ENSC 001 Final Review

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Synthetic pesticides were introduced into the U.S. for agricultural use following the end of which war?

a. American Revolution (1775-1783) b. World War I (1917-1918) c. World War II (1941-1945) d. War of 1812 (1812-1815)

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1

Synthetic pesticides were introduced into the U.S. for agricultural use following the end of which war?

a. American Revolution (1775-1783) b. World War I (1917-1918) c. World War II (1941-1945) d. War of 1812 (1812-1815)

c. World War II (1941-1945)

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2

What book did Rachel Carson (1907 - 1964) write?

a. Silent Night b. Spring Day c. Green Spring d. Silent Spring

d. Silent Spring

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3

Who raised awareness on contemporary issues on the environment and kick-started Earth Day?

a. Rachel Carson

b. JJ Audubon

c. Henry David Thoreau

d. Gaylord Nelson

d. Gaylord Nelson

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4

What does BRIC stand for?

a. Britain, Russia, Indonesia, and Cambodia

b. Brazil, Russia, India, and China

c. Bahrain, Rwanda, Iran, and Cuba

d. Bangladesh, Romania, Israel, and Chile

b. Brazil, Russia, India, and China

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5

Highly developed countries are characterized by the following:

a. High-income per capita

b. Low level of industrialization

c. High fertility rate

d. Low-income per capita

a. High-income per capita

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6

Environmental sustainability implies

a. The ability to meet current human economic and social needs without compromising the power of the environment to support future generations

b. “The Tragedy of the Commons” argued that our inability to solve many environmental problems results from a struggle between short-term individual welfare vs. long-term ecological sustainability and societal welfare.

c. Applying itself at an individual level, community, regions, nations, and on a global scale

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

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7

Which do not represent Peter Sandman’s risk = hazard + outrage ideals?

a. Presenting lots of data

b. Crisis communication

c. Outrage management

d. Precaution advocacy

a. Presenting lots of data

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8

Who was the founder of the Sierra Club and fought for national parks?

a. Theodore Roosevelt

b. Grover Cleveland

c. John Muir

d. Benjamin Harrison

c. John Muir

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9

A preservationist is more likely to have a _________ worldview, and a conservationist has a _________ worldview.

a. utilitarian and biocentric

b. biocentric and utilitarian

c. protective and logical

d. logical and protective

b. biocentric and utilitarian

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10

The Cuyahoga River fire of 1969 provided the catalyst for the passage of which landmark piece of registration in the United States?

a. The General Revision Act in 1891

b. Antiquities Act of 1906

c. The Frontier Attitude

d. Clean Water Act of 1972

d. Clean Water Act of 1972

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11

What is environmental justice defined as?

a. When individuals in an ecological region consume too large quantities of their resources.

b. An amount of productive land, freshwater, and the ocean are continuously required to supply that person with food, wood, energy, water, housing, clothing, transportation, and waste disposal.

c. The ability to meet current human economic and social needs without compromising the power of the environment to support future generations.

d. A fundamental right of every citizen, regardless of age, race, gender, social class, or other factors, to have adequate protection from environmental hazards.

d. A fundamental right of every citizen, regardless of age, race, gender, social class, or other factors, to have adequate protection from environmental hazards.

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12

What is not a pillar of sustainable development?

a. environmentally sound decisions

b. economically viable decisions

c. politically viable decisions

d. socially equitable decisions

c. politically viable decisions

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13

What does market failure refer to?

a. when the supply and demand of goods and services don’t meet or are unbalanced

b. when the quality of a product or service is desired by buyers

c. when national income acts are incomplete for national income

d. the cost of the environmental quality of a unit of pollution

a. when the supply and demand of goods and services don’t meet or are unbalanced

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14

What is the marginal cost of pollution?

a. the cost of control b. the economic optimum on the number of pollution c. the cost of environmental quality of a unit of pollution d. when the cost of supply and demand are unbalanced or unmet

c. the cost of environmental quality of a unit of pollution

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15

National income accounts are incomplete estimates of national economic performance because national income accounts do not include the following: a. estimates of external costs, like natural depletion and environmental cost of economic accountability

b. the cost of control

c. the economic optimum on the number of pollution

d. the cost of environmental quality of a unit of pollution

a. estimates of external costs, like natural depletion and environmental cost of economic accountability

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16

How would an economist adopt a strategy to deal with pollution?

a. They would raise the cost of pollution

b. See how much the market can offer

c. Increasing the quantity of a product or service desired by buyers

d. By not advocating for a “green tax” aimed at polluters because it would increase pollution

a. They would raise the cost of pollution

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17

Which of the following series is organized according to the levels used by ecologists?

a. Ecosystem → Landscape → Species → Community → Population b. Species → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Landscape c. Community → Landscape → Species → Population → Ecosystem d. Landscape → Ecosystem → Community → Species → Population

b. Species → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Landscape

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18

The crust of our planet made out of rock and soil is known as the: a. Hydrosphere b. Atmosphere c. Lithosphere d. Biosphere

c. Lithosphere

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19

In a pyramid of energy, the lowest quantity of energy (kcal per ms) would be found in the:

a. Secondary consumers b. Primary consumers c. Decomposers d. Tertiary consumers

d. Tertiary consumers

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20

Wildlife swept through the mountains in So Cal, burning everything in its path. In order for the mountain ecosystem to reestablish itself, which member of the food web has to return first? a. Planting trees and growing grass b. The community c. The population d. Organisms that inhabited the region

a. Planting trees and growing grass

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21

What is the primary driver of high human appropriation of net primary productivity (HANPP) within India and eastern China?

a. energy b. high population density c. marginal cost of pollution d. market failure

b. high population density

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22

The mechanisms of natural selection involve all but…

a. high reproductive capacity b. heritable variation in individual c. differential reproductive success d. stable community structures

d. stable community structures

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23

What accounts for increased population growth if the number of births and deaths are equal?

a. immigration b. emigration c. biotic potential d. the population growth rate is limited

a. immigration

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24

Which of the following organisms have lowest intrinsic rate of increase?

a. mice b. bunnies c. ocean sunfish d. whale

d. whale

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25

A population often crashes after a species ______ its environmental carrying capacity.

a. overloads b. overshoots c. overplays d. overestimates

b. overshoots

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26

Which is not an example of a density-dependent factor?

a. climate b. predation c. disease d. competition

a. climate

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27

Green anoles were forced out of their established habitat of trees, plants, walls, and fences by brown anoles. Green anoles had to find new habits in new lands and tree crowns. What is this known as?

a. competition and realized niche b. intra-specific competition c. inter-specific competition d. realized niche

a. competition and realized niche

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28

The ability of a community to withstand disturbances is known as:

a. species richness b. competition and realized niche c. intra-specific competition d. inter-specific competition

a. species richness

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29

How would we describe movement through abiotic and biotic interactions?

a. biogeochemical cycles b. nitrogen cycle c. phosphorus cycle d. hydrologic cycle

a. biogeochemical cycles

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30

Which of the following is not a geochemical cycle?

a. hydrogen b. carbon c. nitrogen d. hydrologic

a. hydrogen

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31

Which of the following is not an example of fossil fuel?

a. coal b. oil c. natural gas d. wood

d. wood

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32

Which country had the highest C02 emissions in 2014?

a. India b. China c. United States d. Russia

c. United States

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33

What is the final step in the nitrogen cycle?

a. denitrification b. fixation c. nitrification d. assimilation

a. denitrification

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34

Which of the following processes plays an important role in the phosphorus cycle?

a. mining b. erosion c. burial and compaction d. animals

b. erosion

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35

Which biochemical cycle contributes to eutrophication in lakes in India and China?

a. nitrogen and phosphorus b. carbon and sulfur c. oxygen and water d. carbon and nitrogen

a. nitrogen and phosphorus

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36

The stratosphere ozone is vital because…

a. it is where weather occurs b. it is the outermost layer c. source of aurora d. it absorbs UV rays

d. it absorbs UV rays

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37

What is the Coriolis effect due to?

a. increased temperature b. the earth’s rotation c. UV rays d. prevailing winds

b. the earth’s rotation

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38

Which of the following does not affect ocean currents?

a. position of the continents b. marine organisms c. atmospheric temperatures d. the varying density of seawater

b. marine organisms

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39

The ocean convertor belt affects which of the following?

a. regional and possibly global climates b. temperature c. soil d. fossil fuels

a. regional and possibly global climates

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40

El Niño is responsible for:

a. altering both ocean currents and atmospheric circulation patterns b. increasing or lowering temperature c. altering only the ocean currents d. changing only wind circulations

a. altering both ocean currents and atmospheric circulation patterns

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41

A relatively distinct terrestrial region is known as what?

a. marine ecosystems b. biome c. mountain ranges d. ice caps

b. biome

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42

A biome more suitable for farmland is

a. tropical rainforests b. temperate grasslands c. deciduous forests d. deserts

b. temperate grasslands

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43

Why are grasslands the rarest biome?

a. it has the greatest amount of species in one place b. it has a static body of water that doesn’t move c. it has a high NPP d. it has been lost to farmland/conversion to agriculture

d. it has been lost to farmland/conversion to agriculture

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44

Which type of biome has the highest diversity? a. grasslands b. deciduous forests c. tropical rainforests d. the tundra

c. tropical rainforests

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45

The thermocline is the layer in the lake in which…

a. warmer water transitions to colder water b. the water freezes c. the water boils in warmer temperatures d. the water is at a consistent temperature

a. warmer water transitions to colder water

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46

Which of the following is not found at the boundary between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems?

a. intertidal zone b. benthic zone c. oceanic trench d. oceanic province

d. oceanic province

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47

Which of the following is not a human impact on the marine environment? a. point source pollution b. aquaculture c. overfishing d. increased levels of oxygen

d. increased levels of oxygen

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48

What are two indicators of human health?

a. infant mortality and life expectancy b. food consumption and air quality c. water quality and systems of healthcare d. total fertility and infant mortality

a. infant mortality and life expectancy

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49

The infant mortality rate in a developing country is most likely to be…

a. higher than in a highly developed country b. lower than a highly developed country c. lower than a developing country d. higher than a developing country

a. higher than in a highly developed country

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50

What are the two leading causes of death?

a. obesity and aging b. cardiovascular disease and cancer c. poor diet and lack of exercise d. smoking and environment

b. cardiovascular disease and cancer

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51

Which of the following is a leading cause of death in children? a. diarrheal diseases b. malnutrition c. AIDS/HIV d. all of the above

d. all of the above

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52

Which of the following may contribute to infectious disease?

a. poverty and social inequality b. growth in international travel and commerce c. evolution of diseases d. all of the above

d. all of the above

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53

Chemicals that are not broken down easily are known as?

a. Bacteria b. Persistence c. Decomposers d. Pathogens

b. Persistence

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54

Which of the following describes the build-up of pesticides in an organism’s body? a. bioaccumulation b. biomagnification c. rising contaminant levels d. decreasing contaminant levels

a. bioaccumulation

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55

What are pollutants that interfere with normal function hormones known as?

a. endocrine receptors b. endocrine mimics c. endocrine blockers d. endocrine disruptors

d. endocrine disruptors

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56

Which of the following represents the core discipline of environmental health? a. exposure assessment, toxicology, epidemiology b. total fertility and infant mortality c. water quality and systems of healthcare d. food consumption and air quality

a. exposure assessment, toxicology, epidemiology

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57

Which of the following approaches is not part of the US strategy for toxicity in humans?

a. computational modeling b. biochemical and cell-based assays c. animal-based assays d. long-term epidemiology studies

d. long-term epidemiology studies

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58

Which of the following describes long-term exposure conducted as sub-lethal dosage?

a. acute b. sub-chronic c. chronic

c. chronic

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59

A dose that is LD50…

a. kills 50% or half of the animals b. kills 100% or all of the animals c. is effective to test all or 100% of the animals d. causes 50% of the population to exhibit the effect studied

a. kills 50% or half of the animals

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60

What is the difference between toxicology and epidemiology?

a. toxicology is observational, and toxicology is controlled b. toxicology is experimental, and epidemiology is observational c. there is no difference, they are the same thing

b. toxicology is experimental, and epidemiology is observational

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61

Risk assessment involves all except… a. political and financial costs b. risk characterization c. exposure assessment d. dose-response assessment

a. political and financial costs

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62

Zero population growth is defined as

a. when the birth rate and death rate are equal b. when the population is reduced to zero c. when the death rate is increasing at an alarming rate

a. when the birth rate and death rate are equal

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63

Why has the human population sharply increased?

a. a decrease in death rate b. the growth rate has started to decline c. greater food production d. all of the above

d. all of the above

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64

In the pre-industrial stage:

a. only birth rate is high b. only death rate is high c. birth rate and the death rate are high

c. birth rate and the death rate are high

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65

Which of the following is not true of highly developed countries? a. they have low fertility rates b. they have high fertility rates c. they have slow growth rates

b. they have high fertility rates

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66

In each diagram shaped as a pyramid, what happens:

a. there is no increase or decline in growth b. slow growth c. increasing population growth rate

c. increasing population growth rate

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67

Areas that typically have no food are a. Sub-Africa and South Asia b. North America and the Caribbean c. Western Europe and the Middle East

a. Sub-Africa and South Asia

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68

Areas with the highest malnourishment have

a. lowest total fertility rates b. highest total fertility rates c. high mortality rates

b. highest total fertility rates

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69

What is true about cities?

a. Increasing population of elderly people b. An influx of young people c. Tends to lack diversity d. Attracts similar qualities to local rural areas

b. An influx of young people

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70

What characteristics define a megacity? a, A low number of residents b. Surrounding undeveloped suburbs c. Consists of rural communities d. Has approximately 10 million inhabitants

d. Has approximately 10 million inhabitants

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71

What is true about urbanization trends?

a. Most of the growth is happening in developing countries b. They are typically born in rural areas c. Emerging in developed countries

a. Most of the growth is happening in developing countries

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72

What are brownfields?

a. Specialized fields used by farmers to protect their crops b. Abandoned industrial or residential sites that may be contaminated from past use c. Navigation areas used by residents designed by city architects

b. Abandoned industrial or residential sites that may be contaminated from past use

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73

How has transportation affected the structure of cities?

a. as cities grow alongside public transit routes; transportation availability affects a city’s spatial structure b. an increasing number of people are using cars and gas-powered vehicles c. a lack of accessibility for walking to their designated destinations

a. as cities grow alongside public transit routes; transportation availability affects a city’s spatial structure

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74

Which of the following does not represent a “green architecture” feature? a. Wastewater recycling b. Efficient lighting c. Sustainable building materials d. All of them are green.

d. All of them are green.

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75

Which of the following human activities are completely clean: a. Transportation b. Industrial c. Electric power d. None of the energy sources are truly clean.

d. None of the energy sources are truly clean.

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76

Which country has the highest energy consumption per capita? a. United States b. Japan c. China d. Germany

a. United States

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77

Which two sectors account for the majority of the US? a. Industrial and Residential Power b. Transportation and Electric Power c. Coal and Renewable Energy d. Petroleum and Natural Gas

b. Transportation and Electric Power

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78

One example of an intermittent energy source includes a. advanced nuclear b. geothermal c. biomass d. wind

d. wind

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79

Which type of energy is cost competitive? a. geothermal b. biomass c. hydro d. solar thermal energy

a. geothermal

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80

Which of the following is a demand-side management strategy? a. Enforcing a strict rule for residents to modify their usage of electricity b. Watching educational advertisements on the installation of energy-efficient technologies c. Energy companies giving away free, energy-efficient light bulbs

c. Energy companies giving away free, energy-efficient light bulbs

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81

Which of the following statements about fossil fuels is not true?

a. It was formed in an oxygen-rich environment. b. They are combustible deposits in the Earth’s crust. c. It includes coal, oil, and natural gas d. They are a non-renewable resource.

a. It was formed in an oxygen-rich environment.

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82

How is burning fossil fuel affecting the carbon cycle? a. Causes fewer chemical compounds in living organisms. b. It prevents erosion c. There is a less likely chance of it dissolving carbon in the surrounding water. d. There is less carbon stored underground.

d. There is less carbon stored underground.

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83

Which of the following are linked to global warming? a. fossil fuel burning b. manufacturing goods c. overconsumption d. all of the above

d. all of the above

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84

The world's coal reserve, at the present rate of consumption, would last for:

a. 15 years b. Ten thousand years c. Two hundred years d. One million years

c. Two hundred years

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85

Which country has the most technically renewable gas reserves? a. United Kingdom b. Japan c. China d. India

c. China

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86

What energy source is projected for most electricity production in 2040?

a. Renewables b. Nuclear c. Natural gas d. Coal

c. Natural gas

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87

America's natural gas alliance is benefiting the industry by which the following?

a. Reducing carbon dioxide emissions b. Eliminates mercury emissions c. Terminates N0x emissions d. All of the above

d. All of the above

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88

What scenarios are thought to cause subsurface migration of fracking fluid and released gas into groundwater aquifers? a. fractures in cement b. fractures in rock overline shale c. both A and B

c. both A and B

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89

Which of the following pieces of legislation exempts the US natural gas industry from compliance with the safe drinking water act during hydraulic fracturing?

a. Energy Policy Act of 2005 b. The General Revision Act in 1891 c. Antiquities Act of 1906 d. Clean Water Act in 1987

a. Energy Policy Act of 2005

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90

In the future, what source of electricity will replace coal if China is pressured to lower emissions? a. Oil/petroleum b. Biomass c. Wind d. Natural Gas

d. Natural Gas

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91

What is NOT an emerging renewable energy? a. Nuclear b. Marine c. Concentrated solar photovoltaics d. Enhanced geothermal

a. Nuclear

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92

In the US, where is solar radiation the greatest?

a. Northwest b. The South c. The coasts d. Southwest

d. Southwest

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93

Which of the following does not involve solar energy?

a. biomass b. wind energy c. hydropower d. geothermal

d. geothermal

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94

What is a unique aspect of solar energy? a. It disperses the entire surface rather than concentrating in one area b. Plant materials aren’t used as fuel c. It is not readily available d. It’s a form of renewable energy reliant on static forms of nature, like still water

a. It disperses the entire surface rather than concentrating in one area

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95

The use of photovoltaic cells is limited by all of the following except? a. No pollution b. Minimal maintenance c. Used on any scale d. Inability to directly generate electricity

d. Inability to directly generate electricity

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96

Burning biomass is an act of: a. indirect use of solar energy b. greenhouse gas emission c. energy-used process specifically for transportation fuels d. electric or mechanical energy

a. indirect use of solar energy

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97

Which of the following is a liquid fuel that comes from biomass? a. Petrol b. Ethanol/Methanol c. Kerosene d. Diesel

b. Ethanol/Methanol

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98

Which source of renewable energy has the potential to decrease carbon emissions, and eliminate US dependence on gasoline transportation? a. Corn-based ethanol b. Cellulosic c. Sugarcane-based ethanol d. Gasoline

c. Sugarcane-based ethanol

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99

What does NOT apply to wind power?

a. It’s the least competitive of all forms of renewable energy b. World’s fastest-growing source of energy c. Potential to adversely affect birds and bats d. Wind results from the sun warming the atmosphere

a. It’s the least competitive of all forms of renewable energy

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100

The vast majority of the geothermal resources in the US are in

a. The Western coasts b. The Northeastern coasts c. The Southwest d. The West

a. The Western coasts

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