software engineering quizes: intro, scrum, requirement engineering

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79 Terms

1
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Who is on the Scrum Team? (choose the best three answers) A) The Scrum Master B) Project Manager C) The Product Owner D) Developers

A) The Scrum Master, C) The Product Owner, D) Developers

2
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True or False: When multiple Scrum Teams work together on the same product, each team should maintain a separate Product Backlog.

False

3
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Which statement best describes the Sprint Review? A) It is when the Scrum Team and stakeholders inspect the outcome of a Sprint and figure out what to do next B) It is a demo at the end of the Sprint for everyone in the organization to check on the work done C) It is a mechanism to control Developer activity during a Sprint

A) It is when the Scrum Team and stakeholders inspect the outcome of a Sprint and figure out what to do next

4
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Which statement best describes a Product Owner's responsibility? A) Keep stakeholders from distracting the Developers B) Managing the project and ensuring that the work meets the commitments to the stakeholders C) Directing the Developers D) Optimizing the value of the work the Scrum Team does

D) Optimizing the value of the work the Scrum Team does

5
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The CEO asks the Developers to add a "very important" item to a Sprint that is in progress. What should the Developers do? A) Add the item to the next Sprint B) Add the item to the current Sprint without any adjustments C) Add the item to the current Sprint and drop an item of equal size D) Inform the other members of the Scrum Team so the team can decide what to do

D) Inform the other members of the Scrum Team so the team can decide what to do

6
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The timebox for a Daily Scrum is? A) Two minutes per person B) 15 minutes C) 4 hours D) The same time of day every day E) 15 minutes for a 4-week sprint. For shorter Sprints it is usually shorter

B) 15 minutes

7
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What is the function or purpose of Management in Scrum? A) Monitor the progress of the Developers on the Scrum Team B) Identify and remove people that are not working hard enough C) Support the Product Owner with insights and information into high value product and system capabilities. Support the Scrum Master to encourage organizational change that fosters empiricism, self-management, bottom-up intelligence, and intelligent product delivery D) Continually monitor staffing levels of the Scrum Team

C) Support the Product Owner with insights and information into high value product and system capabilities. Support the Scrum Master to encourage organizational change that fosters empiricism, self-management, bottom-up intelligence, and intelligent product delivery

8
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When might a Sprint be abnormally cancelled? A) When it becomes clear that not everything will be finished by the end of the Sprint B) When the Sprint Goal becomes obsolete C) When the Developers feel that the work is too hard D) When the sales department has an important new opportunity

B) When the Sprint Goal becomes obsolete

9
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The Developers should not be interrupted during the Sprint and the Sprint Goal should remain intact. These are conditions that foster creativity, quality and productivity. Which one the following answers is FALSE? A) The Sprint Backlog is fully formulated in the Sprint Planning event and does not change during the Sprint B) The Developers may work with the Product Owner to add or remove work if they find themselves with more or less capacity than expected C) As a decomposition of the selected Product Backlog items, the Sprint Backlog changes and may grow as the work emerges D) The Product Owner can help clarify or optimize the Sprint when asked by the Developers

A) The Sprint Backlog is fully formulated in the Sprint Planning event and does not change during the Sprint

10
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What are two ways a Scrum Master serves to enable effective Scrum Teams? A) By removing impediments that hinder the Scrum Team B) By keeping high value features high in the Product Backlog C) By starting and ending the meetings at the proper time D) By facilitating Developer decision-making

A) By removing impediments that hinder the Scrum Team, D) By facilitating Developer decision-making

11
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What is the typical size for a Scrum Team? A) Minimum of 7 B) 9 C) 10 or fewer D) 7 plus or minus 2

C) 10 or fewer

12
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The Scrum Team must choose at least one high priority process improvement item, identified during the Sprint Retrospective, and place it in the Sprint Backlog. True or False?

True

13
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When many Scrum Teams are working on a single product, what best describes the Definition of Done? A) Each Scrum Team uses its own, but must make their definition clear to all other teams so the differences are known B) All Scrum Teams must have a Definition of Done that makes their combined Increment valuable and useful C) It depends

B) All Scrum Teams must have a Definition of Done that makes their combined Increment valuable and useful

14
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Why is the Daily Scrum held at the same time and same place? A) The Product Owner demands it B) The place can be named C) Rooms are hard to book and this lets it be booked in advance D) The consistency reduces complexity

D) The consistency reduces complexity

15
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Who is responsible for managing the progress of work during a Sprint? A) The most junior member of the team B) The Developers C) The Product Owner D) The Scrum Master

B) The Developers

16
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The Developers should have all the skills needed to: A) Turn the Product Backlog items they select into an Increment of useful and valuable product functionality B) Do all of the development work, except for specialized testing that requires additional tools and environments C) Complete the project as estimated when the date and cost are committed to the Product Owner

A) Turn the Product Backlog items they select into an Increment of useful and valuable product functionality

17
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Who is required to attend the Daily Scrum? A) The Developers and Scrum Master B) The Developers and Product Owner C) The Developers D) The Scrum Team E) The Scrum Master and Product Owner

C) The Developers

18
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When does a Developer become the sole owner of an item on the Sprint Backlog? A) During the Daily Scrum B) Never. All Sprint Backlog items are "owned" by the Developers on the Scrum Team C) Whenever a team member can accommodate more work D) At the Sprint Planning event

B) Never. All Sprint Backlog items are "owned" by the Developers on the Scrum Team

19
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What does it mean to say that an event has a timebox? A) The event must happen at a set time B) The event can take no more than a maximum amount of time C) The event must happen by a given time D) The event must take at least a minimum amount of time

B) The event can take no more than a maximum amount of time

20
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The timebox for the Sprint Planning event is? A) 4 hours B) Monthly C) Whenever it is done D) 8 hours for a monthly Sprint. For shorter Sprints it is usually shorter

D) 8 hours for a monthly Sprint. For shorter Sprints it is usually shorter

21
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Which of the following services is appropriate for a Scrum Master in regard to the Daily Scrum? A) Teach the Developers to keep the Daily Scrum within the 15 minute timebox B) All answers apply C) Facilitate in a way that ensures each team member has a chance to speak D) Lead the discussions of the Developers E) Ensure that all 3 questions have been answered

A) Teach the Developers to keep the Daily Scrum within the 15 minute timebox

22
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Who should know the most about the progress toward a business objective or a release, and be able to explain the alternatives most clearly? A) The Project Manager B) The Product Owner C) The Scrum Master D) The Developers

B) The Product Owner

23
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Upon what type of process control is Scrum based? A) Empirical B) Complex C) Hybrid D) Defined

A) Empirical

24
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When does a Developer become accountable for the value of a Product Backlog item selected for the Sprint? A) Never. The entire Scrum Team is accountable for creating value every Sprint B) During the Daily Scrum C) Whenever a team member can accommodate more work D) At the Sprint Planning Event

A) Never. The entire Scrum Team is accountable for creating value every Sprint

25
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Who has the final say on the order of the Product Backlog? A) The Developers B) The Product Owner C) The Scrum Master D) The Stakeholders E) The CEO

B) The Product Owner

26
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When does the next Sprint begin? A) Immediately after the conclusion of the previous Sprint B) Next Monday C) When the Product Owner is ready D) Immediately following the next Sprint Planning

A) Immediately after the conclusion of the previous Sprint

27
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The Agile Manifesto argues that documentation has no importance. True or False?

False

28
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A team's velocity is the maximum number of story points it can implement in a sprint. True or False?

False

29
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In smaller teams, it is recommended that the Product Owner (PO) takes on the role of Scrum Master. True or False?

False

30
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Can a Sprint be canceled? If so, who can cancel it and for what reasons? A) Yes, the Scrum Master can cancel a Sprint if the team is behind schedule or facing technical issues B) Yes, the Product Owner can cancel a Sprint if the Sprint Goal becomes obsolete, such as when company priorities, market conditions, or technology change C) Yes, the Development Team can cancel a Sprint if they believe the workload is unrealistic D) No, once a Sprint has started, it cannot be canceled under any circumstances

B) Yes, the Product Owner can cancel a Sprint if the Sprint Goal becomes obsolete, such as when company priorities, market conditions, or technology change

31
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Which of the following option is considered as a requirement? A) Availability B) Reliability C) Usability D) All of the mentioned

D) All of the mentioned

32
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Which one of the following is not an activity within the requirements engineering process? A) Elicitation B) Design C) Analysis D) Documentation

B) Design

33
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A stakeholder is anyone who will buy the completed software system under development. True or False?

False

34
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Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system. True or False?

True

35
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A requirement is best defined as: A) A need or want of the business to solve a problem or achieve an objective B) A condition or capability of a product or solution that documents a problem or objective of the business C) A need or necessary feature of a system that could be sensed from a position anywhere within the system D) A condition or capability is needed by a stakeholder to solve a problem or achieve an objective

D) A condition or capability is needed by a stakeholder to solve a problem or achieve an objective

36
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Which type of requirement best describes the behavior and information that the solution will manage, including a specific system action or response? A) Business Requirements B) Stakeholder Requirements C) Functional Requirements D) Non-functional Requirements

C) Functional Requirements

37
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A requirement is best described by which of the following: A) A known deliverable B) A documented representation of a condition or capability C) Whatever the business analyst deems it to be D) A list of items is presented to the business analyst on a napkin

B) A documented representation of a condition or capability

38
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Which of the following lists are valid non-functional requirements? A) Specificity, performance, interface, privacy, environmental B) Unique, privacy, operational, quality, environmental, transferability C) Security, reliability, operability, compatibility, maintainability D) Security, performance, quality, unique, complete

C) Security, reliability, operability, compatibility, maintainability

39
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Knowledge of a specific department's business architecture is called what? A) Organization knowledge B) Business knowledge C) Domain knowledge D) Department knowledge

C) Domain knowledge

40
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All of the following are important ingredients for preparing for Requirements Elicitation sessions EXCEPT: A) Session objectives so people know the purpose of the session B) Desired outcome so people know what should be produced as part of the session C) Gauging the group's ability to reach a consensus D) A plan for the Requirements Elicitation techniques to be used during the session

C) Gauging the group's ability to reach a consensus

41
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Which of the following is included in SRS? A) Cost B) Design Constraints C) Staffing D) Delivery Schedule

B) Design Constraints

42
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Which of the following is not included in SRS? A) Performance B) Functionality C) Design Solutions D) External Interfaces

C) Design Solutions

43
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Consider the following Statement: "The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X 10% of the time." What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here? A) Consistent B) Verifiable C) Non-verifiable D) Correct

C) Non-verifiable

44
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Consider the following Statement: "The product should have a good human interface." What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here? A) Consistent B) Verifiable C) Non-verifiable D) Correct

C) Non-verifiable

45
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Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements? A) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform B) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS' and tools that are universally available and standardized C) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended D) None of the mentioned

A) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform

46
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is an observational technique that can be used to understand social and organizational requirements. A) Histography B) Stegnography C) Ethnography D) None of the above

C) Ethnography

47
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The system specification describes the: A) Function, performance and constraints of a computer-based system B) Implementation of each allocated system element software architecture C) Time required for system simulation

A) Function, performance and constraints of a computer-based system

48
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The use of traceability tables helps to: A) Debug programs following the detection of run-time errors B) Determine the performance of algorithm implementations C) Identify, control and track requirements changes D) None of the above

C) Identify, control and track requirements changes

49
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Can we include graphical diagrams inside the SRS document? A) Yes B) No

A) Yes

50
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MoSCoW is: A) An elicitation technique for getting functional requirements B) A prioritization technique for managing the requirements C) A validation technique to filter out non-important requirements D) All of the above

B) A prioritization technique for managing the requirements

51
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Requirements engineering, like other software engineering activities, needs to be tailored to the needs of the project, product, and teams. True or False?

True

52
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When gathering and analyzing requirements, developers collaborate with stakeholders to gain knowledge about the application domain, system requirements, performance standards, hardware constraints, and more. True or False?

True

53
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As the collected information, during Requirement Engineering, comes from various perspectives, the emerging requirements are always consistent. True or False?

False

54
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Requirements should be correct, subjective, complete, consistent, and verifiable. True or False?

False

55
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User stories have three parts, all starting with the letter C: Card, Conversation, and Code. True or False?

False

56
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The acronym INVEST reminds us that user stories should be Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, and Testable. True or False?

True

57
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Use cases are more detailed and complete specifications of requirements than user stories. True or False?

True

58
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Extensions of a use case represent alternative executions or error situations. True or False?

True

59
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Acceptance tests for stories are defined by the technical leader of the team. True or False?

False

60
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Examples of done criteria (for user stories) include the implementation of unit tests and code review by a second developer. True or False?

True

61
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Software is defined as: A) Set of programs, documentation & configuration of data B) Set of programs C) Documentation and configuration of data D) None of the mentioned

A) Set of programs, documentation & configuration of data

62
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What is Software Engineering? A) Process for Designing and Developing a software B) Testing a software C) Application of engineering principles to the design and creation of a software product D) None of the mentioned

C) Application of engineering principles to the design and creation of a software product

63
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is a software development activity that is not a part of software processes. A) Validation B) Specification C) Development D) Dependence

D) Dependence

64
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Who writes the software requirement specification documents (SRS)? A) System Tester B) System Analyst C) System Developer D) All of the above

B) System Analyst

65
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Where there is a need of Software Engineering? A) For Large Software B) To reduce Cost C) Software Quality Management D) All of the above

D) All of the above

66
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Efficiency in a software product does not include____. A) Licensing B) Processing time C) Responsiveness D) Memory utilization

A) Licensing

67
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Which one of the following is a functional requirement? A) Maintainability B) Portability C) Business needs D) Reliability

C) Business needs

68
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The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document them is known as _. A) Feasibility Study B) Requirement Gathering C) Requirement Engineering D) System Requirements Specification

C) Requirement Engineering

69
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Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task? A) Problem of scope B) Problem of understanding C) Problem of volatility D) All of the above

D) All of the above

70
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Usability can be measured in terms of: A) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage B) Net increase in productivity C) Intellectual skill to learn the system D) All of the above

D) All of the above

71
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Most software continues to be custom-built because: A) Component reuse is common in the software world B) Reusable components are too expensive to use C) Software is easier to build without using someone else's components D) Off-the-shelf software components are unavailable in many application domains

D) Off-the-shelf software components are unavailable in many application domains

72
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Software project management consists of a number of activities which contains: A) Project Planning B) Scope Management C) Project Estimation D) All mentioned above

D) All mentioned above

73
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Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called: A) Adaptive Maintenance B) Corrective Maintenance C) Perfective Maintenance D) Preventive Maintenance

A) Adaptive Maintenance

74
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Effective software project management focuses on the four P's. What are those four P's? A) Product, Performance, Pricing and Problem B) People, Product, Process and Project C) Project, Pricing, People and Product D) Preventive Maintenance E) None of the above

B) People, Product, Process and Project

75
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Which of the following is/are considered stakeholders in the software process? A) Customers B) End-users C) Project Managers D) All of the above

D) All of the above

76
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Complexity, conformity, portability, and invisibility are essential challenges in Software Engineering. True or False?

False

77
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One of the best strategies to reduce software project delays is to increase the size of the development teams. True or False?

False

78
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A group of 10 developers took 8 months to develop a system. Therefore, according to Brooks' Law, if we had allocated an additional 10 developers, each with the same level of proficiency as the initial team, the development would have been completed in 4 months. True or False?

False

79
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In 2015, it was discovered that millions of cars manufactured by a major automobile company emitted pollutants within legal standards only during laboratory tests. Under normal driving conditions, the cars released higher levels of pollutants to enhance performance. What would you do if your manager asked you to write an if statement like this one? A) I would follow my manager's orders, since they are responsible for business decisions, not me B) I would write the code as instructed but document that it behaves differently under test conditions C) I would refuse to write the code because it is unethical and potentially illegal to deceive regulators and customers D) I would discuss my concerns with my manager and, if necessary, report the issue to higher management or appropriate authorities

C) I would refuse to write the code because it is unethical and potentially illegal to deceive regulators and customers, D) I would discuss my concerns with my manager and, if necessary, report the issue to higher management or appropriate authorities