August 2025

You are called one hot summer day to see a group of horses in New Mexico which are slobbering and not eating their hay. Three out of 20 horses seem to be visibly affected. On physical exam of the first one, you find fever of 104 F (40 C) and obvious oral ulcers as shown in the image, mainly on the tongue. What is your tentative diagnosis?

1. Bovine papular stomatitis

2. African Horse Sickness

3. Foot-and-Mouth disease (FMD)

4. Glanders

5. Vesicular stomatitis

  Vesicular stomatitis

Several 16 to 20 month old Holstein dairy heifers who have been out in pasture have developed large areas of skin sloughing, which appears to affect mainly the white unpigmented areas (see photo). Based on this observation, what is the best diagnosis?

1. Malignant catarrhal fever, skin form

2. Insect hypersensitivity

3. Ordinary sunburn

4. Allergic dermatitis

5. Photosensitization

  Photosensitization

Many chickens on a poultry farm are affected by one of two syndromes. Some chicken develop nodules and scabs that are most prominent on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Other chickens develop a diphtheritic membrane in the mouth and pharynx. What is the best treatment for this flock?

1. Control tick populations and vaccinate all healthy chickens twice, two weeks apart

2. Control insect populations and treat all chickens in the flock with chlortetracycline added to the water

3. Improve ventilation and treat all chickens in the flock with mycostatin in the drinking water for 3 days

4. Remove, kill and incinerate all affected birds, no vaccine or antibiotic is effective against this disease

5. Control tick populations and treat all chickens in the flock with sulfadimethoxine added to the water

6. Control mosquito populations and vaccinate chicks or replacement chickens with a single immunization against the suspected disease

  Control mosquito populations and vaccinate chicks or replacement chickens with a single immunization against the suspected disease

Which of these are used in the minor cross match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog?

1. Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma

2. Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma

3. Donor red blood cells, donor plasma

4. Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma

Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma

Which of these nerve blocks is used to examine the eyes of a horse?

1. Corneal nerve block

2. Auriculopalpebral nerve block

3. Oculomotor nerve block

4. Trigeminal nerve block

  Auriculopalpebral nerve block

A horse presents to you with a corneal ulcer. You are concerned because it appears to be infected, as shown in this image. You perform cytology and find gram negative rods. What is the most likely organism infecting the corneal ulcer in this horse?

1. Pasteurella multocida

2. E. coli

3. Pseudomonas

4. Staphylococcus spp.

  Pseudomonas

A 10-year old male castrated cat that you have previously diagnosed with hyperthyroidism presents to you for acute onset of blindness. You perform an ophthalmic exam and note retinal hemorrhage. What diagnostic test should you perform first?

1. Free T4 levels by equilibrium dialysis

2. Blood pressure

3. Coagulation times

4. Total T4 levels

5. Serum BUN and creatinine

Blood pressure

A 7-year old female Lhasa Apso presents to you for lethargy and inappetence. On your exam, you detect mandibular lymphadenopathy and perform a fine needle aspirate. You see the aspirate depicted here. Which of these treatments would be given to this patient as part of a first line therapy?

1. Milbemycin

2. Itraconazole

3. Doxycycline

4. Prednisone

5. Carboplatin

  Prednisone

Which of these is an adrenergic vasopressor in dogs?

1. Hydralazine

2. Glycopyrrolate

3. Atropine

4. Dopamine

Dopamine

The cat in the image below presents for lethargy, depression, and weakness. The cat can't seem to lift his head (as seen in this image). You recommend running a chemistry panel on the cat. What potential finding explains can explain the findings?

1. Low potassium

2. High glucose

3. Low calcium

4. Low phosphorus

5. High urea nitrogen

Low potassium

A 6-year old Friesian cow presents to you with a mass on the left mandible (see image). The farmer reports that the mass has developed over the last several weeks and the cow has recently had some difficulty eating and lost weight. On examination, the mass is firm, immobile, and painful on manipulation. You note a thick discharge with small granular particles. Based on the most likely diagnosis, what should you tell the farmer?

1. Treatment is unlikely to be successful and the cow should be culled

2. The most effective treatment is oral sodium iodide

3. Treatment with sodium iodide intravenously is likely curative but the cow's milk and meat will not be suitable for human consumption for 120 days

4. Intravenous penicillins are likely to be effective

Treatment is unlikely to be successful and the cow should be culled

What is the most common neoplasia seen in the equine stomach?

1. Squamous cell carcinoma

2. Gastric adenocarcinoma

3. Mesothelioma

4. Lymphosarcoma

  Squamous cell carcinoma

An owner brings her 4-year old female Labrador Retriever to your clinic because she believes she might be pregnant. She does not remember when the dog's last heat cycle was. The dog's abdomen appears fairly distended and you take a lateral abdominal radiograph which is shown below. What would be the earliest time you would expect to be able to see fetal skeletons on abdominal radiographs in the dog?

1. 53 days gestation

2. 33 days gestation

3. 43 days gestation

4. 23 days gestation

43 days gestation

A 7-year old male intact Chesapeake Bay Retriever presents to your clinic with the presenting complaint of an intermittent cough. On exam, the dog is bright and alert with a temperature of 100.5F (38.1 C), heart rate of 110 beats per minute and respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. You perform chest radiographs which are shown below. A CBC shows a hematocrit of 39% (35-57%), neutrophil count of 8,659/ul (2,900-12,000/ul), monocyte count of 984/ul (100-1,400/ul) and eosinophil count of 1,980/ul (0-1,300/ul). What is the treatment of choice for the most likely diagnosis?

1. Pericardiocentesis

2. Furosemide

3. Enrofloxacin

4. Terbutaline

5. Immiticide (Melarsomine)

Immiticide (Melarsomine)

Which of these drugs has the greatest potential for causing acute renal failure in the horse?

1. Oxytetracycline

2. Xylazine

3. Neomycin

4. Diphenhydramine

5. Dexamethasone

Neomycin

A middle aged MN stray cat is left on the doorstep of your clinic. The cat has a large dry crusted area of alopecia over his nose. A skin scraping of the area is negative. The lesion fluoresces under Wood's lamp examination (see image). Which of the following would be the best treatment?

1. Athlete's foot cream (clotrimazole)

2. Full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole

3. Povidone-iodine scrub

4. Lufenuron

5. Doxycycline

  Full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole

You are asked to perform a necropsy on a 17-year old Standardbred mare on a large horse ranch. Although not related to the cause of death, you notice the parasite shown in the image within the stomach. You tell the owner that this parasite is also responsible for the eggs that he sees seasonally on the hair of the front legs of his horses. The owner asks what should be done about this. You discuss the importance of promptly cleaning up feces and transporting feces away. In addition, which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for ongoing control of this parasite?

1. Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the fall

2. Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the winter

3. Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early summer and again in late summer

4. There is no need to treat these parasites because they are not associated with disease in horses

5. Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall

  Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall

A 6-year old West Highland White Terrier comes in to see you for the mucopurulent ocular discharge as seen in the photo below. A Schirmer tear test shows no tear production. What is the treatment of choice for chronic canine keratoconjunctivitis sicca?

1. Systemic antibiotics and corticosteroids

2. Systemic cyclosporine and antibiotics

3. Topical cyclosporine and systemic corticosteroids

4. Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid

Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid  

A client brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. He wants to know what to treat his cattle with and when.

1. Ivermectin in early fall

2. Ivermectin in February

3. Moxidectin now, in spring

4. Organophosphates in summer

5. Thiabendazole in early fall

  Ivermectin in early fall

A 1.5-year old Quarter Horse gelding is presented to you for symmetric ataxia, weakness, and spasticity of all limbs, but worse in the hind limbs. When walking, the horse frequently drags his toes and the hind limbs frequently interfere with one another. Based on the signalment, history and physical examination findings, which of the following is the most likely cause of these clinical signs?

1. Botulism

2. Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM)

3. Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)

4. Equine Motor Neuron Disease (EMND)

5. Cauda Equina Syndrome

  Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM)

Suzie-Q, a 6-month old female spayed domestic short hair was recently adopted from the humane society. She has had watery diarrhea since adoption. Her fecal float and Giardia ELISA tests were negative. She was treated with metronidazole with no clinical improvement. You soak a cotton tip swab with saline and swab the rectum. You see elongated motile oval shaped protozoan organisms that do not look like Giardia lamblia. What organism might this be and what is the appropriate therapy?

1. Taenia taeniaformis, Praziquantel

2. Cryptosporidium, Clindamycin

3. Paragonimus kellicotti, Praziquantel

4. Giardia intestinalis, Fenbendazole

5. Tritrichomonas foetus, Ronidazole

6. Enterobius vermicularis, Fenbendazole

Tritrichomonas foetus, Ronidazole