Immunology and Serology Flashcards

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A set of flashcards for reviewing key concepts in Immunology and Serology.

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98 Terms

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__ immunity is also known as Non-specific/Innate immunity.

Natural

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__ immunity is also known as Specific/Acquired immunity.

Adaptive

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In the first line of defense, __ prevent infectious agents from infecting the body.

anatomical barriers

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__ are the first responders and the most efficient phagocytic cells.

Neutrophils

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Examples of antigen-presenting cells include __.

dendritic cells, monocyte/macrophage

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Natural Killer Cells are primarily __ and kills virus-infected cells and tumor cells.

cytotoxic

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__ interferes with viral replication.

Interferons (INF)

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The third line of defense retains __, and includes specialized lymphocytes.

memory

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__: migration of WBCs from the capillaries to the surrounding tissue.

DIAPEDESIS

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__: cells are attracted to the site of inflammation by chemical substances

CHEMOTAXIS

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__ coat foreign cells & pathogens to make them more susceptible to phagocytosis.

Opsonins

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__ are normal serum constituents that increase by at least 25% due to infection, injury, or trauma to tissues.

Acute-Phase Reactants

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In __ Active immunity, antibody is produced by the host and duration of response is long.

Natural

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In Artificial __ immunity, antibody is NOT produced by the host and duration of response is short.

Passive

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__ cells other names: null cells, large granular lymphocytes, third population lymphocyte.

NK

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__ is used to be able to differentiate lymphocytes from each other.

FLOW CYTOMETRY

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__ are the site for T cells development.

Thymus

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__ are the site for both B cell development and hematopoiesis

Bone Marrow

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In peripheral lymphoid organs, __ acts as a lymphatic filter within the blood vascular tree.

Spleen

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The B cell surface marker __ is found on all stages of B cells.

CD20

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__ induces mitosis.

Mitogens

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__is the rearrangement of genes coding for Heavy chain and Light chain.

Pro-B cell

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__ is the appearance of mu chain.

Pre-B cell

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__is the appearance of surface IgM.

Immature B cell

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__is the appearance of surface IgM and IgD.

Mature B cell

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__is the appearance of CD25 (receptor for IL-2).

Activated B cell

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__is responsible for production of antibodies.

Plasma cell

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Genes coding for the MHC molecules in humans are found in the short arm of chromosome __.

6

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__ are Glycoproteins found in the serum portion of the blood.

IMMUNOGLOBULINS

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The 5 classes of immunoglobulins are _.

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD

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__ region is the flexible portion of antibody located bet. CH1 and CH2.

Hinge

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___ - cuts ab above the H region, resulting in 2 Fab fragments.

Papain

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___ - cuts ab below the H region, resulting in 1 F(ab)2 fragment.

Pepsin

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IgM is a __ (decavalent).

pentamer

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IgA1 is a __ (bivalent).

monomer

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IgA2 is a __ (tetravalent).

dimer

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IgD is used for __ and phylogenetically the most primitive among Igs.

immunoregulation

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IgE is also known as __ with affinity to mast cells

reaginic antibody

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A four-fold increase (or higher) of antibody titer indicates __.

current infection

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__ are small soluble proteins that regulate the immune system, orchestrating both innate immunity and the adaptive response to infection.

Cytokines

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___ enhances antigen presentation by MHC and is secreted by Th1 cells.

IFN-gamma

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___ has anti-inflammatory and suppressive effects on Th1 cells; antagonist to IFN-γ *secreted by Th2 cells.

IL-10

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___ mediates cytotoxic & inflammatory reactions triggered in the presence of LPS found in Gram-negative bacteria.

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF-alpha)

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The complement protein is mostly synthesized in the __.

LIVER

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The central convergence point of all 3 complement pathways is __.

C3

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The complement component with the highest conc in plasma is __.

C3

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The complement component with the highest MW is __.

C1q

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__ functions include induced smooth muscle contraction, increases capillary permeability, and causes release of histamine from mast cells.

Anaphylatoxins

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The complement component __ is an opsonin.

C3b

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The complement component __ is a chemotaxin and also an anaphylatoxin

C5a

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C1, C2, C4 complement deficiencies can lead to __ syndrome.

LE-like

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C5, C6,C7, C8 complement deficiencies can lead to __ infections.

Neisseria

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The most common complement component deficiency is __.

C2

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The most severe complement component deficiency is __.

C3

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__ is a good screening test to detect complement deficiency in classical pathway.

CH50 Hemolytic assay

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A __ is an exaggerated response to a harmless antigen that results in injury to the tissue, disease, or even death

Hypersensitivity

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Type IV hypersensitivity is also known as __ hypersensitivity.

Cell Mediated or delayed

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In Type 1 hypersensitivity the immune mediator is __.

IgE

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In Type II hypersensitivity the immune mediator is __.

IgG

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In Type III hypersensitivity the immune mediators are __.

IgM and IgG

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In Type IV hypersensitivity the immune mediator is __.

Sensitized T cell

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__ causes delayed hypersensitivity due to low-molecular weight compounds that have contact with the skin.

Contact dermatitis

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__ dilution represents the ratio of concentrated or stock material to the total final volume of a solution.

Dilution

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___ is defined as the reciprocal of the highest dilution of the patient’s serum in which the antibody is still detectable or had produced a positive result.

Antibody Titer

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In Ab + __ = insoluble complexes (Precipitation).

soluble Ag

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In Ab + __ = cellular aggregates (Agglutination).

particulate Ag

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__ is the initial force of attraction that exist between a single Fab and epitope of an antigen.

Affinity

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__is the sum total of all the forces that exist between multivalent Ab and multivalent Ag.

Avidity

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__is the failure due to excess Antibody.

Prozone

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__is the failure due to excess Antigen.

Postzone

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__Measures the decrease in light intensity in a solution of antibody–antigen complexes

Turbidimetry

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__Measures the amount of light scattered in a solution containing antibody–antigen complexes

Nephelometry

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__ uses a tube or column for precipitation reaction where Ab – incorporated with the agar gel and Ag – layered at the top of agar gel.

Single Diffusion in One Dimension - Oudin

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__ uses a tube or column for precipitation reaction where Ab – incorporated with the agar gel, Ag – layered at the top of agar gel, and plain agar is placed in between.

Double Diffusion in One Dimension - Oakley-Fulthorpe

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__uses a flat surface for precipitation reaction where Ab – incorporated with the agar gel and Ag – added to pre-cut wells.

Single Diffusion in Two Dimension - Radial Immunodiffusion

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__uses a flat surface for precipitation reaction where Both Ag and Ab diffuse independently in agar gel.

Double Diffusion in Two Dimension - Ouchterlony Double Diffusion

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___is RID + electrophoresis; Height / Apex of rocket = Ag concentration.

Rocket Immunoelectrophoresis

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In __, any change in shape, location and intensity of “precipitin arc” indicates an abnormality.

Countercurrent Immunoelectrophoresis

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___ is protein electrophoresis + immunodiffusion; Abnormal contour of precipitin arc may indicate monoclonal gammopathy.

Immunoelectrophoresis

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__ is protein electrophoresis + immunoprecipitation; ADV: identify what type of light chain and heavy chain involved.

Immunofixation Electrophoresis

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__ represents the stabilization of Ag-Ab complexes, formation of cross-links that form the visible aggregates.

Lattice Formation

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In __ agglutination, Ag is attached to the carrier particle.

Passive

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In __ agglutination, Ab is attached to the carrier particle.

Reverse Passive

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__ uses bacterial protein as inert particles to which Ab are attached.

Coagglutination

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__ agglutination - positive result is lack of agglutination; for viral infections like rubella, influenza, RSV.

Agglutination inhibition

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__ agglutination is Coomb’s test (DAT/IAT).

Antiglobulin-mediated

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__ uses a radioactive substance as a label

RIA (Radioimmunoassay)

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__ uses enzyme labels for immunoassays.

EIA (Enzyme Immunoassay)

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__ uses fluorophores or fluorochromes as labels

Fluorescent Immunoassay

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__ Blot is for Analysis of RNA fragments.

Northern

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__ Blot is for Analysis of DNA fragments.

Southern

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Elevated titer of __ is diagnostic for SLE.

Anti-dsDNA

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__ are autoimmune conditions in which damage to organs/tissues results from the presence of autoantibody/autoreactive cells.

AUTOIMMUNITY

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Rheumatoid factor (IgM auto antibody binds with fc portion of IgG) is the autoantibody present in __.

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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Anti-thyroglobulin is the autoantibody present in __.

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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Anti-acetyl choline receptor is the autoantibody present in __.

Myasthenia gravis

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Anti-parietal cells is the autoantibody present in __.

Pernicious anemia

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The __ are products of MHC/HLA WBC.

Bennett-Goodspeed