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Phlebotomy skills would not include
a. Organization
b. Handling patient correspondence
c. Interpersonal skills
d. Being able to handle stress
b. Handling patient correspondence
The monitoring system for institutions that train phlebotomists is known as
a. Certification
b. Accreditation
c. Licensure
d. CEUs
b. Accreditation
Once phlebotomists are certidied continuing education programs allow them to earn
a. CEUs
b. Licensing points
c. Accreditation
d. A degree
a. CEUs
Informed consent means
a. Patients must ask their doctors if they can have their blood drawn
b. Patients waive their rights
c. Patients must be informed of intended treatments and their risks before they are performed
d. The phlebotomist may draw a patient's blood without the patients permission
c. Patients must be informed of intended treatments and their risks before they are performed
Which is not required personal characteristic of a professional phlebotomist
a. Dependability
b. Honesty
c. Compassion
d. Sense of humor
d. Sense of humor
When a patient in the hospital refuses to have blood drawn the phlebotomist should
a. Persuade the patient to comply
b. Perform the phlebotomy
c. Notify a family member
d. Notify the patients nurse to ensure that the physician or other ordering practitioner is notified promptly
d. Notify the patients nurse to ensure that the physician or other ordering practitioner is notified promptly
Fiscal services is responsible for
a. Cleaning and maintenance
b. Performing tests
c. Diagnosis and treatment of the patient
d. Admitting, medical records, and billing
d. Admitting, medical records, and billing
In addition to the laboratory, the following department may draw arterial blood gases:
a. Physical therapy
b. Occupational therapy
c. Respiratory therapy
d. Radiology
c. Respiratory therapy
The following department uses radioisotopes to perform tests:
a. Respiratory therapy
b. Cytogenetics
c. Nuclear medicine
d. Hematology
c. Nuclear medicine
The clinical laboratory is under the direction of a
a. Pathologist
b. Phlebotomist
c. Pharmacist
d. Medical assistant
a. Pathologist
A sample of blood from a patient with HIV is likely to be analyzed using
a. Chemistry
b. Urinalysis
c. Serology
d. Hematology
C. Serology
A CBC is performed in the _____ department
a. Chemistry
b. Urinalysis
c. Serology
d. Hematology
d. Hematology
APTT testing monitors
a. Chemotherapy
b. Physical therapy
c. Heparin therapy
d. Warfarin therapy
c. Heparin therapy
The type of chemistry test associated with drug analysis is known as
a. Immunology
b. Cardiology
c. Toxicology
d. Electrophoresis
c. Toxicology
The following department identifies pathogenic microorganisms in patient samples:
a. Virology
b. Microbiology
c. Mycology
d. Parasitology
b. Microbiology
A C&S test is analyzed in ______ department
a. Urinalysis
b. Hematology
c. Microbiology
d. Chemistry
c. Microbiology
Occult blood testing is performed on
a. Plasma
b. Feces
c. Serum
d. Cerebrospinal fluid
b. Feces
When patients donate their blood for use during their own surgery, this is known as
a. Autologous donation
b. Platelet donation
c. Cryoprecipitate donation
d. Fresh frozen plasma donation
a. Autologous donation
Independent labs that analyze samples from other health care facilities are known as
a. Physician office labs
b. Urgent care centers
c. Reference labs
d. Waived labs
c. Reference labs
OSHA stands for
a. Occupational Standards in Health Associations
b. Outline of Safety Hazards and Accidents
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d. Occupational Standards and Health Administration
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
When mixing acids and water you should
a. add acid to water
b. Add water to acid
c. Never mix acids and water together
d. Add equal amounts in an empty container
a. add acid to water
Chemicals should
a. Be stored above eye level
b. Be labeled properly
c. Be cleaned up using soap and water
d. Be disposed of in the sink
b. Be labeled properly
The first action to take in the event of fire is to
a. Call the fire department
b. Close all the windows and doors
c. Remove patients from danger
d. Pull the fire alarm
c. Remove patients from danger
In the event of electric shock the first thing you should do is
a. Call 911
b. Attempt to turn off the electrical equipment
c. Break contact between the source and the victim
d. Start CPR
b. Attempt to turn off the electrical equipment
Class C fires involve
a. Wood
b. Grease or oil
c. Flammable materials
d. Electrical equipment
d. Electrical equipment
Which of the following does the NFPA symbol not warn about?
a. Protective equipment
b. Fire
c. Chemical stability
d. Health
a. Protective equipment
The first thing to do when giving breathing aid to a victim is
a. Clear the airway
b. Place the victim on a firm flat surface
c. Begin mouth to mouth ventilation
d. Determine whether the victim is conscious
d. Determine whether the victim is conscious
Safety equipment in the lab may include
a. Personal protective equipment
b. An emergency shower
c. An eyewash station
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
An MSDS provides information on
a. Sharps
b. Patients
c. Chemicals
d. Office procedures
c. Chemicals
Reaction to latex products may include
a. Irritant contact dermatitis
b. Allergic contact dermatitis
c. Anaphylaxis
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The yellow diamond in the NFPA label indicates
a. Health hazards
b. Flammability
c. Re-activity warning
d. Other
c. Re-activity warning
Which of the following would not be considered a pathogen?
a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Fungi
d. Vectors
d. Vectors
Varicella-zoster is the cause of
a. Syphilis
b. Chickenpox
c. Malaria
d. Hepatitis
b. Chickenpox
HIV is the causative agent of
a. Gonorrhea
b. Food poisoning
c. AIDS
d. Hepatitis B
c. AIDS
Vectors include
a. Doorknobs
b. Medical instruments
c. Needles
d. Insects
d. Insects
Some types of E. coli are normal flora of the
a. Urinary tract
b. Respiratory tract
c. Colon
d. Circulatory system
c. Colon
The most important way to stop the spread of infection is through
a. Isolation procedures
b. Standard precautions
c. Hand hygiene
d. PPE
c. Hand hygiene
In putting on PPE, the first article that is put on is the
a. Mask
b. Face shield
c. Gown
d. Pair of gloves
c. Gown
Which of the following is not and OSHA standard?
a. All biohazard material must be labeled
b. Employees must practice standard precautions
c. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the workplace
d. Employers must provide immunization against Hepatitis B virus free of charge
c. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the workplace
While standard precautions apply to all potentially infectious situations EPs are chosen based on
a. Whether isolation is employed
b. The potential means of transmission of the disease or condition
c. Airborne transmission
d. The risk to the health care worker from accidental needle sticks
b. The potential means of transmission of the disease or condition
Ten percent bleach used as a cleaning agent should be made fresh every
a. Week
b. 3 hours
c. Day
d. 6 hours
c. Day
The continuous links in the chain of infection are in order
a. Means of transmission, susceptible host, and source
b. Source, means of transmission, and susceptible host
c. Susceptible host, source, and means of transmission
d. None of the above
b. Source, means of transmission, and susceptible host
The purpose of a PE for highly immunosuppressed patients is to
a. Prevent transmission of infection to the patient
b. Protect the public from disease
c. Prevent transmission of infection from the patient
d. Protect the patient from spores in the environment
a. Prevent transmission of infection to the patient
Hepato refers to
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Heart
d. Blood
a. Liver
Cyan- refers to
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Black
d. Blue
d. Blue
Hemi- means
a. Many
b. Half
c. Whole
d. Two
b. Half
-tomy means
a. Study of
b. To cut
c. Shape or form
d. Opening
b. To cut
Anti- means
a. Between
b. Among
c. Against
d. For
c. Against
Leuko- refers to
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. White
d. White
-emia means
a. Blood condition
b. Tumor
c. Opening
d. Paralysis
a. Blood condition
Pulmon refers to
a. Liver
b. Lung
c. Colon
d. Heart
b. Lung
Thromb refers to
a. Hemolysis
b. Clotting
c. Lymphostasis
d. Tumor
b. Clotting
Derm refers to
a. Death
b. Bone
c. Skin
d. Blood
c. Skin
The term to define the overall well-being of the body is
a. Hemolysis
b. Hemostasis
c. Homeostasis
d. Hematopoiesis
c. Homeostasis
The functional unit of the nervous systems is
a. Nephron
b. Neuron
c. Neoplasm
d. Nucleus
b. Neuron
ATP is found in which part of the cell?
a. Mitochondria
b. Cytoplasm
c. Nucleus
d. Plasma membrane
a. Mitochondria
Which type of muscle tissue is involved in hemostasis?
a. Skeletal
b. Smooth
c. Epithelial
d. Striated
b. Smooth
Blood is considered to be which type of tissue?
a. Nerve
b. Connective
c. Muscle
d. Epithelial
b. Connective
In which system does hematopoiesis occur?
a. Skeletal
b. Nervous
c. Muscular
d. Digestive
a. Skeletal
Which is not a lab test that assesses for muscle disorders?
a. AST
b. Troponin
c. C & S
d. Myoglobin
c. C & S
Which is not a lab test that assesses for disorders of the integumentary system?
a. C & S
b. KOH prep
c. BUN
d. Ovaries
c. BUN
Hepatitus involves the
a. Heart
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Ovaries
b. Liver
Which lab test is not useful in the assessment of liver problems?
a. AST
b. GGT
c. ALP
d. All are important
d. All are important
_________ promotes the breakdown of glycogen back to glucose
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Thymosin
d. Calcitonin
b. Glucagon
Pancreatitis can be screened for by performing which lab test?
a. Amylase
b. CSF
c. Myoglobin
d. Occult blood
a. Amylase
The functional unit of the kidney is known as the
a. Neuron
b. Medulla
c. Thalamus
d. Nephron
d. Nephron
Microbiology may perform the following lab test for urologic disorders:
a. BUN
b. PPD
c. C&S
d. FBS
c. C&S
ABGs typically test for
a. Digestive disorders
b. Urinary disorders
c. Respiratory disorders
d. Muscular disorders
c. Respiratory disorders
The hormone that regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the circulation is
a. Insulin
b. Thymosin
c. Oxytocin
d. Parathyroid hormone
d. Parathyroid hormone
Which hormone regulates water reabsorption by the kidney?
a. ACTH
b. TSH
c. ADH
d. MSH
c. ADH
The hormones that can be detected by early pregnancy tests is
a. HCG
b. ADH
c. GH
d. MSH
a. HCG
Thyroxine is otherwise known as
a. T3
b. T4
c. TSH
d. T1
b. T4
Hormones are produced by which body system?
a. Integumentary
b. Endocrine
c. Digestive
d. Respiratory
b. Endocrine
In the circulatory system gas exchange occurs in the
a. Capillaries
b. Veins
c. Arteries
d. Venules
a. Capillaries
Which blood vessels are a single cell in thickness?
a. Capillaries
b. Veins
c. Arteries
d. Arterioles
a. Capillaries
Veins and arteries are composed of how many layers?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
c. 3
A characteristic of arteries is
a. That they are composed of a single layer of endothelial cells
b. That have a thick muscle layer lining the lumen
c. The have valves along the lumen
d. They carry blood toward the heart
b. That have a thick muscle layer lining the lumen
An average adult has _______L of blood
a. 1 to 2
b. 7 to 8
c. 3 to 4
d. 5 to 6
d. 5 to 6
Plasma constitutes _______% of total blood volume
a. 80
b. 92
c. 55
d. 45
c. 55
Another name for WBC is
a. Leukocyte
b. Reticulocyte
c. Erythrocyte
d. Electrolyte
a. Leukocyte
The main function of leukocytes is to
a. Transport hemoglobin
b. Transport lipids
c. Protect the body against infection
d. Recycle RBCs
c. Protect the body against infection
Which leukocyte is known as a phagocyte?
a. Lymphocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
b. Neutrophil
Platelets remain in the circulation for
a. 2 to 5 days
b. 9 to 12 days
c. 10 to 20 days
d. 1 month
b. 9 to 12 days
Which cellular component is responsible for the transport of hemoglobin?
a. WBCs
b. RBCs
c. Electrolytes
d. Plasma
b. RBCs
Which lab test does not assist in diagnosing HIV infection?
a. Western blot
b. T-cell count
c. APTT
d. Anti-HIV antibody
c. APTT
A group of inherited disorders marked by increased bleeding times is known as
a. Anemias
b. Leukemias
c. Polycythemias
d. Hemophilias
d. Hemophilias
Which organ is not included in the tympanic system?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Tonsils
a. Liver
Helper T-cells are needed to make
a. Antigens
b. Antibodies
c. Cytokines
d. Interleukins
b. Antibodies
Which of the following is not an anti-coagulant?
a. Polymer gel
b. Sodium heparin
c. Sodium citrate
d. EDTA
a. Polymer gel
The most common antiseptic used in routine venipuncture is
a. Povidone-iodine solution
b. Bleach
c. Isopropyl alcohol
d. Chlorhexidine gluconate
c. Isopropyl alcohol
How many times may a needle be used before discarding it?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. No limit
a. 1
Which of the following indicates the largest-sized needle?
a. 20 gauge
b. 23 gauge
c. 16 gauge
d. 21 gauge
c. 16 gauge
Complete clotting of a blood sample in a SST (gold or red-gray) tube takes _________ minutes at room temperature
a. 10
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60
b. 30
Serum contains
a. Fibrinogen
b. Clotting factors
c. Plasma
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
Which color coded tube does not contain any additives?
a. Red, plastic tube
b. Red, glass tube
c. Gold BD Hemogard Closure
d. Royal blue
b. Red, glass tube
EDTA prevents coagulation in blood tubes by
a. Inactivating thrombin
b. Binding calcium
c. Inactivating thromboplastin
d. Inhibiting glycolysis
b. Binding calcium
Tubes with gray tops may contain
a. Sedimentation rate tests
b. Glucose tolerance tests
c. Coagulation studies
d. CBC
b. Glucose tolerance tests
Tubes with green tops may contain
a. Sodium citrate
b. Sodium heparin
c. Sodium oxalate
d. Sodium phosphate
b. Sodium heparin
The smaller the gauge number the
a. Larger the lumen diameter
b. Longer the needle
c. Shorter the needle
d. Smaller the lumen diameter
a. Larger the lumen
The syringe method of draw is useful because
a. It allows for control of blood flow
b. It shows the appearance of blood at the hub
c. It allow greater flexibility and less bulk
d. Both A and B above
d. Both A and B above