Plebotomy Certification Practice Exam Questions

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242 Terms

1
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Phlebotomy skills would not include

a. Organization

b. Handling patient correspondence

c. Interpersonal skills

d. Being able to handle stress

b. Handling patient correspondence

2
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The monitoring system for institutions that train phlebotomists is known as

a. Certification

b. Accreditation

c. Licensure

d. CEUs

b. Accreditation

3
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Once phlebotomists are certidied continuing education programs allow them to earn

a. CEUs

b. Licensing points

c. Accreditation

d. A degree

a. CEUs

4
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Informed consent means

a. Patients must ask their doctors if they can have their blood drawn

b. Patients waive their rights

c. Patients must be informed of intended treatments and their risks before they are performed

d. The phlebotomist may draw a patient's blood without the patients permission

c. Patients must be informed of intended treatments and their risks before they are performed

5
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Which is not required personal characteristic of a professional phlebotomist

a. Dependability

b. Honesty

c. Compassion

d. Sense of humor

d. Sense of humor

6
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When a patient in the hospital refuses to have blood drawn the phlebotomist should

a. Persuade the patient to comply

b. Perform the phlebotomy

c. Notify a family member

d. Notify the patients nurse to ensure that the physician or other ordering practitioner is notified promptly

d. Notify the patients nurse to ensure that the physician or other ordering practitioner is notified promptly

7
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Fiscal services is responsible for

a. Cleaning and maintenance

b. Performing tests

c. Diagnosis and treatment of the patient

d. Admitting, medical records, and billing

d. Admitting, medical records, and billing

8
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In addition to the laboratory, the following department may draw arterial blood gases:

a. Physical therapy

b. Occupational therapy

c. Respiratory therapy

d. Radiology

c. Respiratory therapy

9
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The following department uses radioisotopes to perform tests:

a. Respiratory therapy

b. Cytogenetics

c. Nuclear medicine

d. Hematology

c. Nuclear medicine

10
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The clinical laboratory is under the direction of a

a. Pathologist

b. Phlebotomist

c. Pharmacist

d. Medical assistant

a. Pathologist

11
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A sample of blood from a patient with HIV is likely to be analyzed using

a. Chemistry

b. Urinalysis

c. Serology

d. Hematology

C. Serology

12
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A CBC is performed in the _____ department

a. Chemistry

b. Urinalysis

c. Serology

d. Hematology

d. Hematology

13
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APTT testing monitors

a. Chemotherapy

b. Physical therapy

c. Heparin therapy

d. Warfarin therapy

c. Heparin therapy

14
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The type of chemistry test associated with drug analysis is known as

a. Immunology

b. Cardiology

c. Toxicology

d. Electrophoresis

c. Toxicology

15
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The following department identifies pathogenic microorganisms in patient samples:

a. Virology

b. Microbiology

c. Mycology

d. Parasitology

b. Microbiology

16
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A C&S test is analyzed in ______ department

a. Urinalysis

b. Hematology

c. Microbiology

d. Chemistry

c. Microbiology

17
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Occult blood testing is performed on

a. Plasma

b. Feces

c. Serum

d. Cerebrospinal fluid

b. Feces

18
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When patients donate their blood for use during their own surgery, this is known as

a. Autologous donation

b. Platelet donation

c. Cryoprecipitate donation

d. Fresh frozen plasma donation

a. Autologous donation

19
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Independent labs that analyze samples from other health care facilities are known as

a. Physician office labs

b. Urgent care centers

c. Reference labs

d. Waived labs

c. Reference labs

20
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OSHA stands for

a. Occupational Standards in Health Associations

b. Outline of Safety Hazards and Accidents

c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

d. Occupational Standards and Health Administration

c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

21
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When mixing acids and water you should

a. add acid to water

b. Add water to acid

c. Never mix acids and water together

d. Add equal amounts in an empty container

a. add acid to water

22
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Chemicals should

a. Be stored above eye level

b. Be labeled properly

c. Be cleaned up using soap and water

d. Be disposed of in the sink

b. Be labeled properly

23
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The first action to take in the event of fire is to

a. Call the fire department

b. Close all the windows and doors

c. Remove patients from danger

d. Pull the fire alarm

c. Remove patients from danger

24
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In the event of electric shock the first thing you should do is

a. Call 911

b. Attempt to turn off the electrical equipment

c. Break contact between the source and the victim

d. Start CPR

b. Attempt to turn off the electrical equipment

25
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Class C fires involve

a. Wood

b. Grease or oil

c. Flammable materials

d. Electrical equipment

d. Electrical equipment

26
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Which of the following does the NFPA symbol not warn about?

a. Protective equipment

b. Fire

c. Chemical stability

d. Health

a. Protective equipment

27
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The first thing to do when giving breathing aid to a victim is

a. Clear the airway

b. Place the victim on a firm flat surface

c. Begin mouth to mouth ventilation

d. Determine whether the victim is conscious

d. Determine whether the victim is conscious

28
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Safety equipment in the lab may include

a. Personal protective equipment

b. An emergency shower

c. An eyewash station

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

29
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An MSDS provides information on

a. Sharps

b. Patients

c. Chemicals

d. Office procedures

c. Chemicals

30
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Reaction to latex products may include

a. Irritant contact dermatitis

b. Allergic contact dermatitis

c. Anaphylaxis

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

31
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The yellow diamond in the NFPA label indicates

a. Health hazards

b. Flammability

c. Re-activity warning

d. Other

c. Re-activity warning

32
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Which of the following would not be considered a pathogen?

a. Bacteria

b. Viruses

c. Fungi

d. Vectors

d. Vectors

33
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Varicella-zoster is the cause of

a. Syphilis

b. Chickenpox

c. Malaria

d. Hepatitis

b. Chickenpox

34
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HIV is the causative agent of

a. Gonorrhea

b. Food poisoning

c. AIDS

d. Hepatitis B

c. AIDS

35
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Vectors include

a. Doorknobs

b. Medical instruments

c. Needles

d. Insects

d. Insects

36
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Some types of E. coli are normal flora of the

a. Urinary tract

b. Respiratory tract

c. Colon

d. Circulatory system

c. Colon

37
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The most important way to stop the spread of infection is through

a. Isolation procedures

b. Standard precautions

c. Hand hygiene

d. PPE

c. Hand hygiene

38
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In putting on PPE, the first article that is put on is the

a. Mask

b. Face shield

c. Gown

d. Pair of gloves

c. Gown

39
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Which of the following is not and OSHA standard?

a. All biohazard material must be labeled

b. Employees must practice standard precautions

c. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the workplace

d. Employers must provide immunization against Hepatitis B virus free of charge

c. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the workplace

40
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While standard precautions apply to all potentially infectious situations EPs are chosen based on

a. Whether isolation is employed

b. The potential means of transmission of the disease or condition

c. Airborne transmission

d. The risk to the health care worker from accidental needle sticks

b. The potential means of transmission of the disease or condition

41
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Ten percent bleach used as a cleaning agent should be made fresh every

a. Week

b. 3 hours

c. Day

d. 6 hours

c. Day

42
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The continuous links in the chain of infection are in order

a. Means of transmission, susceptible host, and source

b. Source, means of transmission, and susceptible host

c. Susceptible host, source, and means of transmission

d. None of the above

b. Source, means of transmission, and susceptible host

43
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The purpose of a PE for highly immunosuppressed patients is to

a. Prevent transmission of infection to the patient

b. Protect the public from disease

c. Prevent transmission of infection from the patient

d. Protect the patient from spores in the environment

a. Prevent transmission of infection to the patient

44
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Hepato refers to

a. Liver

b. Kidney

c. Heart

d. Blood

a. Liver

45
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Cyan- refers to

a. Red

b. Yellow

c. Black

d. Blue

d. Blue

46
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Hemi- means

a. Many

b. Half

c. Whole

d. Two

b. Half

47
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-tomy means

a. Study of

b. To cut

c. Shape or form

d. Opening

b. To cut

48
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Anti- means

a. Between

b. Among

c. Against

d. For

c. Against

49
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Leuko- refers to

a. Red

b. Yellow

c. Blue

d. White

d. White

50
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-emia means

a. Blood condition

b. Tumor

c. Opening

d. Paralysis

a. Blood condition

51
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Pulmon refers to

a. Liver

b. Lung

c. Colon

d. Heart

b. Lung

52
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Thromb refers to

a. Hemolysis

b. Clotting

c. Lymphostasis

d. Tumor

b. Clotting

53
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Derm refers to

a. Death

b. Bone

c. Skin

d. Blood

c. Skin

54
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The term to define the overall well-being of the body is

a. Hemolysis

b. Hemostasis

c. Homeostasis

d. Hematopoiesis

c. Homeostasis

55
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The functional unit of the nervous systems is

a. Nephron

b. Neuron

c. Neoplasm

d. Nucleus

b. Neuron

56
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ATP is found in which part of the cell?

a. Mitochondria

b. Cytoplasm

c. Nucleus

d. Plasma membrane

a. Mitochondria

57
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Which type of muscle tissue is involved in hemostasis?

a. Skeletal

b. Smooth

c. Epithelial

d. Striated

b. Smooth

58
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Blood is considered to be which type of tissue?

a. Nerve

b. Connective

c. Muscle

d. Epithelial

b. Connective

59
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In which system does hematopoiesis occur?

a. Skeletal

b. Nervous

c. Muscular

d. Digestive

a. Skeletal

60
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Which is not a lab test that assesses for muscle disorders?

a. AST

b. Troponin

c. C & S

d. Myoglobin

c. C & S

61
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Which is not a lab test that assesses for disorders of the integumentary system?

a. C & S

b. KOH prep

c. BUN

d. Ovaries

c. BUN

62
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Hepatitus involves the

a. Heart

b. Liver

c. Brain

d. Ovaries

b. Liver

63
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Which lab test is not useful in the assessment of liver problems?

a. AST

b. GGT

c. ALP

d. All are important

d. All are important

64
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_________ promotes the breakdown of glycogen back to glucose

a. Insulin

b. Glucagon

c. Thymosin

d. Calcitonin

b. Glucagon

65
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Pancreatitis can be screened for by performing which lab test?

a. Amylase

b. CSF

c. Myoglobin

d. Occult blood

a. Amylase

66
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The functional unit of the kidney is known as the

a. Neuron

b. Medulla

c. Thalamus

d. Nephron

d. Nephron

67
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Microbiology may perform the following lab test for urologic disorders:

a. BUN

b. PPD

c. C&S

d. FBS

c. C&S

68
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ABGs typically test for

a. Digestive disorders

b. Urinary disorders

c. Respiratory disorders

d. Muscular disorders

c. Respiratory disorders

69
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The hormone that regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the circulation is

a. Insulin

b. Thymosin

c. Oxytocin

d. Parathyroid hormone

d. Parathyroid hormone

70
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Which hormone regulates water reabsorption by the kidney?

a. ACTH

b. TSH

c. ADH

d. MSH

c. ADH

71
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The hormones that can be detected by early pregnancy tests is

a. HCG

b. ADH

c. GH

d. MSH

a. HCG

72
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Thyroxine is otherwise known as

a. T3

b. T4

c. TSH

d. T1

b. T4

73
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Hormones are produced by which body system?

a. Integumentary

b. Endocrine

c. Digestive

d. Respiratory

b. Endocrine

74
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In the circulatory system gas exchange occurs in the

a. Capillaries

b. Veins

c. Arteries

d. Venules

a. Capillaries

75
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Which blood vessels are a single cell in thickness?

a. Capillaries

b. Veins

c. Arteries

d. Arterioles

a. Capillaries

76
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Veins and arteries are composed of how many layers?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

c. 3

77
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A characteristic of arteries is

a. That they are composed of a single layer of endothelial cells

b. That have a thick muscle layer lining the lumen

c. The have valves along the lumen

d. They carry blood toward the heart

b. That have a thick muscle layer lining the lumen

78
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An average adult has _______L of blood

a. 1 to 2

b. 7 to 8

c. 3 to 4

d. 5 to 6

d. 5 to 6

79
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Plasma constitutes _______% of total blood volume

a. 80

b. 92

c. 55

d. 45

c. 55

80
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Another name for WBC is

a. Leukocyte

b. Reticulocyte

c. Erythrocyte

d. Electrolyte

a. Leukocyte

81
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The main function of leukocytes is to

a. Transport hemoglobin

b. Transport lipids

c. Protect the body against infection

d. Recycle RBCs

c. Protect the body against infection

82
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Which leukocyte is known as a phagocyte?

a. Lymphocyte

b. Neutrophil

c. Eosinophil

d. Basophil

b. Neutrophil

83
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Platelets remain in the circulation for

a. 2 to 5 days

b. 9 to 12 days

c. 10 to 20 days

d. 1 month

b. 9 to 12 days

84
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Which cellular component is responsible for the transport of hemoglobin?

a. WBCs

b. RBCs

c. Electrolytes

d. Plasma

b. RBCs

85
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Which lab test does not assist in diagnosing HIV infection?

a. Western blot

b. T-cell count

c. APTT

d. Anti-HIV antibody

c. APTT

86
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A group of inherited disorders marked by increased bleeding times is known as

a. Anemias

b. Leukemias

c. Polycythemias

d. Hemophilias

d. Hemophilias

87
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Which organ is not included in the tympanic system?

a. Liver

b. Spleen

c. Thymus

d. Tonsils

a. Liver

88
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Helper T-cells are needed to make

a. Antigens

b. Antibodies

c. Cytokines

d. Interleukins

b. Antibodies

89
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Which of the following is not an anti-coagulant?

a. Polymer gel

b. Sodium heparin

c. Sodium citrate

d. EDTA

a. Polymer gel

90
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The most common antiseptic used in routine venipuncture is

a. Povidone-iodine solution

b. Bleach

c. Isopropyl alcohol

d. Chlorhexidine gluconate

c. Isopropyl alcohol

91
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How many times may a needle be used before discarding it?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. No limit

a. 1

92
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Which of the following indicates the largest-sized needle?

a. 20 gauge

b. 23 gauge

c. 16 gauge

d. 21 gauge

c. 16 gauge

93
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Complete clotting of a blood sample in a SST (gold or red-gray) tube takes _________ minutes at room temperature

a. 10

b. 30

c. 45

d. 60

b. 30

94
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Serum contains

a. Fibrinogen

b. Clotting factors

c. Plasma

d. None of the above

d. None of the above

95
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Which color coded tube does not contain any additives?

a. Red, plastic tube

b. Red, glass tube

c. Gold BD Hemogard Closure

d. Royal blue

b. Red, glass tube

96
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EDTA prevents coagulation in blood tubes by

a. Inactivating thrombin

b. Binding calcium

c. Inactivating thromboplastin

d. Inhibiting glycolysis

b. Binding calcium

97
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Tubes with gray tops may contain

a. Sedimentation rate tests

b. Glucose tolerance tests

c. Coagulation studies

d. CBC

b. Glucose tolerance tests

98
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Tubes with green tops may contain

a. Sodium citrate

b. Sodium heparin

c. Sodium oxalate

d. Sodium phosphate

b. Sodium heparin

99
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The smaller the gauge number the

a. Larger the lumen diameter

b. Longer the needle

c. Shorter the needle

d. Smaller the lumen diameter

a. Larger the lumen

100
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The syringe method of draw is useful because

a. It allows for control of blood flow

b. It shows the appearance of blood at the hub

c. It allow greater flexibility and less bulk

d. Both A and B above

d. Both A and B above