Organizational Behavior Cummulation

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T/F Organizations must be responsive to the changes that take place in society, for the changes affect all aspects of their operations. (ch 1)

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1

T/F Organizations must be responsive to the changes that take place in society, for the changes affect all aspects of their operations. (ch 1)

True

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2

Which BEST describes the relationship between the input and output stage of the open model? (ch 1) a. the money earned from selling raw materials can be used to purchase finished products b. the less the products sell, the more resources that can be used to buy raw materials c. the money received from selling products can be used to buy more raw materials d. there is no relationship between the amount of money made from sales and the amount that can be purchased

c. The money received from selling products can be used to buy more raw materials

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3

T/F The four principal functions of management are planning, organizing, budgeting, and controlling. (ch 1)

False. The four principles are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling.

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4

Which of the following is NOT an example of a change in society of which the owner of a breakfast diner must be aware? (ch 1) a. increase in min. wage b. increase in coffee bean prices c. new development in ipod technology d. new virus killing egg laying hens

c. new development in ipod technology

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5

Organizational _____ is the study of the many factors that have an impact on how people and groups act, think, feel, and respond to work and organizations, and how organizations respond to their environments. (ch 1)

Behavior

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6

A company is losing money. The top management team decides to lay off workers and move its production branch to India. The employees not laid off will be given more responsibility allowing them to make more decisions. Which of the following does not occur? (ch 1) a. downsizing b. outsourcing c. empowerment d. freelancing

d. freelancing

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7

T/F Global learning continually takes place as organizations compete worldwide for customers. (ch 1)

True

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8

T/F Conceptual skills allow a manager to analyze and diagnose a situation and to distinguish between cause and effect. (ch 1)

True

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9

The _____ function of management allows managers to diagnose how well they have performed. (ch1)

controlling

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10

T/F Managers should view employees' personalities as relatively fixed in the short run. (ch 2)

True

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11

Individuals with an _____ believe that their own actions and behaviors have an impact on what happens to them. (ch 2)

internal locus of control

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12

Nature is to genetics as nurture is to _____. (ch 2)

life experiences

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13

_____ is the extent to which an individual is careful, scrupulous, and persevering. (ch 2)

Conscientiousness

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14

T/F Individuals with a high need for power want to be liked by others. (ch 2)

False. Individuals with a high need for affiliation want to be liked by others.

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15

Ability is BEST described as what a person is ______. (ch 2)

capable of doing

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16

T/F Extraversion is a personality trait that predisposes individuals to experience positive emotions. (ch 2)

True

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17

High self-monitors want their behavior to be socially acceptable. (ch 2)

True

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18

T/F Self-promotion is the extent to which people have pride in themselves and their capabilities. (ch 2)

False. Self-esteem

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19

T/F Everyone has a specific type of personality. (ch 2)

False

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20

_____ is the pattern of relatively enduring ways that a person feels, thinks, and behaves. (ch 2)

Personality

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21

High self-monitors would perform especially well in all of the following jobs EXCEPT _____. (ch 2) a. devil's advocate on a team b. spokesperson for a company c. consulting d. sales

a. devil's advocate on a team

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22

T/F Type B employees are driven to get a lot done in a short period of time. (ch 2)

False. Type A are.

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23

_____ is the extent to which people have pride in themselves and their capabilities. (ch 2)

self-esteem

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24

Which one of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality traits? (ch 2) a. interlocution b. extraversion c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism

a. interlocution

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25

T/F Managers and researchers have recognized that even though work moods have important effects on organizational behavior, little can be done in the workplace to promote positive moods. (ch 3)

False. work moods can have important effects on organizational behavior. Managers and organizations can do many things to promote positive moods; therefore, work moods are receiving additional attn from researchers and managers alike.

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26

T/F Work moods are more long lasting than values and attitudes. (ch 3)

False. Much more transitory than values and attitudes, work moods can change from day to day, hour to hour, and minute to minute.

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27

T/F When Ben & Jerry's encourages employee commitment through socially responsible corporate policies and programs that support the community and protect the environment, they will MOST likely experience affective commitment from many of their employees. (ch 3)

True

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28

T/F A code of ethics is the set of formal rules and standards that employees can use to make appropriate decisions when the interests of other individuals or groups are at stake. (ch 3)

True

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29

T/F When affect commitment is high, workers are more likely to want to do what is good for the organization. (ch 3)

True

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30

T/F Research results indicate that job satisfaction is strongly related to job performance. (ch 3)

False. Research result indicate that job satisfaction is not strong related to job performance; at best, there is very weak positive relationship.

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31

T/F Organizational commitment is the collection of feelings and beliefs that people have about their organization as a whole. (ch 3)

True

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32

T/F If new hires are surrounded by coworkers who are dissatisfied with their jobs, they are more likely to be dissatisfied themselves. (ch 3)

True

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33

T/F Hygiene needs are satisfied by working conditions, amount of pay, and job security. (ch 3)

True

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34

T/F Organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) is behavior that is above and beyond the call of duty. (ch 3)

True

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35

T/F Intrinsic work values are related to the consequences of work. (ch 3)

False. Extrinsic work values are related to the consequences of work.

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36

T/F The facet model assumes that jobs affect employees in uniform ways. (ch 3)

False. The facet model asserts that jobs affect employees in multiple ways.

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37

T/F Herzberg's motivator-hygiene theory describes how workers move between satisfaction and dissatisfaction along a continuous scale. (ch 3)

False. Herzberg proposed that dissatisfaction and satisfaction are two separate dimensions, one ranging from satisfaction to no satisfaction and the other ranging from dissatisfaction to no dissatisfaction.

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38

T/F The discrepancy model of job satisfaction is based on a simple idea: To determine how satisfied employees are with their jobs, they compare their job to some "ideal job." (ch 3)

True

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39

T/F Job satisfaction is the collection of feelings and beliefs that people have about their organization as a whole. (ch 3)

False. Job satisfaction is the collection of feelings and beliefs that people have about their current jobs.

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40

T/F The steady-state theory suggests that receiving a promotion will raise an employee's level of job satisfaction to a new level, and once attained that level will remain steady. (ch 3)

False. According to the steady-state theory, receiving a promotion may temporarily boost an employee's level of job satisfaction, but, eventually, it will return to the equilibrium level.

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41

T/F Instrumentality is the perceived association between a certain level of job performance and the receipt of a specific outcome. (ch 6)

True

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42

T/F According to Adams, a referent could be another employee, oneself at a different place or time, or one's expectations. (ch 6)

True

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43

T/F A need is a requirement for survival and well-being. (ch 6)

True

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44

True. The three types of needs in Alderfer's theory are existence, relatedness, and growth. (ch 6)

True

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45

_____ refers to the desirability of an outcome to an individual employee. (ch 6)

Valence

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46

T/F Intrinsically motivated work behavior is performed for its consequences. (ch 6)

False. Intrinsically motivated work behavior is performed for own sake.

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47

_____ is concerned with how employees make choices among alternate behaviors and levels of effort. (ch 6)

Expectancy theory

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48

T/F Maslow asserted that unsatisfied needs are the prime motivators of behavior. (ch 6)

True

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49

If an employee does not thing she is capable of performing at an adequate level, even with maximum effort, her motivation to perform at that level will be _____. (ch 6)

zero

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50

T/F Maslow argued that once a need is satisfied, it is no longer a source of motivation. (ch 6)

True

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51

T/F Motivation is only one of several factors that can affect performance. (ch 6)

True

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52

_____ is based on the premise that the employee perceives the relationship between his and her outcomes and his or her inputs. (ch 6)

Equity theory

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53

_____ involves the perceived fairness of the distribution of outcomes in organizations, such as pay or promotions. (ch 6)

Distributive justice

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54

T/F Extrinsically motivated work behavior is performed to acquire material or social rewards or to avoid punishment. (ch 6)

True

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55

According to equity theory, the two basic types of inequity are _____. (ch 6)

Overpayment and underpayment

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56

Job enrichment is known as _____. (ch 7)

vertical job loading

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57

According to scientific management, _____ is the principal outcome used to motivate employees to contribute their input. (ch 7)

pay

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58

_____ involves breaking up the work that needs to be done into the smallest identifiable tasks. (ch 7)

job simplification

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59

T/F Task significance is the degree to which a job allows an employee freedom and independence. (ch 7)

False. Task significance is the extent to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people in or out of an organization.

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60

T/F Grocery stores that have individual employees assigned to individuals, or only a few tasks, such as a bagger, cashier, produce clerk, and meat cutter, employ the principles of job simplification and specialization. (ch 7)

True

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61

In the job characteristic model, the extent to which a job involves performing a whole piece of work from beginning to end is referred to as _____. (ch 7)

Task identity

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62

T/F The motivating potential score (MPS) is a measure of the overall potential of a job to foster intrinsic motivation. (ch 7)

True

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63

"Shoot for the moon, even if you miss you'll land among the stars," points to what characteristic of high motivation goals? (ch 7)

goals should be difficult

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64

T/F Scientific management has been instrumental in helping organizations improve employee effectiveness and productivity. (ch 7)

True

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65

_____ focuses on identifying the types of goals that are most effective in producing high levels of motivation and performance and why goals have these effects. (ch 7)

Goal-setting theory

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66

The _____ describes how individuals use the groups and organizations they are members of to define themselves. (ch 7)

Social identify theory

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67

In the job characteristic model, the extent to which a job requires an employee to use a number of different skills, abilities, or talents is referred to as _____. (ch 7)

Skill variety

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68

T/F The job of a carnival ride operator who presses buttons to start and stop rides has a low level of skill variety. (ch 7)

True

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69

T/F There is no difference between the social environment on the job for permanent workers and contingent workers. (ch 7)

False. Contingent workers often face a different social environment on the job than regular employees face.

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70

The key outcomes of the critical psychological states in the job characteristic model do NOT include _____. (ch 7) a. high absenteeism and turnover b. high job performance c. high job satisfaction d. high intrinsic motivation

a. high absenteeism and turnover

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71

Job enlargement is often referred to as ______. (ch 7)

horizontal job loading

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72

All of the following are types of formal work groups EXCEPT _____. (ch 10) a. Self-managed teams b. Interest groups c. task forces d. command groups

b. Interest groups

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73

T/F Group Status is the implicitly agreed-upon, perceived importance of what a group does in an organization. (ch 10)

True

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74

T/F Standard operating procedures specify in writing the best way to perform particular tasks. (ch 10)

True

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75

T/F A group of men and women of diverse races and cultural origins who possess degrees from a variety of institutions and have different beliefs about the centrality of work in their lives is a homogenous group. (ch 10)

False. Members of a homogenous group have many characteristics in common. Members of a heterogeneous group do not have many characteristics in common.

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76

T/F The division of labor that occurs in groups and organizations necessitates the development of roles. (ch 10)

True

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77

T/F Group norms are formal written rules of conduct. (ch 10)

False. Group norms are informal rules of conduct. Often they are not put into writing.

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78

T/F Group efficacy is the sum total of each individual group member's beliefs about his or her own ability to perform effectively. (ch 10)

False. Group efficacy is the shared belief group members have about the ability of the group to achieve its goals and objectives.

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79

T/F Informal work groups emerge naturally in organizations because members believe that working together in a group will help them achieve their goals or meet their needs. (ch 10)

True

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80

A _____ is a collection of people who come together to accomplish a specific goal. (ch 10)

Task force

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81

Ken, Laura, and Joey are in an interest group. Everyone arrives five minutes early for every meeting. If Ken feels identification, the reason that he arrives early is MOST LIKELY because _____. (ch 10)

He wants to do what Joey and Laura do

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82

Awards dinners, newspaper releases, and employee promotions are examples of _____. (ch 17)

Rites of enhancement

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83

A company makes and sells office equipment. When employees develop new ideas that save the company money or increase profits, they are paid a bonus. If their ventures do not work, they are severely punished and sometimes terminated. The founder wants employees to be more creative. To BEST encourage creativity, the founder should _____. (ch 17)

eliminate punishments for unsuccessful risk taking ventures

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84

T/F Newcomers learn about an organization's culture by participating in its formal socialization program and by observing or working with other employees. (ch 17)

True

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85

T/F Stories about organizational heroes must be true because they provide important clues about cultural values and norms. (ch 17)

False. they can be fact or fiction

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86

An inert organization would be best described as _____. (ch 17)

stuck

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87

T/F Companies with strong corporate cultures only hire people who are motivated to succeed. Therefore the companies do not have to worry about motivating their employees. (ch 17)

False. They have to worry regardless

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88

T/F In adaptive cultures, employees often receive rewards linked directly to their performance and to the performance of the company as a whole. (ch 17)

True

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89

T/F The ultimate source of organizational culture is the people who make up the organization. (ch 17)

True

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90

A short-term orientation is MOST LIKELY the result of values that _____. (ch 17)

Stress personal happiness and living in the present

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91

_____ is the set of shared values, beliefs, and norms that influence the way employees think, feel, and behave toward each other and towards people outside of the organization. (ch 17)

Organizational culture

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92

Which of the following is NOT an instrumental value that would likely promote stability and predictability? (ch 17) a. obeying instructions b. following appropriate rules c. behaving cautiously d. being creative and courageous

d. being creative and courageous

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93

T/F The organization's culture does little to control the way employees perceive and respond to their environment. (ch 17)

False. The organization's culture controls the way employees perceive and respond to their environment, what they do with information, and how they make decisions.

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94

T/F Groupthink occurs in cohesive groups whose members strive for agreement at the expense of accurately assessing information relevant to the decision. (ch 15)

True

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95

One of the assumptions of the classical model of decision making is that _____. (ch 15)

decision makers have all the information needed to make optimal decisions.

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96

_____ is the process by which members of an organization choose a specific course of action to respond to problems and opportunities. (ch 15)

Decision Making

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97

Total quality management includes the two group decision-making techniques of _____. (ch 15)

benchmarking and empowerment

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98

_____ are the rules of thumb that help people simplify decision making. (ch 15)

Heuristics

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99

Organizational members often engage in _____; that is, they search for and choose acceptable responses to opportunities and problems. (ch 15)

satisficing

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100

The _____ reflects the tendency to determine the frequency of an event and its causes by how easy these events and causes are to remember. (ch 15)

availability heuristic

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