WGU Course C838 - Managing Cloud Security Quizlet by Brian MacFarlane (Copy)

Which phase of the cloud data life cycle allows both read and process functions to be performed?

A Create

B Archive

C Store

D Share

A

Which phase of the cloud data security life cycle typically occurs simultaneously with creation?

A Share

B Store

C Use

D Destroy

B

Which phase of the cloud data life cycle uses content delivery networks?

A Destroy

B Archive

C Share

D Create

C

Which phase of the cloud data life cycle is associated with crypto-shredding?

A Share

B Use

C Destroy

D Store

C

Which cloud data storage architecture allows sensitive data to be replaced with unique identification symbols that retain all the essential information about the data without compromising its security?

A Randomization

B Obfuscation

C Anonymization

D Tokenization

D

Which methodology could cloud data storage utilize to encrypt all data associated in an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) deployment model?

A Sandbox encryption

B Polymorphic encryption

C Client-side encryption

D Whole-instance encryption

D

There is a threat to a banking cloud platform service. The developer needs to provide inclusion in a relational database that is seamless and readily searchable by search engine algorithms.

Which platform as a service (PaaS) data type should be used?

A Short-term storage

B Structured

C Unstructured

D Long-term storage

B

Which platform as a service (PaaS) storage architecture should be used if an organization wants to store presentations, documents, and audio files?

A Relational database

B Block

C Distributed

D Object

D

Which technique scrambles the content of data using a mathematical algorithm while keeping the structural arrangement of the data?

A Dynamic masking

B Format-preserving encryption

C Proxy-based encryption

D Tokenization

B

Which encryption technique connects the instance to the encryption instance that handles all crypto operations?

A Database

B Proxy

C Externally managed

D Server-side

B

Which type of control should be used to implement custom controls that safeguard data?

A Public and internal sharing

B Options for access

C Management plane

D Application level

D

Which element is protected by an encryption system?

A Ciphertext

B Management engine

C Data

D Public key

C

A cloud administrator recommends using tokenization as an alternative to protecting data without encryption. The administrator needs to make an authorized application request to access the data.

Which step should occur immediately before this action is taken?

A The tokenization server returns the token to the application.

B The tokenization server generates the token.

C The application collects a token.

D The application stores the token.

D

A company has recently defined classification levels for its data.

During which phase of the cloud data life cycle should this definition occur?

A Use

B Create

C Share

D Archive

B

Which jurisdictional data protection includes dealing with the international transfer of data?

A Financial modernization

B Secure choice authorization (SCA)

C Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX)

D Privacy regulation

D

Which jurisdictional data protection controls the ways that financial institutions deal with the private information of individuals?

A Stored communications act (SCA)

B Health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)

C Gramm-Leach-Bliley act (GLBA)

D Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX)

C

Which jurisdictional data protection safeguards protected health information (PHI)?

A Directive 95/46/EC

B Safe harbor regime

C Personal Data Protection Act of 2000

D Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

D

How is the compliance of the cloud service provider's legal and regulatory requirements verified when securing personally identifiable information (PII) data in the cloud?

A Contractual agreements

B Third-party audits and attestations

C e-Discovery process

D Researching data retention laws

B

Which security strategy is associated with data rights management solutions?

A Unrestricted replication

B Limited documents type support

C Static policy control

D Continuous auditing

D

Who retains final ownership for granting data access and permissions in a shared responsibility model?

A Customer

B Developer

C Manager

D Analyst

A

Which data retention solution should be applied to a file in order to reduce the data footprint by deleting fixed content and duplicate data?

A Backup

B Caching

C Archiving

D Saving

C

Which data retention method is stored with a minimal amount of metadata storage with the content?

A File system

B Redundant array

C Object-based

D Block-based

D

What is a key capability of security information and event management?

A Intrusion prevention capabilities

B Automatic remediation of issues

C Centralized collection of log data

D Secure remote access

C

Which data source provides auditability and traceability for event investigation as well as documentation?

A Storage files

B Packet capture

C Network interference

D Database tables

B

Which data source provides auditability and traceability for event investigation as well as documentation?

A Network segmentation

B Ephemeral storage

C Database schema

D Virtualization platform logs

D

Which technology is used to manage identity access management by building trust relationships between organizations?

A Single sign-on

B Multifactor authentication

C Federation

D Biometric authentication

C

Which term describes the action of confirming identity access to an information system?

A Coordination

B Concept

C Access

D Authentication

D

Which cloud computing tool is used to discover internal use of cloud services using various mechanisms such as network monitoring?

A Data loss prevention (DLP)

B Content delivery network (CDN)

C Cloud access security broker (CASB)

D Web application firewall (WAF)

C

Which cloud computing technology unlocks business value through digital and physical access to maps?

A Multitenancy

B Cloud application

C Application programming interface

D On-demand self-service

C

Which cloud computing tool may help detect data migrations to cloud services?

A Uniform resource locator (URL) filtering

B Cloud security gateways

C Cloud data transfer

D Data loss prevention

D

What is a key component of the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) cloud service model?

A Allows choice and reduces lock-in

B Supports multiple languages and frameworks

C Ease of use and limited administration

D High reliability and resilience

D

What is a key capability of infrastructure as a service (IaaS)?

A Hosted application management

B Converged network and IT capacity pool

C Leased application and software licensing

D Multiple hosting environments

B

Which option should an organization choose if there is a need to avoid software ownership?

A Software as a service (SaaS)

B Platform as a service (PaaS)

C Containers as a service (CaaS)

D Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

A

Which cloud model offers access to a pool of fundamental IT resources such as computing, networking, or storage?

A Infrastructure

B Platform

C Application

D Data

A

In which situation could cloud clients find it impossible to recover or access their own data if their cloud provider goes bankrupt?

A Vendor lock-in

B Multitenant

C Multicloud

D Vendor lock-out

D

Which cloud deployment model is operated for a single organization?

A Consortium

B Hybrid

C Public

D Private

D

Which cloud model provides data location assurance?

A Hybrid

B Private

C Community

D Public

B

Which cloud model allows the consumer to have sole responsibility for management and governance?

A Hybrid

B Community

C Private

D Public

C

Which technology allows an organization to control access to sensitive documents stored in the cloud?

A Digital rights management (DRM)

B Database activity monitoring (DAM)

C Identity and access management (IAM)

D Distributed resource scheduling (DRS)

A

Which security technology can provide secure network communications from on-site enterprise systems to a cloud platform?

A Domain name system security extensions (DNSSEC)

B Internet protocol security (IPSec) virtual private network (VPN)

C Web application firewall (WAF)

D Data loss prevention (DLP)

B

How do immutable workloads effect security overhead?

A They reduce the management of the hosts.

B They automatically perform vulnerability scanning as they launch.

C They restrict the amount of instances in a cluster.

D They create patches for a running workload.

A

Which document addresses CSP issues such as guaranteed uptime, liability, penalties, and dispute mediation process?

A General data protection regulation (GDPR)

B Service organization control 3 (SOC 3)

C Service level agreement (SLA)

D Common criteria assurance framework (CC)

C

Which design principle of secure cloud computing ensures that the business can resume essential operations in the event of an availability-affecting incident?

A Disaster recovery

B Resource pooling

C Access control

D Session management

A

Which design principle of secure cloud computing ensures that users can utilize data and applications from around the globe?

A Portability

B Scalability

C On-demand self-service

D Broad network access

D

Which design principle of secure cloud computing involves deploying cloud service provider resources to maximize availability in the event of a failure?

A Elasticity

B Resiliency

C Scalability

D Clustering

B

Which item should be part of the legal framework analysis if a company wishes to store prescription drug records in a SaaS solution?

A Sarbanes-Oxley Act

B Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

C Federal Information Security Modernization Act

D U.S. Patriot Act

B

Which standard addresses practices related to acquisition of forensic artifacts and can be directly applied to a cloud environment?

A NIST SP 500-291

B ISO/IEC 27001

C NIST SP 800-145

D ISO/IEC 27050-1

D

Which regulation in the United States defines the requirements for a CSP to implement and report on internal accounting controls?

A HIPAA

B SOX

C FERPA

D GDPR

B

Which legislation must a trusted cloud service adhere to when utilizing the data of EU citizens?

A GDPR

B EMTALA

C APPI

D SOX

A

Which logical design decision can be attributed to required regulation?

A Database writes/second

B Retention periods

C Retention formats

D Database reads/second

B

Which service model influences the logical design by using additional measures in the application to enhance security?

A Hybrid cloud

B Public cloud

C Software as a service (SaaS)

D Platform as a service (PaaS)

C

Which environmental consideration should be addressed when planning the design of a data center?

A Heating and ventilation

B Utility power availability

C Expansion possibilities and growth

D Telecommunications connections

A

Which result is achieved by removing all nonessential services and software of devices for secure configuration of hardware?

A Hardening

B Maintenance

C Patching

D Lockdown

A

What is a component of device hardening?

A Patching

B Unit testing

C Versioning

D Configuring VPN access

A

Which technology typically provides security isolation in infrastructure as a service (IaaS) cloud computing?

A Application instance

B System image repository

C Virtual machines

D Operating systems

C

Which technology an administrator to remotely manage a fleet of servers?

A KVM switch

B VPN concentrator

C Bastion host

D Management plane

D

What part of the logical infrastructure design is used to configure cloud resources, such as launching virtual machines or configuring virtual networks?

A Management orchestration software

B Management plane

C Identity access management

D Database management

B

Which action enhances cloud security application deployment through standards such as ISO/IEC 27034 for the development, acquisition, and configuration of software systems?

A Applying the steps of a cloud software development life cycle

B Providing developer access to supporting components and services

C Outsourcing the infrastructure and integration platform management

D Verifying the application has an appropriate level of confidentiality and integrity

A

Which type of agreement aims to negotiate policies with various parties in accordance with the agreed-upon targets?

A Privacy-level (PLA)

B Service-level (SLA)

C User license (ULA)

D Operation-level (OLA)

B

Which regulation requires a CSP to comply with copyright law for hosted content?

A SCA

B DMCA

C SOX

D GLBA

B

Which element is a cloud virtualization risk?

A Guest isolation

B Electronic discovery

C Licensing

D Jurisdiction

A

Which risk is related to interception of data in transit?

A Virtualization

B Man-in-the-middle

C Software vulnerabilities

D Traffic blocking

B

Which method is being used when a company evaluates the acceptable loss exposure associated with a cloud solution for a given set of objectives and resources?

A Business impact analysis

B Business continuity planning

C Risk appetite

D Risk management

C

The security administrator for a global cloud services provider (CSP) is required to globally standardize the approaches for using forensics methodologies in the organization.

Which standard should be applied?

A International organization for standardization (ISO) 27050-1

B Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)

C Cloud controls matrix (CCM)

D International electrotechnical commission (IEC) 27037

A

Which detection and analysis technique is performed to capture a point-in-time picture of the entire stack at the time of an incident?

A Collect metadata during alert

B Examine configuration data

C Create a snapshot using API calls

D Review data access logs

C

A CSP operating in Australia experiences a security breach that results in disclosure of personal information that is likely to result in serious harm.

Who is the CSP legally required to notify?

A Information commissioner

B Australian privacy foundation

C Asian-Pacific privacy control board

D Cloud Security Alliance

A

A CSP provides services in European Union (EU) countries that are subject to the network information security (NIS) directive. The CSP experiences an incident that significantly affects the continuity of the essential services being provided.

Who is the CSP required to notify under the NIS directive?

A Data protection regulator

B Competent authorities

C Personal Information Protection Commission

D Provider's services suppliers

B

A cloud customer is setting up communication paths with the cloud service provider that will be used in the event of an incident.

Which action facilitates this type of communication?

A Incorporating checks on API calls

B Using existing open standards

C Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)

D Performing a vulnerability assessment

B

Which security control does the software as a service (SaaS) model require as a shared responsibility of all parties involved?

A Platform

B Infrastructure

C Data

D Application

D

Which description characterizes the application programming interface (API) format known as representational state transfer (REST)?

A Supports only extensible markup language (XML)

B Provides a framework for developing scalable web applications

C Delivers a slower performance with complex scalability

D Tolerates errors at a high level

Which issue occurs when a web browser is sent data without proper validation?

A Insecure direct object access (IDOA)

B Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)

C Cross-site scripting (XXS)

D Lightweight directory access protocol (LDAP) injection

C

Which security testing approach is used to review source code and binaries without executing the application?

A Regression testing

B Dynamic application security testing

C Static application security testing

D Fuzz testing

C

Which issue can be detected with static application security testing (SAST)?

A Authentication

B Performance

C Threading

D Malware

C

Which approach is considered a black-box security testing method?

A Static application security testing

B Binary code inspection

C Dynamic application security testing

D Source code review

C

Which primary security control should be used by all cloud accounts, including individual users, in order to defend against the widest range of attacks?

A Multi-factor authentication

B Logging and monitoring

C Perimeter security

D Redundant infrastructure

A

Which cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations and supports a specific population that has shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy, compliance considerations)?

A Public

B Community

C Hybrid

D Private

B

Which problem is known as a common supply chain risk?

A Domain spoofing

B Runtime application self-protection

C Data breaches

D Source code design

C

Which phase of the software development life cycle includes determining the business and security requirements for the application to occur?

A Designing

B Developing

C Defining

D Testing

C

Which phase of the software development life cycle includes writing application code?

A Defining

B Designing

C Implementing

D Developing

D

Which method should the cloud consumer use to secure the management plane of the cloud service provider?

A Network access control list

B Disablement of management plane

C Agent-based security tooling

D Credential management

D

Which security threat occurs when a developer leaves an unauthorized access interface within an application after release?

A Deprecated API

B Easter egg

C Persistent backdoor

D Development operations

C

Which process prevents the environment from being over-controlled by security measures to the point where application performance is impacted?

A Trusted cloud initiative (TCI)

B Community cloud

C Quality of service (QoS)

D Private cloud

C

Which open web application security project (OWASP) Top 9 Coding Flaws leads to security issues?

A Direct object reference

B Cross-site scripting

C Denial-of-service

D Client-side injection

A

Which identity management process targets access to enterprise resources by ensuring that the identity of an entity is verified?

A Provisioning

B Federation

C Authentication

D Policy management

C

Which technology improves the ability of the transport layer security (TLS) to ensure privacy when communicating between applications?

A Whole-disk encryption

B Advanced application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs)

C Virtual private networks (VPNs)

D Volume encryption

B

Which multi-factor authentication (MFA) option uses a physical universal serial bus (USB) device to generate one-time passwords?

A Transaction authentication numbers

B Biometrics

C Hard tokens

D Out-of-band passwords

C

Which cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations with common concerns, such as mission, policy, or compliance considerations?

A Private cloud

B Community cloud

C Public cloud

D Hybrid cloud

B

Which type of cloud deployment model is considered equivalent to a traditional IT architecture?

A Public

B Private

C Hybrid

D Community

B

Which security method should be included in a defense-in-depth, when examined from the perspective of a content security policy?

A Technological controls

B Contractual enforcement of policies

C Training programs

D Strong access controls

A

Which attack vector is associated with cloud infrastructure?

A Seizure and examination of a physical disk

B Licensing fees tied to the deployment of software based on a per-CPU licensing model

C Data storage locations in multiple jurisdictions

D Compromised API credentials

D

Which risk is associated with malicious and accidental dangers to a cloud infrastructure?

A Regulatory noncompliance

B Natural disasters

C Personnel threats

D External attacks

C

Which cloud-specific risk must be considered when moving infrastructure operations to the cloud?

A Natural disasters

B Lack of physical access

C Denial of service

D Regulatory violations

B

Which risk is controlled by implementing a private cloud?

A Eavesdropping

B Unauthorized access

C Denial-of-service (DoS)

D Physical security

D

Which countermeasure enhances redundancy for physical facilities hosting cloud equipment during the threat of a power outage?

A Tier 2 network access providers

B Radio frequency interference (RFI) blocking devices

C Multiple and independent power circuits to all racks

D Automated license plate readers (ALPR) at entry points

C

Which countermeasure helps mitigate the risk of stolen credentials for cloud-based platforms?

A Key management

B Multifactor authentication

C Data sanitization

D Host lockdown

B

Which control helps mitigate the risk of sensitive information leaving the cloud environment?

A Web application firewall (WAF)

B Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C Identity and access management (IAM)

D Data loss prevention (DLP)

D

Which countermeasure mitigates the risk of a rogue cloud administrator?

A Multifactor authentication

B Data encryption

C Platform orchestration

D Logging and monitoring

D

Which consideration should be taken into account when reviewing a cloud service provider's risk of potential outage time?

A The type of database

B The amount of cloud service offerings

C The unique history of the provider

D The provider's support services

C

Which cloud security control eliminates the risk of a virtualization guest escape from another tenant?

A Dedicated hosting

B Hardware hypervisor

C File integrity monitor

D Immutable virtual machines

A

Which cloud security control is a countermeasure for man-in-the-middle attacks?

A Backing up data offsite

B Reviewing log data

C Using block data storage

D Encrypting data in transit

D