Forensic Biology Exam 3

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88 Terms

1
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How is DNA different from other types of evidence?

can be used to ID specific suspects

2
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What is a DNA profile?

IDs someone based on genetic code

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Who are the only people that share the same DNA?

identical twins

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What can DNA be used to determine?

kinship

5
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What is the Innocence Project?

use DNA to exonerate falsely accused suspects

6
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What are some limitations of the Innocent Project?

  • limited taxpayer funding

  • privacy concerns

7
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When was DNA profiling/fingerprinting first used to ID a murder suspect?

1986

8
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What method is used now instead of gel electrophoresis?

Short tandem repeat analysis

9
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What are limiting factors of DNA profling?

  • cost

  • time

  • backlogs

  • degradation of DNA

10
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What improvements have been made in DNA profiling?

  • better tech and lab protocols

  • gov legislation

  • CODIS

  • rapid test DNA kits

11
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What is gel electrophoresis?

developed by Alec Jeffreys, scientists manually load DNA fragments into gel to receive DNA profile of bands sorted by size

12
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What are short tandem repeats?

introduced in 1991, the FBI acknowledges 13 core markers

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What is an STR profile?

unique to the individual, determined by commercial kits and analyzers

14
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True or False: Most DNA is coding

False

15
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What are the pairs of nucleotides

DNA

  • adenine-thymine

  • cytosine-guanine

RNA

  • adenine-uracil

16
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How many chromosomes are found in human body cells?

46

17
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True or False: Humans genes are arranged randomly?

False, all humans have the same genes arranged in the same order

18
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Where is DNA evidence recovered from?

white blood cells, skin cells, semen, saliva, hair, fingerprints

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How should DNA evidence be stored?

dry, cool areas out of direct sunlight

20
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What is a serologist?

specialize in analysis of bodily fluids and conduct tests to determine if source is human

21
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What is CODIS?

the Combined DNA Index System, repository of DNA evidence of unknown ID

22
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What are some types of DNA profiling analyses?

  • STR analysis: nuclear DNA and Y chromosome

  • mtDNA analysis

  • familial searching

  • forensic genealogy and SNPs

  • genetic genealogy and SNP profiling

  • DNA phenotyping

23
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What are more advances in DNA profiling?

  • Next Generation Sequencing (NGS)

  • Snapshot

  • Data mining

  • Modeling and machine learning algorithms

  • Converting SNP loci to bar codes

24
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What is rape or sexual battery?

Having sexual relations:

  • against consent

  • while person is unconscious

  • while person is under the influence

  • if person is feeble-minded or insane

  • if person is under the age of consent

25
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What is a minimal fact interview?

Intended to be brief and non-intrusive, establishing basic facts of the assault. Should not be used a test for victim credibility.

26
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What is a victim-centered response?

focuses on actions and choices of offender, not action or inaction of victim

27
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What is a trauma-informed response?

seeks to reduce trauma to victim by responding in compassionate, sensitive, nonjudgmental manner

28
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What do the type and sequence of sexual acts help determine?

motivation

29
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What may verbal activity of the rapist reveal?

information or motivation, specific words and tone matter

30
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What may the verbal activity of the victim reveal?

motivation or gratification of rapist determined by what the victim was forced to say

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What might cause a sudden change in attitude of the rapist?

sexual dysfunction, completion, sudden interruptions, lack of fear from victim

32
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What might theft during the rape indicate?

  • evidentiary: items with DNA - experience with crime

  • valuables: little income

  • personal: keepsakes/trophies

33
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Delayed reporting can lead to what?

loss of recollection of details and evidence

34
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Transgender victims of sexual assault

  • ½ expected to experience but only 9% are reported

  • POC, homeless, incarcerated face higher rate

  • Important to address victim by preferred name

35
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Why are deaf victims reluctant to reach out?

  • no interpreter or teletypewriter at agency

  • belief that event will not be accurately conveyed

36
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Why don’t women report sexual assault?

  • lack of belief in ability of police

  • worries about unsympathetic treatment and discomforting procedures

  • embarrassment

  • self-blame

  • fear of reprisal

  • apprehension of being further victimized

37
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How many reported cases are false?

2-8%

38
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How should physical evidence be preserved by victim?

responding officer should ensure evidence is secure and advise victim to not alter the crime scene

39
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What is included in a sexual battery examination kit?

  • vials for blood and semen

  • specimen envelope for hair

  • smear slides for vagina, etc

  • vaginal, cervical, saliva, buccal, and extra swabs

  • underwear specimen bag

  • genoprobe

40
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What other information might the victim supply?

  • details about condom and wrapper - color, shape, texture, odor, taste, lubrication

  • sexual and hygienic habits

41
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What purpose do photos of injuries serve?

  1. corroborate victim’s account of attacks

  2. help develop suspect’s modus operandi

42
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What might electronic evidence capture?

events of assault and pre- and post-assault behavior of victim and perp

43
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What might social media evidence reveal?

chronology or circumstances surrounding assault

44
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What might cell-phone evidence reveal?

GPS and usage data might reveal location of suspect, victim, witnesses, assault

45
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What needs to be determined about drug or alcohol facilitated assaults?

  • prescription and OTC meds used by victim

  • voluntary recreational substances

  • victim’s experience with drugs and alcohol to determine tolerance and expected levels of intoxication

  • black outs and missing periods of time

  • amount consumed

  • sensory experiences after consumption

46
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What are the most commonly used drugs in sexual assaults?

  • GHB

  • valium

  • ambien

  • temazepam

  • flexeril

  • xanax

  • benadryl

47
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What are the effects of GHB?

  • central nervous system depressant

  • can be felt within 10-20 min of ingestion

  • coma can occur 30-40 min after ingestion

  • traceable in blood for 4-8 hrs and in urine for 12-15 hours

48
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What is evidence that forced sodomy occurred in a male murder victim?

evidence of strangulation with a belt, strap, or ligature

49
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What are autoerotic deaths?

sexual asphyxia that occurs as results of masochistic activities of the deceased, often male

50
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What is a psychological autopsy?

an analytical statement prepared by a mental health professional based on the deceased’s thoughts, feelings, and behavior

51
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What is the purpose of a psychological autopsy?

to form a logical understanding of death from:

  • tangible physical evidence

  • documented life events

  • intangible, emotional factors

52
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What is the most common cause of death in children?

physical abuse perpetrated by parents

53
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What is battered-child syndrome?

clinical term often used to describe physically abused children

54
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What are the types of burn injuries?

  • immersion in hot water for punishment

  • scalding by hot liquids

  • contact “inflicted” - can’t be concealed

  • spill/splash injuries from falling hot liquids

55
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What percent of child abuse cases include burn injuries?

6-20%

56
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What are characteristics of 1st degree burns?

  • redness

  • usually heal by themselves

57
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What are characteristics of 2nd degree burns?

  • partial skin damage

  • blisters containing clear fluid

  • pink underlying tissue

  • often heal by themselves

58
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What are characteristics of 3rd degree burns?

  • full skin destroyed

  • deep red tissue underlying blister

  • bloody blister fluid

  • possible muscle and bone damage

  • requires professional treatment

59
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What are characteristics of 4th degree burns?

  • penetrate deep tissue to fat, muscle, and bone

  • requires immediate professional treatment

60
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What is SIDS?

sudden infant death syndrome, often a crib death possibly caused by laying on the stomach and re-inhaling carbon dioxide but is likely spontaneous apnea

61
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What does SIDS show in an autopsy?

congestion and edema of lungs with minor evidence of respiratory tract inflammation

62
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What is the difference between coup and contrecoup injuries?

In coup injuries, the head is stationary and is struck by a moving object. It causes both dermal and subdermal hematomae. In contrecoup injuries, the moving head hits a stationary object, causing only subdural hematoma.

63
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What is Shaken Baby Syndrome?

severe intentional application of violent force or shaking that results in intracranial injuries to the child

64
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What is the mechanism of injury in SBS?

combo of physical factors like the proportionately large size of the adult relative to the child

65
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What are some outward sign of SBS?

pale/blue skin, lethargic eyes

66
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What is Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy?

a parent/caretaker suffering from Munchausens attempts to elicit medical attentions for themself by injuring or inducing illness in the child

67
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What is Munchausen Syndrome?

psychological disorder in which the patient fabricates symptoms of disease/injury to undergo medical tests, hospitalization, or treatment

68
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What are the 2 main categories of child molestation?

  1. situational

  2. preferential

69
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What are the types of situational child molestors?

knowt flashcard image
70
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What are the types of preferential child molestors?

knowt flashcard image
71
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What types of reports are included in unfounded cases?

  • unsubstantiated suspicions

  • insufficient info

  • fictitious reports by adults and by children

72
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What are the 2 categories of child pornography?

  1. child pornography: sexual explicit reproduction of a child’s image

    1. commercial

    2. homemade

  2. child erotica: material relating to children that serves a sexual purpose

    1. published

    2. unpublished

73
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What is helpful in interviewing children?

anatomically correct dolls

  • establish rapport and reduce stress

  • reduce vocab problems

  • allow child to show what may be difficult/embarrassing to say

  • enhance quality of info

  • establish competency

74
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What is the Protection of Children from Sexual Predators Act of 1998?

  1. use of interstate facilities to transmit info about minors

  2. transfer of obscene materials to or from minors

  3. definition of sexual activity to include production of child porn

75
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What is Child Abduction and Serial Murder Investigative Resource Center?

provides on-site supportive resources for law enforcement

76
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What is child sex tourism?

tourism organized with primary purpose of facilitating a commercial-sexual relationship with a child, by-product of sex trafficking

77
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What was the company in New York that transported clients to various South Asian countries for sexual business?

Big Apple Oriental Tours

78
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What percent of sex tourists are American?

25%

79
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How many children are involved in sex tourism in Thailand?

10k according to government reports but the actual number is likely up to 800k

80
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What percent of children experience online sexual solicitation?

13%, mostly females 14-17

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What are characteristics of online sexual offenders?

70% male, 43% men 18+

82
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What types of social media sites are used for internet crimes?

ones that disappear or go into ghost mode like snapchat, instagram, facebook, and yikyak

83
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What is an Amber alert?

voluntary partnership between law enforcement, state transportation officials, and broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in most serious child abduction cases

84
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What is included in an Amber alert?

description of missing child, suspected abductor, and any vehicles involved

85
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What is sex offender registration?

Created in 1994, required states to create sex offender registries within 3 years or lose funding

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What information is included in the sex offender registration?

  • name

  • address

  • DOB

  • SSN

  • physical description

  • fingerprints

  • photograph

87
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What are forms of notification about sex offenders?

  • passive allows citizens to access info at their local law enforcement agencies

  • active permits government agencies to disseminate info to vulnerable individuals and organizations

88
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What is rapid response deployment?

an approach that focuses on training patrol officers in the principles and tactics of rapid deployment for responding to critical incidents