pohc II exam 1

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Last updated 5:01 AM on 2/3/26
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55 Terms

1
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How does fluoride contribute to enamel strength at the molecular level?

It forms fluorapatite, which is more acid-resistant than hydroxyapatite.

2
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Besides strengthening enamel, what are the two other primary mechanisms by which fluoride prevents caries?

Enhancing remineralization and inhibiting bacterial metabolism.

3
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At what stage of tooth development is systemic fluoride incorporated into teeth?

Pre-eruption (during development).

4
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Which mode of fluoride delivery is considered the most important for continuous caries prevention after teeth have erupted?

Topical fluoride.

5
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What is the most economical method of fluoride delivery for a large population?

Community water fluoridation.

6
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What is a primary advantage of water fluoridation over methods like supplements or professional treatments?

It requires no patient compliance.

7
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Under what condition does fluoride overexposure cause dental fluorosis?

Systemic overexposure while teeth are still unerupted.

8
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What are the common professional topical fluoride application formats found in dental offices?

Varnish, foam, and gel.

9
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Why is topical fluoride particularly indicated for patients with xerostomia?

Dry mouth increases caries risk, and fluoride aids in remineralization.

10
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How does topical fluoride benefit patients with exposed root surfaces?

It helps desensitize the root surfaces.

11
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Why is Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride (APF) contraindicated for patients with composite or porcelain restorations?

The acid in APF can etch or damage the surface of esthetic materials.

12
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Which type of professional fluoride is recommended for patients with esthetic restorations like glass ceramics?

Neutral sodium fluoride.

13
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What is the safety status of fluoride intake for fetal development during pregnancy?

Maternal fluoride intake does not harm fetal development.

14
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What is the typical concentration of fluoride in human breast milk?

0.02ppm

15
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What is the recommended amount of fluoride toothpaste for a child under the age of 3?

A smear or rice-sized amount.

16
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What is the recommended amount of fluoride toothpaste for a child between 3 and 6 years old?

A pea-sized amount.

17
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According to the pediatric supplement schedule, what is the daily dose for a 5-year-old child in an area with <0.3 ppm fluoride?

0.5 mg

18
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According to the pediatric supplement schedule, what is the daily dose for a $10$-year-old child in an area with $0.4$ ppm fluoride?

$0.5$ mg

19
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According to the pediatric supplement schedule, what is the daily dose for a child of any age in an area with $>0.6$ ppm fluoride?

$0$ mg

20
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Which topical fluoride product is known for its antimicrobial properties but may cause staining on restorations?

Stannous fluoride (SnF₂)

21
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Which fluoride delivery system is considered the safest and most effective for children due to its high concentration and adherence?

Fluoride varnish.

22
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What is the primary purpose of dental sealants?

To act as a physical barrier preventing bacteria and food from entering pits and fissures.

23
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Which teeth benefit the most from the early placement of sealants?

Newly erupted molars.

24
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How do unfilled sealants differ from filled sealants in terms of clinical performance?

Unfilled sealants offer better penetration into pits but have lower wear resistance.

25
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Why might a clinician need to check the occlusion of a filled sealant more carefully than an unfilled one?

Filled sealants are more durable and may require occlusal adjustment if overfilled.

26
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What is the purpose of using isolation (e.g., cotton rolls or rubber dams) during sealant placement?

To prevent saliva contamination, which interferes with the bond.

27
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What type and concentration of acid is typically used for tooth conditioning before sealant placement?

37% phosphoric acid.

28
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What is the specific visual indicator that a tooth has been successfully etched and dried for a sealant?

A chalky or matte white appearance.

29
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What is the primary advantage of light-cured (photopolymerized) sealants over self-cured systems?

They provide a controlled working time.

30
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After curing a sealant, what tool should be used to check for voids or soft areas?

An explorer.

31
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What should the clinician use to check for high spots or occlusal interference after sealant placement?

Articulation paper.

32
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Why is flossing the interproximal spaces necessary after sealant placement?

To check for and remove any sealant overhangs.

33
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In what clinical scenario are sealants contraindicated for a fully erupted tooth?

When there are existing caries or no deep pits and fissures.

34
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What is a major limitation of prophylaxis polishing pastes regarding oral health?

They are purely aesthetic and do not prevent caries or periodontal disease.

35
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What is the role of humectants in prophylaxis polishing pastes?

To prevent the paste from drying out.

36
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What is the general rule for selecting the grit of a polishing agent?

Always use the least abrasive paste necessary for the task.

37
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Which air-powder polishing material is safest for subgingival biofilm removal?

Glycine.

38
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Why is sodium bicarbonate air-powder contraindicated for patients with uncontrolled diabetes?

Because of its salt content.

39
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Which air-powder material has a Mohs hardness that makes it unsafe for use on teeth or restorative materials?

Calcium sodium phosphosilicate (Novamin).

40
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What was the first material used for air-powder polishing, characterized by a Mohs hardness of $4$?

Aluminum trihydroxide.

41
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Why should clinicians avoid air-powder polishing on patients with sodium-restricted diets, such as those on diuretics?

Risk of sodium absorption from certain powders (like sodium bicarbonate).

42
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Why is respiratory disease (e.g., asthma or COPD) a contraindication for air-powder polishing?

Risk of inhaling aerosols produced during the procedure.

43
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On which restorative materials is air-powder polishing generally considered unsafe?

Porcelain, gold, and some ceramics.

44
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What is the primary purpose of power-driven (ultrasonic) scaling?

To efficiently remove calculus and biofilm.

45
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What are the three common stroke patterns used during ultrasonic scaling?

Vertical, horizontal, and oblique.

46
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What technique prevents the ultrasonic scaling tip from overheating and damaging the tooth?

Maintaining adequate water flow and keeping the tip moving.

47
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What level of pressure should be applied when using an ultrasonic scaler?

Light pressure.

48
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What is the recommended daily fluoride supplement for a $2$-year-old child living in an area with $<0.3$ ppm fluoride?

$0.25$ mg

49
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In sealant tooth preparation, what must be removed before etching?

Debris and calculus.

50
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How long should the tooth be dried after rinsing the etch during a sealant procedure?

$20-30$ seconds.

51
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What is the specific safety requirement for both the patient and clinician when using a curing light?

UV eye protection.

52
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Which air-powder agent is described as gentle and suitable for subgingival biofilm removal similar to glycine?

Erythritol.

53
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How long must a clinician wait for a self-cured sealant to fully polymerize?

$20-30$ seconds.

54
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What visual cue indicates a successful outcome after ultrasonic scaling?

A clean tooth surface and smooth root surface.

55
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Why is renal disease considered a precaution for air-powder polishing?

The body may struggle to process the bicarbonate or other minerals absorbed.