CC - BISHOP

A. 3.45 M

Convert mL to L(100 g NaCl/500 mL) = (X g NaCl/1000 mL) = 200 g/L

Calculate molarity(200 g NaCl/L) x (1 mol/58 g) = 3.45 M

What is the molarity for a solution containing 100 g of NaCl made up to 500 mL with distilled water? Assume a gram molecular weight (from periodic table) of approximately 58 grams.

a. 3.45 M

b. 1.72 M

c. 290 M

d. 5.27 M

A. 3.45

Convert mL to L(100 g NaCl/500 mL) = (X g NaCl/1000 mL) = 200 g/L

Calculate normality(200 g NaCl/L) x (1 Eq/58 g) = 3.45 M

What is the normality for a solution containing 100 g of NaCl made up to 500 mL with distilled water? Assume a gram molecular weight (from periodic table) of approximately 58 grams.

a. 3.45

b. 0.86

c. 1.72

d. 6.9

A.

(100 g NaCl/500 mL) x (X g NaCl/100 mL)= 20 g=20%

or you can just divide 100/500 = 0.2 = 20%

What is the percent (w/v) for a solution containing 100 g of NaCl made up to 500 mL with distilled water?

a. 20%

b. 5%

c. 29%

d. 58%

B.

What is the dilution factor for a solution containing 100 g of NaCl made up to 500 mL with distilled water?

a. 1:5 or 1/5

b. 5

c. 50 or 1/50

d. 10

A.

10 mg CaCl2/100 mL

1 dL = 100 mL

So 10 mg/dL

What is the value in mg/dL for a solution containing 10 mg of CaCl2 made with 100 mL of distilled water?

a. 10

b. 100

c. 50

d. Cannot determine without additional information

A.

Convert mL to L(10 mg CaCl2/100 mL) = (X mg CaCl2/1000 mL)

X = 100 mg/L

Convert mg to g

100 mg/L = 0.1 g/L

Calculate molarity

(0.1 g CaCl2/L) x (1 mol/111 g CaCl2) = 0.0009009

= 9 x 10^-4

What is the molarity of a solution containing 10

mg of CaCl2 made with 100 mL of distilled water? Assume a gram molecular weight from the periodic table of approximately 111 grams.

a. 9 × 10-4

b. 1.1 × 10-3

c. 11.1

d. 90

A.

0.2 M = 1000 mL = ??

v=m/d = 60.05 g/1.05 g/mL =57.190 mL

98% of 57.190 mL = 57.190/98 x 100 = 58.357

0.2 M = 1000 mL = 58.36 mL

58.36 mL X 0.2 M = 11.67 = 11.7

You must make 1L of 0.2M acetic acid(CH3COOH). All you have available is concentrated glacial acetic acid (assay value, 98%; specific gravity, 1.05 g/mL). It will take ______ milliliters of acetic acid to make this solution. Assume a gram molecular weight of 60.05 grams.

a. 11.7

b. 1.029

c. 3.42

d. 12.01

A.

pH = -log[H+]

[H+] = antilog (-4.24)

=5.75 × 10-5

What is the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetate buffer having a pH of 4.24?

a. 5.75 × 10-5

b. 1.19 × 10-1

c. 0.62

d. 0.76 × 10-4

A.

pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

8.6 = 7.43 + log ([A-]/[HA])

8.6 - 7.43 = log ([A-]/[HA])

antilog (8.6 - 7.43) = ([A-]/[HA])

antilog (1.17) = ([A-]/[HA])

14.7 = ([A-]/[HA])

= 14.7/1

Using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, give the ratio of salt to weak acid for a Veronal buffer with a pH of 8.6 and a pKa of 7.43.

a. 14.7/1

b. 1/8.6

c. 1.17/1

d. 1/4.3

A.

pH = pKa + log ([salt]/[acetic acid])

pH = 4.76 + log ([5 mmol/L]/[10 mmol/L])

pH = 4.76 + (log 5 mmol/L - log 10 mmol/L)

pH = 4.76 + (0.69897 - 1)pH = 4.76 + (-0.30103)

pH = 4.46

The pKa for acetic acid is 4.76. If the concentra- tion of salt is 5 mmol/L and that of acetic acid is 10 mmol/L, what is the expected pH?

a. 4.46

b. 5.06

c. 104

d. 56

A.

pH = -log[H+]

pH = -log [0.0000937]

pH = 4.03

The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 0.0000937. What is the pH?

a. 4.03

b. 9.37 × 10-5

c. 9.07

d. 8.03

1. 4 x 10^4 mg = 40,000 mg

40000 mg = 40 g

2. 1.3 x 10^2 mL = 130 mL

130 mL = 1.3 dL

3. 20 uL

4. 5 x 10^-3 mL = 0.005 mL

0.005 mL = 5 uL

5. 5 x 10^-2 L = 0.05 L

0.05 L = 50 mL

6. 40 mm

Perform the following conversions:

4×104 mg=___g

1.3×102 mL=____dL

0.02 mL = ____ μL

5×10-3 mL=___μL

5×10-2 L=___mL

4 cm = _____ mm

A.

M x V = N

V=valence (=2 for H2SO4)

M x (2) = 14 N

M = 14/2

M = 7

V1 x C1 = V2 x C2

(V1)(7M) = (3.2M)(250 mL)

(V1)(7M) = 800V1 = 800/7

V1 = 114 mL

What volume of 14 N H2SO4 is needed to make

250 mL of 3.2 M H2SO4 solution? Assume a gram

molecular weight of 98.08 grams.

a. 114 mL

b. 1.82 mL

c. 1.75 mL

d. 7 mL

A.

0.8 mg/dL x 200 = 160 mg/dL

A 1:200 dilution of the urine specimen gives a creatinine result of 0.8 mg/dL. The serum value is 1.2 mg/dL. What is the final value of creatinine in mg/dL in the undiluted urine sample?

a. 160

b. 0.8

c. 960

d. 860

A.

A 24-hour urine has a total volume of 1,200 mL. A 1:200 dilution of the urine specimen gives a creatinine result of 0.8 mg/dL. The serum value is 1.2 mg/dL. What is the result in terms of grams per 24 hours?

a. 1.92

b. 0.08

c. 80

d. 19

E.

A new medical technologist was selecting analyte standards to develop a standard curve for a high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) procedure. This analyte must have a 100% purity level and must be suitable for HPLC. Which of the following labels would be most appropriate for this procedure?

a. ACS with no impurities listed

b. USP

c. NF

d. CP

e. ACS with impurities listed

A

When selecting quality control reagents for measuring an analyte in urine, the medical technologist should select:

a. A quality control reagent prepared in a urine matrix.

b. A quality control reagent prepared in a serum matrix.

c. A quality control reagent prepared in deionized water.

d. The matrix does not matter; any quality control reagent as long as the analyte of measure is chemically pure.

E.

A patient's serum sample was placed on the chemistry analyzer and the output indicated "out of range" for the measurement of creatine kinase (CK) enzyme. A dilution of the patient serum was required. Which of the following should be used to prepare a dilution of patient serum?

a. Deionized water

b. Tap water

c. Another patient's serum with confirmed, low

levels of CK

d. Type III water

e. Type I water

True

True or False? Laboratory liquid in glass thermometers should be calibrated against an NIST-certified thermometer.

A.

Which of the following containers is calibrated to hold only one exact volume of liquid?

a. Volumetric flask

b. Erlenmeyer flask

c. Griffin beaker

d. Graduated cylinder

D.

Which of the following does NOT require calibration in the clinical laboratory?

a. Electronic balance

b. Liquid in glass thermometer

c. Centrifuge

d. Volumetric flask

e. Air displacement pipet

D.

Which of the following errors is NOT considered a preanalytical error?

a. During a phlebotomy procedure, the patient is opening and clenching his fist multiple times.

b. The blood was not permitted to clot and spun in a centrifuge after 6 minutes of collection.

c. The patient was improperly identified leading to a mislabeled blood sample.

d. The serum sample was diluted with tap water.

e. During phlebotomy, the EDTA tube was collected prior to the red clot tube.

A.

Which of the following standards requires that SDSs are accessible to all employees who come in contact with a hazardous compound?

a. Hazard Communication Standard

b. Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

c. CDC Regulations

d. Personal Protection Equipment Standard

A.

Chemicals should be stored

a. According to their chemical properties and

classification

b. Alphabetically, for easy accessibility

c. Inside a safety cabinet with proper ventilation

d. Inside a fume hood, if toxic vapors can be

released when openedA

A.

Proper PPE in the chemistry laboratory for routine testing includes

a. Impermeable lab coat with eye/face protection and appropriate disposable gloves

b. Respirators with HEPA filter

c. Gloves with rubberized sleeves

d. Safety glasses for individuals not wearing contact lenses

A.

A fire caused by a flammable liquid should be extinguished using which type of extinguisher?

a. Class B

b. Halogen

c. Pressurized water

d. Class C

A.

Which of the following is the proper means of disposal for the type of waste?

a. Microbiologic waste by steam sterilization

b. Xylene into the sewer system

c. Mercury by burial

d. Radioactive waste by incineration

A.

What are the major contributing factors to repetitive strain injuries?

a. Position/posture, applied force, and frequency of repetition

b. Inattention on the part of the laboratorian

c. Temperature and vibration

d. Fatigue, clumsiness, and lack of coordination

A.

Which of the following are examples of non-ionizing radiation?

a. Ultraviolet light and microwaves

b. Gamma rays and x-rays

c. Alpha and beta radiation

d. Neutron radiation

B.

One liter of 4 N sodium hydroxide (strong base) in a glass 1 L beaker accidentally fell and spilled on the laboratory floor. The first step is to:

a. Call 911.

b. Alert and evacuate those in the immediate area

out of harms way.

c. Throw some kitty litter on the spill.

d. Squirt water on the spill to dilute the chemical.

e. Neutralize with absorbing materials in a nearby

spill kit.

A.

Of the following, which is NOT reportable to the Department of Labor?

a. A laboratorian with a persistent cough that is only triggered at work

b. A laboratorian that experienced a chemical burn

c. A laboratorian that tripped in the lab and hit her head on the lab bench rendering her

unconscious

d. A laboratorian that was stuck by a contami- nated needle after performing phlebotomy on a patient

e. A laboratorian that forgot to wear his lab coat and gloves while diluting patient serum

A

A Gaussian distribution is usually

a. Bell-shaped

b. Rectangular

c. Uniform

d. Skewed

A.

The following chloride (mmol/L) results were obtained using a new analyzer:

106 115 111

83 120 127

119 100 104

83 105 107

106 110 106

110 112 108

108 108 109

110 109 114 102

What is the mean?

a. 108

b. 105

c. 109

d. 107

A.

The following chloride (mmol/L) results were obtained using a new analyzer:

106 115 111

83 120 127

119 100 104

83 105 107

106 110 106

110 112 108

108 108 109

110 109 114 102

What is the median?

a. 108.5

b. 105

c. 112

d. 107

A.

±2 SD = 95%
±3 SD = 97%

For a data value set that is Gaussian distributed, what is the likelihood (%) that a data point will be within ±1 SD from the mean?

a. 68%

b. 99%

c. 95%

d. 100%

A.

The correlation coefficient

a. Indicates the strength of relationship in a

linear regression.

b. Determines the regression type used to derive

the slope and y-intercept.

c. Is always expressed as "b."

d. Expresses method imprecision.

A.

If two methods agree perfectly in a method comparison study, the slope equals _____ and the y-intercept equals _____.

a. 1.0, 0.0

b. 0.0, 1.0

c. 1.0, 1.0

d. 0.0, 0.0

e. 0.5, 0.5

A.

Systematic error can best be described as consisting of

a. Constant and proportional error.

b. Constant error.

c. Proportional error.

d. Random error.

e. Syntax error.

A.

Examples of typical reference interval data distribution plots include all of the following except

a. ROC

b. Nonparametric

c. Parametric

d. Bimodal

A.

A reference range can be verified by

a. Testing as few as 20 normal donor specimens.

b. Literature and vendor material review.

c. Using samples from previously tested hospital patients.

d. Using pharmacy-provided plasmanate spiked with target analyte concentrations.

A.

Reference interval transference studies

a. Are used to verify a reference interval.

b. Are used to establish a reference interval.

c. Require as many as 120 normal donors.

d. Use a 68% reference limit for acceptability.

A.

Diagnostic specificity is the

a. Ability of a test to correctly identify the

absence of a given disease or condition.

b. Chance an individual does not have a given disease or condition if the test is within the reference interval.

c. Chance of an individual having a given disease

or condition if the test is abnormal.

d. Ability of a test to detect a given disease or condition

A.

To evaluate a moderately complex laboratory test, all of the following must be done except:

a. Analytical sensitivity and specificity

b. Verification of the reference interval

c. Accuracy and precision

d. Reportable rangea

A.

An ROC includes all of the following except:

a. Perfect test = an area under the curve <1.0

b. Equals receiver operator characteristic

c. Plots sensitivity and 1 - specificity

d. Can be used to compare two different tests

A.

For method development studies, which analytical performance test should be done first?

a. Imprecision studies

b. Comparison of methods (COM)

c. Recovery

d. Interference studies

e. Does not matter, they all need to be done

A.

For the following series of laboratory values, the vendor has indicated that a true value is 6.0. Series=5,4,5,6,7,5,3,8,5,9,5,4,5,6. The SDI (standard deviation index) is:

a. -0.3

b. +0.3

c. +1.0

d. -0.7

A.

Comparison of method studies:

a. Estimate systematic error.

b. Use primary QC material and standards that

span the reportable range.

c. Are usually completed within 4 working days.

d. Are not required for non-waived tests.

A.

Interference studies typically use _____ as an interferent.

a. All of these

b. Hemolyzed red cells

c. Highly icteric samples

d. Highly lipemic samples

A.

Allowable analytical error is:

a. A combination of random and systematic

error.

b. Best if it is greater than the total error.

c. Used only for research and initial evaluation

studies.

d. Published by the CDC for an array of clinical

tests.

E.

The methodology for a Lean Six Sigma quality improvement team will include consideration of all of the following factors EXCEPT:

a. Define

b. Measure

c. Analyze

d. Improve

e. Communicate

A.

It is reported that the greatest percentage of labora- tory errors occur during the _____ phase.

a. Preanalytical

b. Analytical

c. Postanalytical

d. Proficiency

e. Phlebotomy

A.

Calculate the Sigma value for sodium given that the total allowable error is 8%, the bias is 0.9%, and the CV is 2%.

a. 3.6

b. 2.7

c. 7.1

d. 4.5

e. 6.7

A.

Which of the following is not necessary for obtain- ing the spectrum of a compound from 190 to 500 nm?

a. Tungsten light source

b. Deuterium light source

c. Double-beam spectrophotometer

d. Quartz cuvettes

e. Photomultiplier

A.

Stray light in a spectrophotometer places limits on

a. Upper range of linearity

b. Sensitivity

c. Photometric accuracy below 0.1 absorbance

units

d. Ability to measure in the UV range

e. Use of a grating monochromator

A.

Which of the following light sources is used in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?

a. Hollow-cathode lamp

b. Xenon arc lamp

c. Tungsten light

d. Deuterium lamp

e. Laser

A.

Which of the following is true concerning fluorometry?

a. Fluorescence is an inherently more sensitive technique than absorption.

b. Emission wavelengths are always set at lower wavelengths than excitation.

c. The detector is always placed at right angles to the excitation beam.

d. All compounds undergo fluorescence.

e. Fluorometers require special detectors.

A.

Which of the following techniques has the highest potential sensitivity?

a. Chemiluminescence

b. Fluorescence

c. Turbidimetry

d. Nephelometry

e. Phosphorescence

A.

Which electrochemical assay measures current at fixed potential?

a. Amperometry

b. Anodic stripping voltammetry

c. Coulometry

d. Analysis with ISEs

e. Electrophoresis

A.

Which of the following refers to the movement of buffer ions and solvent relative to the fixed support?

a. Electroendosmosis

b. Isoelectric focusing

c. Iontophoresis

d. Zone electrophoresis

e. Plasmapheresis

A.

Reverse-phase liquid chromatography refers to

a. A polar mobile phase and nonpolar stationary

phase

b. A nonpolar mobile phase and polar stationary

phase

c. Distribution between two liquid phases

d. Size used to separate solutes instead of charge

e. Charge used to separate solutes instead of size

A.

Which of the following is not an advantage of CE?

a. Multiple samples can be assayed simultaneously on one injection

b. Very small sample size

c. Rapid analysis

d. Use of traditional detectors

e. Cations, neutrals, and anions move in the

same direction at different rates

A.

Tandem mass spectrometers

a. Are two mass spectrometers placed in series

with each other

b. Are two mass spectrometers placed in parallel

with each other

c. Require use of a gas chromatograph

d. Require use of an electrospray interface

e. Do not require an ionization source

A.

Which of the following is false concerning the principles of point-of-care testing devices?

a. Devices do not require quality control testing.

b. They use principles that are identical to

laboratory-based instrumentation.

c. Biosensors have enabled miniaturization particularly amendable for point-of-care testing.

d. Onboard microcomputers control instrument

functions and data reduction.

e. Whole blood analysis is the preferred specimen.

A.

Which is the most sensitive detector for spectrophotometry?

a. Photomultiplier

b. Phototube

c. Electron multiplier

d. Photodiode array

e. All are equally sensitive

A.

Which of the following is Beer's law?

a. A = e × b × c

b. %T=I/I0 ×100

c. E = hν

d. e=∆pH×0.59V

e. Osmolality=j×n×C

A.

Which of the following correctly ranks electromagnetic radiation from low energy to high energy?

a. Microwaves, infrared, visible, UV, x-rays, gamma, cosmic

b. Cosmic, gamma, x-rays, UV, visible, infrared, microwaves

c. UV, visible, infrared, microwaves, x-rays, cosmic, gamma

d. UV, visible, infrared, cosmic, gamma, microwaves, x-rays

e. Visible, UV, infrared, cosmic, gamma, microwaves, x-rays

A.

What is the purpose of the chopper in an atomic absorption spectrophotometer?

a. Correct for the amount of light emitted by the flame

b. Correct for the fluctuating intensity of the light source

c. Correct for the fluctuating sensitivity of the detector

d. Correct for differences in the aspiration rate of the sample

e. Correct for the presence of stray light

A.

Which of the following best describes the process of fluorescence?

a. Molecules emit a photon at lower energy when excited electrons return to the ground state.

b. Atoms emit a photon when the electrons are

excited.

c. Molecules emit a photon when the electrons

are excited.

d. Molecules emit a photon at the same energy

when excited electrons return to the ground state.

e. Molecules emit a photon at higher energy when excited electrons return to the ground state.

A.

Which is most accurate concerning ISEs?

a. Gas-specific membranes are necessary for oxy-

gen and carbon dioxide electrodes.

b. The pH electrode uses a solid-state membrane.

c. The calcium electrode does not require a refer-

ence electrode.

d. The sodium electrode uses an ion-selective

carrier (valinomycin).

e. The ISE for urea uses immobilized urease.

A.

Which of the following regarding MS is false?

a. Mass spectrometers can be used to sequence

DNA.

b. Ions are formed by the bombardment of

electrons.

c. Quadrupole and ion trap sectors separate ions

according to their mass-to-charge ratio.

d. Each chemical compound has a unique mass

spectrum.

e. MS detects for gas and liquid chromatography.

A.

Which of the following is not an objective of proteomics research?

a. Identifying specific gene mutations

b. Identifying novel proteins as potential new

biomarkers for disease

c. Identifying posttranslational modifications of

proteins

d. Understanding the mechanism of diseases

e. Determining which genes are expressed and

which genes are dormant

A.

Which of the following procedures is not currently or routinely used for point-of-care testing devices?

a. Polymerase chain reaction

b. Immunochromatography

c. Biosensors

d. Colorimetric detection

e. Electrochemical detection

A.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Partition chromatography is most appropriate to identifying analytes that may be distributed between two liquid phases.

b. Steric exclusion chromatography is best suited for separating analytes based on their solubility in the mobile solvent.

c. In liquid-solid chromatography, the stationary phase separates analytes based on size, shape, and polarity.

d. Ion-exchange chromatography has a resin phase that is soluble to water and separation of the mixture is based on magnitude and charge of ionic species.

e. The partition coefficient is measured and compared with standards in thin layer chromatography.

B.

In high-performance thin-layer chromatography (HPTLC), developed bands are compared with reference standard concentrations. Each band is measured by:

a. Mass spectrometer

b. Densitometer

c. Ruler

d. Buiret protein assay

e. Two-dimensional electrophoresis

B.

In which of the following components of a chromatography instrument does selective separation of a mixture occur?

a. Sample injection port

b. Column

c. Spectrometer

d. Quadrupole

e. Mass analyzer

False

True or False? In chromatography, the stationary phase is always of a solid matrix.

A.

Mass spectrometry identifies analytes based on:

a. Mass to charge ratio

b. Retention factor

c. Density of the band

d. Molecular weight

e. Solubility in the mobile phase

C.

Drugs of abuse are typically measured by:

a. Thin-layer chromatography

b. Liquid/liquid chromatography

c. Gas/liquid chromatography

d. Steric exclusion chromatography

e. HPLC

B.

PCR/ESI-TOF has the distinct advantage in pathogen identification because:

a. Requires the patient sample to be cultured and then analysis can be performed.

b. Can be used directly from patient specimens.

c. Uses the protein "finger print" to identify the pathogen.

A.

Which of the following is NOT a driving force for more automation?

a. Increased use of chemistry panels

b. High-volume testing

c. Fast turnaround time

d. Expectation of high-quality, accurate results

A.

Which of the following approaches to analyzer automation can use mixing paddles to stir?

a. Discrete analysis

b. Centrifugal analysis

c. Continuous flow

d. Dry chemistry slide analysis

A.

Which of the following types of analyzers offers random-access capabilities?

a. Discrete analyzers

b. Continuous-flow analyzers

c. Centrifugal analyzers

d. None of these

A.

All of the following are primary considerations in the selection of an automated chemistry analyzer EXCEPT

a. How reagents are added or mixed

b. The cost of consumables

c. Total instrument cost

d. The labor component

B.

An example of a modular integrated chemistry/ immunoassay analyzer would be the

a. Aeroset

b. Dimension Vista 3000T

c. Paramax

d. Vitros

A.

Dwell time refers to the

a. Time between initiation of a test and the completion of the analysis

b. Number of tests an instrument can handle in a specified time

c. Ability of an instrument to perform a defined workload in a specified time

d. None of these

A.

The first commercial centrifugal analyzer was introduced in what year?

a. 1970

b. 1957

c. 1967

d. 1976

A.

All of the following are advantages to automation EXCEPT

a. Correction for deficiencies inherent in methodologies

b. Increased number of tests performed

c. Minimized labor component

d. Use of small amounts of samples and reagents in comparison to manual procedures

A.

Which of the following steps in automation generally remains a manual process in most laboratories?

a. Preparation of the sample

b. Specimen measurement and delivery

c. Reagent delivery

d. Chemical reaction phase

A.

Which of the following chemistry analyzers uses slides to contain the entire reagent system?

a. Vitros analyzers

b. ACA analyzers

c. Synchron analyzers

d. None of these

B.

Reflectance spectrometry uses which of the following?

a. Luminometer

b. Tungsten-halogen lamp

c. Photomultiplier tube

d. UV lamp

e. Thermometer to monitor temperature in reaction vessel

C.

Modifications in microsampling and reagent dispensing improve which of the following phases in clinical testing?

a. Physician ordering phase

b. Preanalytical phase

c. Analytical phase

d. Postanalytical phase

e. All of the above phases

C.

Bidirectional communication between the chemistry analyzer and the laboratory information system has had the greatest impact on which of the following phases of clinical testing?

a. Preanalytical

b. Analytical

c. Postanalytical

d. All of the above

e. None of the above

A.

The strength of binding between an antigen and antibody is related to the:

a. Goodness of fit between the epitope and the F(ab)

b. Concentration of antigen and antibody

c. Source of antibody production, because monoclonal antibodies bind better

d. Specificity of the antibody

B.

In monoclonal antibody production, the specificity of the antibody is determined by the:

a. Sensitized B lymphocytes

b. Myeloma cell line

c. Sensitized T lymphocytes

d. Selective growth medium

A.

Which unlabeled immune precipitation method in gel is used to quantitate a serum protein?

a. Radial immunodiffusion

b. Double diffusion

c. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis

d. Immunofixation electrophoresis

B.

In immunofixation electrophoresis, discrete bands appear at the same electrophoretic location, one reacted with antihuman IgA (α chain specific) reagent and the other reacted with antihuman λ reagent. This is best described as:

a. An IgA λ monoclonal protein

b. An IgA λ polyclonal protein

c. IgA biclonal proteins

d. Cross-reactivity

A.

In nephelometry, the antigen-antibody complex formation is enhanced in the presence of:

a. Polyethylene glycol

b. High-ionic-strength saline solution

c. Normal saline

d. Complement

A.

Which homogeneous immunoassay relies on inhibiting the activity of the enzyme label when bound to antibody reagent to eliminate separating freelabeled from bound-labeled reagent?

a. EMIT

b. CEDIA

c. MEIA

d. ELISA

A.

In flow cytometry, the side scatter is related to the:

a. Granularity of the cell

b. DNA content of the cell

c. Size of the cell

d. Number of cells in G0 and G1

A.

You analyze the DNA content on a sample of breast tissue for suspected malignancy using flow cytometry and get the following results: DI = 2.5 and % cells in S phase = 29%. Based on these results you can conclude:

a. These results are likely indicative of a malignant breast tumor

b. This is normal breast tissue

c. These results are consistent with a mostly diploid population

d. The results are not consistent with one another; no information is gained