Chem nut exam 5 multiple choice

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273 Terms

1
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1. By 2030, approximately what fraction of the U.S. population is projected to be 65 years or older?

a. 1/100

b. 1/25

c. 1/10

d. 1/8

e. 1/5

e. 1/5

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2. What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States?

a. 21–34 years

b. 35–49 years

c. 50–64 years

d. 65–84 years

e. Over 85 years

e. Over 85 years

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3. What is the average life expectancy in the United States today?

a. 79 years

b. 81 years

c. 86 years

d. 89 years

e. 93 years

a. 79 years

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4. What was the average life expectancy in the United States in 1900?

a. 42 years

b. 47 years

c. 55 years

d. 59 years

e. 65 years

b. 47 years

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5. The maximum potential human life span is currently about ___years.

a. 110

b. 120

c. 130

d. 140

e. 150

c. 130

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6. In the United States, woman who live to the age of 85, can expect to survive an additional___years, on average.

a. 3

b. 5

c.7

d. 9

e. 11

c. 7

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7. The verifiably oldest person died in 1997 at the age of

a. 100 years

b. 122 years

c. 145 years

d. 134 years

b. 122 years

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8. Nora says her grandfather acts like a 25-year-old man. Nora is referring to her grandfather’s ___age.

a. chronological

b. physiological

c. ephemeral

d. transient

e. historical

b. physiological

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9. Gavin says his grandmother celebrated her 93rd birthday. Gavin is referring to his grandmother’s .

a. life expectancy

b. physiological age

c. life span

d. chronological age

e. quality of life

d. chronological age

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10. Since 1950, the population of those older than 65 has almost ____ —and it is expected to____ again by 2050.

a. tripled, double

b. doubled, tripled

c. doubled, no change

d. no change, tripled

e. tripled, no change

a. tripled, double

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11. The CDC recommends that older adults engage in strength training at least two (nonconsecutive) days a week, at a moderate to high intensity, for____ repetitions per exercise.

a. 10 to 15

b. 15 to 20

c. 20 to 25

d. 25 to 30

e. 35 to 40

a. 10 to 15

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12. Animal research has shown life-prolonging benefits when energy intake is restricted to about____ of normal

a. 90%

b. 85%

c. 80%

d. 75%

e. 70%

e. 70%

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13. Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between energy restriction and longevity?

a. Improvements in longevity depend on reducing energy intake and not on the amount of body fat.

b. Restriction of energy intake in genetically obese animals does not seem to improve longevity.

c. Biochemical markers for longevity in humans are improved only when energy intake is reduced by at least one

third.

d. The activities of the genes of older mice on energy-restricted diets are similar to those of mice on standard

diets.

e. Research with humans has found a substantial increase in longevity, with a 5% reduction in energy intake.

a. Improvements in longevity depend on reducing energy intake and not on the amount of body fat.

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14. Hunger is persistent when energy is restricted by .

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 25%

d. 30%

e. 50%

d. 30%

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15. Reducing energy intake by a minimum of ___ brings about measurable improvements in body fat, bloodpressure, insulin response, and blood lipids.

a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 20%

d. 25%

e. 30%

a. 10%

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16. Using animal data to extrapolate to humans, researchers estimate that it would take a person____years of restricting energy intake to 30% of normal, to increase life expectancy by 3 years.

a. 5

b. 7

c. 10

d. 15

e. 30

e. 30

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17. In Sardinia, Italy, and Nicoya, Costa Rica, people live long, healthy, and active lives well past 100 years. These places collectively are called______ .

a. Red Zones

b. Blue Zones

c. Age Hot Spots

d. Longevity Hot Spots

e. Quality Circles

b. Blue Zones

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18. An estimated ___ of older adults in the United States are deemed obese.

a. 40%

b. 35%

c. 37%

d. 55%

e. 50%

b. 35%

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9. Which of the following accurately describes how men and women respond to stress?

a. Women’s general reactions to stress are different from those of men.

b. The ability to respond is weaker in older women than in older men.

c. Elderly women invite lighten by sharing experiences with others; elderly men alleviate stress by compartmentalizing.

d. Psychological stressors such as divorce or death of a loved one are handled much less well by elderly men than by elderly women.

e. There are no clinically important differences in men’s and women’s responses to stress.

a. Women’s general reactions to stress are different from those of men.

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20. In general, older people tend to ______ and muscle and _____

a. lose bone and muscle, gain body fat

b. lose body fat, gain bone mass

c. lose lean muscle and gain bone mass

d. lose bone, gain muscle

e. All of these are incorrect

a. lose bone and muscle, gain body fat

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21. For adults older than 65, mortality is lowest among individuals who are .

a. underweight

b. at a healthy weight

c. slightly overweight

d. obese

e. classified with clinically severe obesity

c. slightly overweight

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22. What is sarcopenia?

a. loss of central visual activity

b. loss of muscle mass and strength

c. softening of bones

d. difficulty swallowing

e. paralysis of GI tract muscles

b. loss of muscle mass and strength

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23. Which of the following best describes the effect of aging on the immune system?

a. Immunity is improved by abundant intake of iron-rich red meats and calcium-rich butter.

b. In the United States, infectious diseases are rarely the cause of deaths in the elderly.

c. Immune function does not decline with age in people who maintain good nutrition.

d. Antibiotics are often ineffective in treating infections in older people who have deficient immune systems.

e. In elderly persons, nutritional status rarely influences immune functioning.

d. Antibiotics are often ineffective in treating infections in older people who have deficient immune systems.

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24. ____is the combination of an inefficient and overactive immune response in the aging population.

a. Inflammaging

b. Dysphagic cell mass

c. Sarcopenic undermining

d. Edentulous-induced wasting

e. Cachexia of aging

a. Inflammaging

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25. A person who has difficulty swallowing has .

a. edentulous

b. sarcopenia

c. dysphagia

d. pressure ulcers

e. gout

c. dysphagia

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26. A person who is edentulous should eat_______ .

a. soft foods

b. red meats

c. raw fruits and vegetables

d. leafy green vegetables

e. foods rich in vitamin C

a. soft foods

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27. Researchers have studied several nutrient interventions aimed at relieving depression in older adults. They found that______ these interventions .

a. may or may not be effective

b. are never effective

c. are mildly effective for women, but not men

d. are greatly effective for both men and women

e. may worsen depression in very old individuals

a. may or may not be effective

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28. How many eligible seniors participate in the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program?

a. 1/10

b. 1/4

c. 1/3

d. 1/2

e. 2/3

c. 1/3

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29. Even with the help of Social Security, how many adults over age 65 live in poverty?

a. 9

b. 15

c. 26

d. 33

e. 40

a. 9

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30. How many adults over age 65 would live in poverty without the help of Social Security?

a. 9

b. 15

c. 26

d. 33

e. 40

e. 40

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31. Dehydrated older adults seem to be more susceptible to______ and _____

a. UTI, pressure ulcers

b. memory loss, dementia

c. Alzheimer’s, blood loss

d. weight gain, polyuria

e. bulimia, bingeing

a. UTI, pressure ulcers

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32. Which of the following accurately describes concerns about water intake in elderly people?

a. They may not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth.

b. They have an increased total body water content as compared with younger adults.

c. They urinate more frequently, so require greater hydration.

d. They tend toward overhydration, which results in mental lapses and disorientation.

e. They develop pressure ulcers and urinary tract infections due to abundant intake of foods with high-water content.

a. They may not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth.

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33. What is the minimum number of glasses of water an older adult must drink each day to prevent dehydration?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

e. 10

c. 6

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34. Betty was diagnosed with a pressure ulcer, which means she has damage to her____ .

a. skin

b. colon

c. mouth

d. stomach

e. eye

a. skin

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35. The basal metabolic rate declines ______ per decade due to lean muscle mass and diminishing thyroid hormones.

a. 1 to 2%

b. 2 to 4%

c. 4 to 8%

d. 8 to 16%

e. 16 to 24%

a. 1 to 2%

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36. Louis is an 80-year-old man. How much have his energy needs declined since he was 30 years old?

a. 5%

b. 15%

c. 25%

d. 35%

e. 45%

c. 25%

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37. Older adults with atrophic gastritis are vulnerable to___ deficiency

a. folate

b. calcium

c. vitamin D

d. vitamin B12

e. zinc.

d. vitamin B12

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38. Adults aged 51 to 70 who engage in minimal outdoor activity, need____ micrograms of vitamin D daily.

a. 15

b. 20

c. 25

d. 30

e. 35

a. 15

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39. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with two common problems of aging: osteoporosis and____ .

a. dysphagia

b. dementia

c. atrophic gastritis

d. cataracts

e. gout

b. dementia

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40. The DRI recommends_____milligrams of calcium for women over 50 and older and men over 70.

a. 1000

b. 1200

c. 1400

d. 1600

e. 1800

b. 1200

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41. Which of the following statements describes the mineral nutrition of older adults?

a. Zinc intake is adequate for about 95% of this group.

b. Iron absorption is reduced due to low stomach acidity.

c. Calcium intakes of females are near the RDA for this group.

d. Vitamin D is more readily absorbed by the thinner skin of this group.

e. Folate excesses are fairly common.

b. Iron absorption is reduced due to low stomach acidity.

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42. Which of the following statements describes the iron intake of older adults?

a. Iron needs of men increase throughout their lifetime.

b. Iron-deficiency anemia is more common among older adults than among younger people.

c. Antacids tend to increase iron stores.

d. Elevated iron stores are likely to be found in older people who eat red meat and take iron supplements.

e. Elevated iron stores impair immunity, which can lead to infectious diseases.

d. Elevated iron stores are likely to be found in older people who eat red meat and take iron supplements.

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3. Which of the following statements describes a connection between nutrition and cataract formation?

a. Obese and lean people have the same risk for cataracts.

b. Adequate intakes of vitamin K and folate seem to delay the onset of cataract formation.

c. Nutrition seems to play little, if any, role in the onset of cataracts.

d. Vitamin C supplements in doses of 1000 mg for several years appear to raise the risk for cataracts.

e. Antioxidant supplements appear to prevent cataracts.

d. Vitamin C supplements in doses of 1000 mg for several years appear to raise the risk for cataracts.

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44. Which term refers the clouding of the eye lenses that impairs vision and can lead to blindness?

a. retinitis

b. keratoids

c. cataracts

d. rhodolipids

e. glaucoma

c. cataracts

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45. What percentage of people in the United States has a cataract by age 75?

a. 15%

b. 25%

c. 33%

d. 50%

e. 75%

d. 50%

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46. What organ is affected by macular degeneration, a common condition for older people?

a. bone

b. eyes

c. liver

d. kidneys

e. stomach

b. eyes

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47. Approximately how many people in the United States are diagnosed with some form of arthritis each year?

a. 5 million

b. 10 million

c. 50 million

d. 500 million

e. 5 billion

c. 50 million

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48. Which type of arthritis most commonly disables older people?

a. osteoarthritis

b. rheumatoid arthritis

c. gout

d. fibromyalgia

e. psoriatic arthritis

a. osteoarthritis

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49. Which of the following foods has been shown to reduce joint inflammation in people with rheumatoid arthritis?

a. red meat

b. whole grains

c. fruit juices

d. fish with omega-3 fatty acids

e. vitamin D–fortified milk

d. fish with omega-3 fatty acids

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50. What form of arthritis is characterized by deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints?

a. osteoarthritis

b. rheumatoid arthritis

c. gout

d. fibromyalgia

e. psoriatic arthritis

c. gout

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51. The brain degeneration of an overweight 60-year-old person is comparable to that of a___ -year-old adult.

a. 62

b. 65

c. 67

d. 70

e. 72

d. 70

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52. 1 in ___U.S. adults is affected by Alzheimer’s disease after age 65.

a. 2

b. 5

c. 8

d. 12

e. 15

c. 8

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53. What is the most important nutrition concern for people with Alzheimer’s disease?

a. ensuring adequate intakes of antioxidant nutrients and DHA

b. maintaining appropriate body weight

c. monitoring intake of medications that may interfere with nutrient bioavailability

d. treatment for iron overload to prevent formation of new neurofibrillary tangles

e. taking vitamin and mineral supplements appropriate for dementia treatment

b. maintaining appropriate body weight

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54. Which of the following statements accurately describes alcohol use among the elderly?

a. Binge drinking is more frequent in the elderly than in younger persons.

b. The proportion of binge drinkers is greater in the elderly than in any other age group.

c. In elderly individuals, unlike in younger individuals, alcohol use is not associated with other risky behavior, such

as illicit drug use.

d. Determining alcohol abuse among the elderly community requires costly assessment by medical professionals.

e. Elderly individuals are rarely successfully treated for alcohol abuse and dependence.

a. Binge drinking is more frequent in the elderly than in younger persons.

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55. Older adults primarily diet in order to .

a. economize when food prices increase

b. improve appearance

c. pursue a medical goal such as reducing cholesterol or blood glucose control

d. reduce risks for development of atrophic

e. reduce feelings of depression

c. pursue a medical goal such as reducing cholesterol or blood glucose control

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56. To ascertain the risk of malnutrition among older people, the Nutrition Screening Initiative uses a checklist based on the word

a. evaluate

b. identify

c. decide

d. assess

e. determine

e. determine

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57. What is a congregate meal?

a. a meal provided for groups of elderly in a place like a community center

b. a meal prepared for the elderly that meets two thirds of the Dietary Recommended Intakes

c. a meal prepared for individual elderly members of large church organizations and delivered to their homes

d. a meal provided through the Nutrition Screening Initiative for nursing home residents

e. a meal prepared by a community organization and delivered to home-bound individuals where they live

a. a meal provided for groups of elderly in a place like a community center

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58. Which of the following is true of food assistance programs of the Older Americans Act?

a. Eligibility begins at 50.

b. There are no income limits for eligibility.

c. Meals on Wheels is generally preferred to congregate meals.

d. Currently, only luncheon meals are offered.

e. Meals for people with special dietary needs are offered, but less frequently that regular meals.

b. There are no income limits for eligibility.

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59. What is the name of the program that provides low-income older adults with coupons that are exchangeable for fresh vegetables and fruits at community-supported farmers’ markets and roadside stands?

a. Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program

b. Fresh Food for the Disadvantaged Elderly

c. Old Age and Survivors Health Benefits Program

d. Federal Food Pantry

e. Eldercare Food Assistance

a. Senior Farmers Market Nutrition Program

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60. Which of the following would be the best substitute for fresh milk for the elderly person living alone who wishes to avoid food waste?

a. UHT milk

b. low-cost expired milk

c. calcium carbonate tablets

d. rice milk

e. soy milk

a. UHT milk

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61. What percentage of adults aged 65 years and older takes at least one prescription medicine?

a. 50%

b. 60%

c. 70%

d. 80%

e. 90%

e. 90%

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62. How does aspirin reduce inflammation and relieve pain?

a. It acts as a sedative.

b. It promotes wound healing and blood clotting.

c. It interferes with prostaglandins.

d. It binds to nerve receptors.

e. It stimulates endorphins.

c. It interferes with prostaglandins.

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63. Antibiotics and antacids often contain large amounts of .

a. sugar

b. sodium

c. sorbitol

d. lactose

e. niacin

b. sodium

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64. The medication megestrol acetate .

a. relieves depression

b. promotes weight loss

c. enhances appetite

d. stimulates insulin production

e. treats dementia

c. enhances appetite

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65. Which of the following interferes significantly with the utilization of the antibiotic tetracycline?

a. folate

b. zinc

c. calcium

d. vitamin B12

e. vitamin C

c. calcium

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66. What is a common side effect from taking certain prescription drugs and consuming grapefruit juice?

a. metallic taste in the mouth appears

b. increased blood concentrations

c. weight gain of 5 to 7 lb

d. diminished physiological effect

e. greatly reduced absorption

b. increased blood concentrations

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67. The activity of the anticoagulant drug warfarin is affected by its interaction with .

a. vitamin K

b. grapefruit juice

c. sodium

d. aged meats

e. vitamin B12

a. vitamin K

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68. People who take diuretic medications may need to take a___supplement

a. vitamin K

b. vitamin D

c. iron

d. potassium

e. sodium

d. potassium

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69. Which of the following foods in particular must be restricted in the diet of a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor drug to treat Parkinson’s disease?

a. red meat

b. sauerkraut

c. salmon

d. cruciferous vegetables

e. chocolate

b. sauerkraut

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70. Which of the following is commonly used as an additive in liquid medicines and causes diarrhea?

a. sorbitol

b. maltose

c. saccharin

d. aspartame

e. lactulose

a. sorbitol

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1. Depending on the patient population, estimates indicate that approximately___percent of hospitalized patients are malnourished.

a. 20 to 50

b. 35 to 70

c. 45 to 80

d. 50 to 90

a. 20 to 50

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2. Which statement is true regarding malnutrition among hospitalized patients?

a. Although common among chronic care patients, malnutrition is rare among acute care patients.

b. Malnutrition among hospitalized patients is extremely rare and an indication of seriously flawed care.

c. Only patients who are terminally ill and expected to die within months are at risk of malnutrition.

d. Even acutely ill patients who are not malnourished during admission may become malnourished subsequently.

d. Even acutely ill patients who are not malnourished during admission may become malnourished subsequently.

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3. Impaired nutrient digestion and absorption that affects nutritional status would most likely be caused by .

a. insufficient excretion of digestive enzymes

b. anorexia due to illness

c. prolonged immobilization

d. use of diuretics

a. insufficient excretion of digestive enzymes

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4. Changes in hydration, as well as diarrhea due to illness, affect nutrition status primarily by .

a. reducing nutrient and food intake

b. altering metabolism and excretion

c. impairing digestion and absorption

d. impairing cognition

b. altering metabolism and excretion

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5. A patient who has had surgery for colostomy placement has been put on bowel rest and has only intravenous fluids

for nutrition. In what way would these treatments affect this patient’s nutrition status?

a. reduce food intake

b. impair digestion

c. alter nutrient excretion

d. Impair absorption

a. reduce food intake

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6. Maisie Green is a frail, elderly widow who lives in a nursing home and has been confined to her bed for 4 months.

What is most likely to increase her metabolic stress and her energy and protein needs?

a. weakened immunity

b. medications causing GI discomfort

c. poor emotional health

d. pressure sores

d. pressure sores

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7. Specific instructions regarding dietary management for a patient are known as “ __”

a. clinical pathways

b. nutrition care plans

c. diet orders

d. nutrition screenings

c. diet orders

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8. Nutrition assessment and diagnosis followed by provision of nutrition care by a registered dietitian is termed “

a. medical nutrition therapy

b. the nutrition care process

c. a nutrition screening

d. a medical history

a. medical nutrition therapy

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9. A nutrition care plan is .

a. the client’s diet prescription ordered by the nurse

b. the dietitian’s strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs

c. the nurse’s documentation of how well the client is eating

d. nutritional formulas showing minimum daily requirements

b. the dietitian’s strategies for meeting an individual's nutritional needs

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10. In a health care facility, who holds the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that all the patient's nutritional needs are met?

a. clinical dietitians

b. physicians

c. nurses

d. pharmacists

b. physicians

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11. Which health care professional is expected to have extensive knowledge about foods, nutrition, and health?

a. physician

b. registered dietitian

c. nurse

d. social worker

b. registered dietitian

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12. A new patient is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Who is most likely to visit the patient to compile a list of his or her

food preferences?

a. nurse

b. physician

c. dietitian

d. dietetic technician

d. dietetic technician

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13. The physician asks the staff to administer tube feedings. Who is most often responsible for doing this?

a. the nurse

b. the dietitian

c. the dietetic technician

d. the social worker

a. the nurse

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14. Coordinated programs of treatment that merge the care plans of different health practitioners are called “ __”

a. critical pathways

b. clinical integrative plans

c. diagnosis-related groups

d. treatment plans

a. critical pathways

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15. Clinical judgments about actual or potential health problems that provide the basis for selecting appropriate nursing

interventions are called “ .”

a. potential diagnoses

b. nursing diagnoses

c. treatment objectives

d. nursing goals

b. nursing diagnoses

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16. Which statement most accurately describes nutrition screening?

a. Screenings should be conducted within 24 hours of patient’s admission.

b. Screening questions are the same from facility to facility.

c. Assessments must be conducted by physicians.

d. Laboratory tests are not included as part of the screening process.

a. Screenings should be conducted within 24 hours of patient’s admission.

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17. What is the screening tool that is used in clinical facilities to detect the risk of malnutrition in adults over the age of

65?

a. Subjective Global Assessment

b. Patient Education Materials Assessment Tool

c. Continuity Assessment and Record Evaluation

d. Mini Nutritional Assessment

d. Mini Nutritional Assessment

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18. A patient’s height, weight, and body mass index represent which type of data in the nutrition screening process?

a. admission data

b. anthropometric data

c. functional assessment data

d. laboratory test results

b. anthropometric data

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19. General weakness and impaired mobility in a patient represents which type of data in the nutrition screening process?

a. admission data

b. anthropometric data

c. functional assessment data

d. laboratory test results

c. functional assessment data

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20. An assessment procedure for identifying clients who are malnourished or at risk for malnutrition is referred to as a

“____.”

a. health questionnaire

b. health history

c. diet order

d. nutrition screening

d. nutrition screening

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21. A nutritional assessment involves .

a. collecting and analyzing health-related data to identify nutrition problems

b. implementing a nutrition care plan

c. identifying existing and potential psychological problems

d. obtaining approval from insurance providers

a. collecting and analyzing health-related data to identify nutrition problems

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22. A registered dietitian performs a Subjective Global Assessment on a newly admitted hospital patient. The dietitian

gives several “C” ratings for the assessment variables related to the patient’s medical history and physical

examination. This most likely means that the patient is .

a. obese and needs to lose weight

b. well nourished

c. at risk of malnutrition

d. severely malnourished

d. severely malnourished

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23. The neuropsychological problems assessed in the Mini Nutritional Assessment screening tool include .

a. dementia

b. distorted body image perception

c. anxiety

d. schizophrenia

a. dementia

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24. An individual with a body mass index of ____would receive one point for BMI in the Mini Nutritional Assessment screening tool.

a. less than 19

b. 19 to less than 21

c. 21 to less than 23

d. 23 or greater

a. less than 19

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25. Lee is a 78-year-old woman with mild loss of muscle mass, loss of about 7% of body weight over the past 6 months,

and decreased food intake due to anorexia. Using the Subjective Global Assessment screening tool, she is most likely

to be classified in which category?

a. well nourished

b. mild malnutrition

c. moderate malnutrition

d. severe malnutrition

c. moderate malnutrition

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26. An example of a behavioral–environmental diagnosis given following a nutrition assessment might be .

a. altered blood potassium levels

b. inadequate energy intake

c. unintended weight gain

d. disordered eating pattern

d. disordered eating pattern

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27. What is a social factor that can affect food intake and therefore nutrition status?

a. methamphetamine use

b. religious beliefs

c. mental illness

d. prescription medications

b. religious beliefs

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28. What is an example of food and nutrition history information that would be included as part of the nutrition

assessment?

a. dietary supplements usage

b. high educational level

c. recent weight changes

d. low socioeconomic status

c. recent weight changes

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29. What technique is most effective when using the 24-hour recall method to obtain food intake data?

a. multiple-pass method

b. direct observation

c. use of a checklist

d. free recall

a. multiple-pass method

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30. If a client is asked to recount everything eaten in a typical day, the assessor is using ____to collect food intake data.

a. a food record

b. a calorie count

c. a 24-hour recall

d. direct observation

c. a 24-hour recall