. Bowel wall weakening leads to perforation risk

Sedated patients should avoid UGI exams mainly because of:

A. Radiation dose concerns

B. Aspiration risk from impaired gag/swallow reflex

C. Poor barium coating

D. Dehydration risk

B. Aspiration risk from impaired gag/swallow reflex

Osmolality is defined as:

A. Number of milliosmoles per liter of solution

B. The ionic strength of a solute

C. The viscosity of a solution at 37 °C

D. Number of milliosmoles per kilogram of water

D. Number of milliosmoles per kilogram of water

Regarding iodinated contrast reactions and risk:

A. Low-osmolality nonionic agents have higher reaction rates

B. Reaction risk is unrelated to osmolality

C. High-osmolality ionic agents are more likely to cause reactions

D. Only iso-osmolar agents cause vasovagal responses

C. High-osmolality ionic agents are more likely to cause reactions

Which kidney typically sits higher in the abdomen?

A. Right, due to the spleen

B. Left, by about 1 cm

C. Right, by about 2 cm

D. They are level in most adults

B. Left, by about 1 cm

With inspiration, kidneys typically:

A. Drop 1 inch

B. Rise 1 inch

C. Do not move

D. Rotate medially

A. Drop 1 inch

Exams of the urinary tract are commonly performed supine on expiration primarily to:

A. Reduce magnification

B. Shorten exposure time

C. Increase subject contrast

D. Minimize kidney motion and superior displacement

D. Minimize kidney motion and superior displacement

A primary function of the kidneys is:

A. Synthesis of bile salts

B. Regulation of water balance to help maintain BP

C. Production of digestive enzymes

D. Storage of glycogen

B. Regulation of water balance to help maintain BP

Nitrogenous wastes removed by the kidneys include:

A. Ammonia, uric acid, and urea

B. Bicarbonate, lactate, and ketones

C. Choline, histamine, and serotonin

D. Triglycerides, LDL, and HDL

A. Ammonia, uric acid, and urea

A formal contraindication to iodinated contrast administration is:

A. Controlled hypertension

B. Anuria or severe renal failure

C. Mild asthma history

D. Hyperlipidemia

B. Anuria or severe renal failure

For patients taking metformin, standard contrast safety guidance is to:

A. Hold metformin for 48 hours post-contrast and verify renal function

B. Continue metformin uninterrupted

C. Double the metformin dose the night before

D. Substitute barium for iodinated contrast

A. Hold metformin for 48 hours post-contrast and verify renal function

Multiple myeloma and sickle cell anemia patients receiving iodinated contrast should:

A. Avoid any hydration

B. Receive prophylactic antibiotics

C. Be well hydrated to reduce renal risk/viscosity issues

D. Receive only barium sulfate

C. Be well hydrated to reduce renal risk/viscosity issues

Most iodinated contrast reactions occur:

A. After 24 hours

B. Between 1-2 hours

C. Only after multiple prior exposures

D. Within the first 5 minutes

D. Within the first 5 minutes

A moderate contrast reaction is BEST represented by:

A. Mild pruritus only

B. Angioedema with tachycardia and bronchospasm

C. Brief metallic taste

D. Asymptomatic bradycardia

B. Angioedema with tachycardia and bronchospasm

The mechanism of a severe vasovagal event is most accurately described as:

A. Unconsciousness

B. Cardiac arrest

C. mild redness

D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

High-osmolality ionic contrast is more likely than low- or iso-osmolar agents to cause:

A. Lower viscosity and fewer reactions

B. Similar reaction rates but more extravasation

C. More adverse reactions and tissue toxicity if extravasated

D. Only delayed reactions

C. More adverse reactions and tissue toxicity if extravasated

Warming water-soluble contrast prior to injection primarily:

A. Reduces viscosity and improves patient comfort

B. Increases the viscosity and reduces patient comfort

C. Lowers iodine concentration

D. Eliminates all risk of reaction

A. Reduces viscosity and improves patient comfort

In the event of contrast extravasation, the LEAST appropriate action is:

A. Elevate the limb

B. Apply a cold compress

C. Notify appropriate clinical staff and document

D. Massage the site vigorously to disperse contrast

D. Massage the site vigorously to disperse contrast

Regarding negative contrast during vascular procedures, CO₂ is sometimes preferred over air because it:

A. Is more radiopaque

B. Dissolves rapidly, lowering embolic risk

C. Is heavier than blood, reducing reflux

D. Has higher viscosity, improving column stability

B. Dissolves rapidly, lowering embolic risk

Which of the following is used as a contrast for ultrasound?

A. Gadolinium

B. Microbubbles

C. Iodine

D. Air

B. Microbubbles

A patient scheduled for esophagram/UGI with high aspiration risk should preferentially receive:

A. Thick barium instead of water-soluble iodinated contrast

B. Barium pellets to speed transit

C. No contrast; CT only

D. Water-soluble iodinated contrast instead of barium

D. Water-soluble iodinated contrast instead of barium

When preparing a patient for IVU, why is voiding before the procedure important?

A. To prevent overlapping bladder shadows

B. To reduce the risk of bladder rupture

C. To improve visualization of the bladder on postvoid images

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which exam involves placing a catheter through the urethra and imaging during urination?

A. Cystogram

B. IVU

C. Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)

D. Retrograde Pyelogram

C. Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG

Which exam is specifically done for male urethral trauma?

A. Retrograde Urethrogram

B. VCUG

C. Cystogram

D. ERCP

A. Retrograde Urethrogram

The purpose of contrast media in radiography is to:

A. Reduce scatter radiation

B. Increase subject contrast by altering tissue attenuation

C. Lower patient dose

D. Shorten exposure time

B. Increase subject contrast by altering tissue attenuation

The primary purpose of an IVU is to evaluate:

A. Gallbladder function

B. Kidneys, ureters, and bladder with timed images

C. Colon mucosal detail

D. Pancreatic ducts

B. Kidneys, ureters, and bladder with timed images

The fluoroscopic procedure that evaluates infertility or tubal blockage is:

A. VCUG

B. HSG

C. Arthrogram

D. ERCP

B. HSG