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A set of flashcards for reviewing key concepts in Immunology and Serology.
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__ immunity is also known as Non-specific/Innate immunity.
Natural
__ immunity is also known as Specific/Acquired immunity.
Adaptive
In the first line of defense, __ prevent infectious agents from infecting the body.
anatomical barriers
__ are the first responders and the most efficient phagocytic cells.
Neutrophils
Examples of antigen-presenting cells include __.
dendritic cells, monocyte/macrophage
Natural Killer Cells are primarily __ and kills virus-infected cells and tumor cells.
cytotoxic
__ interferes with viral replication.
Interferons (INF)
The third line of defense retains __, and includes specialized lymphocytes.
memory
__: migration of WBCs from the capillaries to the surrounding tissue.
DIAPEDESIS
__: cells are attracted to the site of inflammation by chemical substances
CHEMOTAXIS
__ coat foreign cells & pathogens to make them more susceptible to phagocytosis.
Opsonins
__ are normal serum constituents that increase by at least 25% due to infection, injury, or trauma to tissues.
Acute-Phase Reactants
In __ Active immunity, antibody is produced by the host and duration of response is long.
Natural
In Artificial __ immunity, antibody is NOT produced by the host and duration of response is short.
Passive
__ cells other names: null cells, large granular lymphocytes, third population lymphocyte.
NK
__ is used to be able to differentiate lymphocytes from each other.
FLOW CYTOMETRY
__ are the site for T cells development.
Thymus
__ are the site for both B cell development and hematopoiesis
Bone Marrow
In peripheral lymphoid organs, __ acts as a lymphatic filter within the blood vascular tree.
Spleen
The B cell surface marker __ is found on all stages of B cells.
CD20
__ induces mitosis.
Mitogens
__is the rearrangement of genes coding for Heavy chain and Light chain.
Pro-B cell
__ is the appearance of mu chain.
Pre-B cell
__is the appearance of surface IgM.
Immature B cell
__is the appearance of surface IgM and IgD.
Mature B cell
__is the appearance of CD25 (receptor for IL-2).
Activated B cell
__is responsible for production of antibodies.
Plasma cell
Genes coding for the MHC molecules in humans are found in the short arm of chromosome __.
6
__ are Glycoproteins found in the serum portion of the blood.
IMMUNOGLOBULINS
The 5 classes of immunoglobulins are _.
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD
__ region is the flexible portion of antibody located bet. CH1 and CH2.
Hinge
___ - cuts ab above the H region, resulting in 2 Fab fragments.
Papain
___ - cuts ab below the H region, resulting in 1 F(ab)2 fragment.
Pepsin
IgM is a __ (decavalent).
pentamer
IgA1 is a __ (bivalent).
monomer
IgA2 is a __ (tetravalent).
dimer
IgD is used for __ and phylogenetically the most primitive among Igs.
immunoregulation
IgE is also known as __ with affinity to mast cells
reaginic antibody
A four-fold increase (or higher) of antibody titer indicates __.
current infection
__ are small soluble proteins that regulate the immune system, orchestrating both innate immunity and the adaptive response to infection.
Cytokines
___ enhances antigen presentation by MHC and is secreted by Th1 cells.
IFN-gamma
___ has anti-inflammatory and suppressive effects on Th1 cells; antagonist to IFN-γ *secreted by Th2 cells.
IL-10
___ mediates cytotoxic & inflammatory reactions triggered in the presence of LPS found in Gram-negative bacteria.
Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF-alpha)
The complement protein is mostly synthesized in the __.
LIVER
The central convergence point of all 3 complement pathways is __.
C3
The complement component with the highest conc in plasma is __.
C3
The complement component with the highest MW is __.
C1q
__ functions include induced smooth muscle contraction, increases capillary permeability, and causes release of histamine from mast cells.
Anaphylatoxins
The complement component __ is an opsonin.
C3b
The complement component __ is a chemotaxin and also an anaphylatoxin
C5a
C1, C2, C4 complement deficiencies can lead to __ syndrome.
LE-like
C5, C6,C7, C8 complement deficiencies can lead to __ infections.
Neisseria
The most common complement component deficiency is __.
C2
The most severe complement component deficiency is __.
C3
__ is a good screening test to detect complement deficiency in classical pathway.
CH50 Hemolytic assay
A __ is an exaggerated response to a harmless antigen that results in injury to the tissue, disease, or even death
Hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity is also known as __ hypersensitivity.
Cell Mediated or delayed
In Type 1 hypersensitivity the immune mediator is __.
IgE
In Type II hypersensitivity the immune mediator is __.
IgG
In Type III hypersensitivity the immune mediators are __.
IgM and IgG
In Type IV hypersensitivity the immune mediator is __.
Sensitized T cell
__ causes delayed hypersensitivity due to low-molecular weight compounds that have contact with the skin.
Contact dermatitis
__ dilution represents the ratio of concentrated or stock material to the total final volume of a solution.
Dilution
___ is defined as the reciprocal of the highest dilution of the patient’s serum in which the antibody is still detectable or had produced a positive result.
Antibody Titer
In Ab + __ = insoluble complexes (Precipitation).
soluble Ag
In Ab + __ = cellular aggregates (Agglutination).
particulate Ag
__ is the initial force of attraction that exist between a single Fab and epitope of an antigen.
Affinity
__is the sum total of all the forces that exist between multivalent Ab and multivalent Ag.
Avidity
__is the failure due to excess Antibody.
Prozone
__is the failure due to excess Antigen.
Postzone
__Measures the decrease in light intensity in a solution of antibody–antigen complexes
Turbidimetry
__Measures the amount of light scattered in a solution containing antibody–antigen complexes
Nephelometry
__ uses a tube or column for precipitation reaction where Ab – incorporated with the agar gel and Ag – layered at the top of agar gel.
Single Diffusion in One Dimension - Oudin
__ uses a tube or column for precipitation reaction where Ab – incorporated with the agar gel, Ag – layered at the top of agar gel, and plain agar is placed in between.
Double Diffusion in One Dimension - Oakley-Fulthorpe
__uses a flat surface for precipitation reaction where Ab – incorporated with the agar gel and Ag – added to pre-cut wells.
Single Diffusion in Two Dimension - Radial Immunodiffusion
__uses a flat surface for precipitation reaction where Both Ag and Ab diffuse independently in agar gel.
Double Diffusion in Two Dimension - Ouchterlony Double Diffusion
___is RID + electrophoresis; Height / Apex of rocket = Ag concentration.
Rocket Immunoelectrophoresis
In __, any change in shape, location and intensity of “precipitin arc” indicates an abnormality.
Countercurrent Immunoelectrophoresis
___ is protein electrophoresis + immunodiffusion; Abnormal contour of precipitin arc may indicate monoclonal gammopathy.
Immunoelectrophoresis
__ is protein electrophoresis + immunoprecipitation; ADV: identify what type of light chain and heavy chain involved.
Immunofixation Electrophoresis
__ represents the stabilization of Ag-Ab complexes, formation of cross-links that form the visible aggregates.
Lattice Formation
In __ agglutination, Ag is attached to the carrier particle.
Passive
In __ agglutination, Ab is attached to the carrier particle.
Reverse Passive
__ uses bacterial protein as inert particles to which Ab are attached.
Coagglutination
__ agglutination - positive result is lack of agglutination; for viral infections like rubella, influenza, RSV.
Agglutination inhibition
__ agglutination is Coomb’s test (DAT/IAT).
Antiglobulin-mediated
__ uses a radioactive substance as a label
RIA (Radioimmunoassay)
__ uses enzyme labels for immunoassays.
EIA (Enzyme Immunoassay)
__ uses fluorophores or fluorochromes as labels
Fluorescent Immunoassay
__ Blot is for Analysis of RNA fragments.
Northern
__ Blot is for Analysis of DNA fragments.
Southern
Elevated titer of __ is diagnostic for SLE.
Anti-dsDNA
__ are autoimmune conditions in which damage to organs/tissues results from the presence of autoantibody/autoreactive cells.
AUTOIMMUNITY
Rheumatoid factor (IgM auto antibody binds with fc portion of IgG) is the autoantibody present in __.
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Anti-thyroglobulin is the autoantibody present in __.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Anti-acetyl choline receptor is the autoantibody present in __.
Myasthenia gravis
Anti-parietal cells is the autoantibody present in __.
Pernicious anemia
The __ are products of MHC/HLA WBC.
Bennett-Goodspeed