N302 revision MCQs

Question 1:
A person increases their fluid intake and has to make several trips to the toilet. This increase in urination reflects an increase in what process occurring in the kidneys?
a. filtration
b. dialysis
c. osmosis
d. diffusion

filtration

Question 2:
The term used to describe the type of solution in which cells will lose water to their environment is:
a. hypertonic
b. isotonic
c. hypotonic
d. catatonic

hypertonic

Question 3:
Osmosis always involves:
a. all answers
b. diffusion
c. a difference in solvent concentration
d. a differentially permeable membrane

all answers

Question 4:
The loop diuretics alter active transport systems in the kidney tubules, resulting in increased excretion of sodium and secondarily, water. The principle explaining the secondary water loss (diuresis) is:
a. osmosis
b. diffusion
c. filtration
d. active transport

osmosis

Question 5:
The sensation of touch and pressure are picked up by receptors located in:
a. the dermis
b. the stratum germinativum
c. the hypodermis
d. the stratum corneum

the dermis

Question 6:
The membranous lining of body cavities open to the exterior is:
a. mucous membrane
b. endothelium
c. cutaneous membrane
d. serous membrane

mucous membrane

Question 7:
The remodeling of bone is a function of which of these cells?
a. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
b. chondrocytes and osteocytes
c. chondroblasts and osteoclasts
d. osteoblasts and osteocytes

osteoblasts and osteoclasts

Question 8:
Bone growth during childhood and in adults is regulated and directed by:
a. all answers
b. sex hormones
c. thyroxine
d. growth hormone

all answers

Question 9:
Formation of the bony callus in fracture repair is followed by:
a. bone remodelling to convert woven bone to compact bone
b. haematoma formation
c. fibrocartilaginous callus formation
d. formation of granulation tissue

bone remodelling to convert woven bone to compact bone

Question 10:
A fracture in which the bone ends penetrate soft tissue is:
a. compound
b. greenstick
c. simple
d. comminuted

compound

Question 11:
The disorder in which bones are porous and thin but bone composition is normal is:
a. osteoporosis
b. osteomalacia
c. Paget’s disease
d. rickets

osteporosis

Question 12:
Extracellular fluids in the body consist of:
a. all answers
b. interstitial fluid, blood plasma, lymph
c. cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, serous fluids
d. aqueous humor, perilymph, endolymph

all answers

Question 13:
The principal ions in the extracellular fluid (ECF) are:
a. sodium, chloride and bicarbonate
b. potassium, magnesium and phosphate
c. phosphate, sulphate, magnesium
d. potassium, ammonium, and chloride

sodium, chlorides and bicarbonate

Question 14:
The two important effects of increased release of ADH are:
a. reduction of urinary water losses and stimulation of the thirst centre
b. increased rate of sodium absorption and decreased thirst
c. decrease in the plasma volume and elimination of the source of stimulation
d. decrease in plasma osmolarity and alteration of composition of tissue fluid

reduction of urinary water losses and stimulation of the thirst centre

Question 15:
The concentration of potassium in the ECF is controlled by adjustments in the rate of active secretion:
a. along the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron
b. in the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron
c. in the loop of Henle
d. along the collecting tubules

along the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron

Question 16:
The major contributors to the osmolarities of the ECF and the ICF are:
a. sodium and potassium
b. ADH and aldosterone
c. renin and angiotensin
d. chloride and bicarbonate

sodium and potassium

Question 17:
When carbon dioxide concentrations rise, additional hydrogen ions are excreted and the:
a. pH goes up
b. pH goes down
c. pH remains the same
d. pH is not affected

pH goes up

Question 18:
Blood gas analysis indicates a patient has respiratory alkalosis. Respiratory alkalosis develops when respiratory activity:
a. lowers plasma Pco2 to below-normal levels
b. raises plasma Pco2 to above-normal levels
c. decreases plasma Po2 to below-normal levels
d. when Pco2 levels are not affected

lowers plasma Pco2 to below-normal levels

Question 19:
When assessing a toddler with near-drowning, which of the following acid-base imbalances would the nurse expect to find?
a. respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis
b. respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis
d. respiratory alkalosis and metabolic alkalosis

respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis

Question 20:
When renal function is interrupted:
a. all answers
b. acid-base abnormalities occur
c. fluid and electrolytes are out of balance
d. endocrine and metabolic malfunctions take place

all answers

Question 21:
A patient with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis has oliguria. He will therefore have:

His fluid intake restricted.

His fluid intake increased.

No urinary output.

A low urinary output.


a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3

1 and 4

Question 22:
The primary immune response involves:
a. A latent period followed by peak antibody production
b. a rapid plasma cell response with peak antibody by three days
c. macrophage production of antibodies
d. T-cell production of antibodies

a latent period followed by peak antibody production

Question 23:
As a result of pulmonary tuberculosis, Mr Josh has a decreased surface area for gaseous exchange in his lungs. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs by:
a. diffusion
b. active transport
c. filtration
d. osmosis

diffusion

Question 24:
The urinalysis of a toddler diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome reveals +4 for protein. The nurse interprets this result as indicating which of the following?
a. increased glomerular permeability to albumin
b. decreased secretion of aldosterone
c. inhibited tubular reabsorption of sodium and water
d. loss of red blood cells in the urine

increased glomeluar permeablity to albumin

Question 25:
A (CVP) central venous pressure line (subclavian) is inserted to monitor a client’s CVP. The purpose of this measurement is to:
a. determine the need for fluid replacement
b. assess the vital signs more accurately
c. determine if pulmonary oedema is developing
d. assess the pulmonary state

determine the need for fluid replacement

Question 26:
The nurse recognises that a 78-year-old woman is at risk for osteoporosis because a normal hormonal change associated with aging includes:
a. decreased production of oestrogen
b. increased production of calcitonin
c. increased production of testosterone
d. decreased production of parathyroid hormone (parathormone)

decreased production of oestrogen

Question 27:
Cortisol:
a. increases protein metabolism
b. decreases blood sugar
c. increases immune response
d. increases allergic reactions

increases protein metabolism

Question 28:
A patient is hospitalised with hypernatremia. The nurse recognises that the primary difference between hypernatremia (water deficit) and extracellular fluid volume deficit is that:
a. extracellular fluid volume deficit is an isotonic deficit of body fluids
b. extracellular fluid volume deficit is more easily treated than hypernatremia
c. hypernatremia is always caused by excessive sodium intake in relationship to water intake
d. extracellular fluid volume deficit causes more serious alterations in normal body processes than does hypernatremia

extracellular fluid volume defiscit is an isotonic defecit of body fluids

Question 29:
Liver disease is characterised by decreased plasma proteins in the blood and obstruction of venous return to the heart. The nurse recognises that these two factors result in:


a. oedema. Both decreased plasma oncotic pressure and increased venous hydrostatic pressure cause movement of fluid into the interstitium


b. dehydration. The increased venous hydrostatic pressure forces more fluid through the kidney to be excreted


c. vascular overload. Both the plasma oncotic pressure and the venous hydrostatic pressure are increased, keeping fluid in the vascular space
'

d. normal fluid balance. Fluid movement is equalised by the decreased plasma oncotic pressure and the increased venous hydrostatic pressure

oedema. Both decreased plasma oncotic pressure and increased venous hydrostatic pressure cause movement of fluid into the interstitium


Question 30:
Anaphylaxis may result in which main classic symptoms:
a. wheeze, stridor, dyspnoea and respiratory arrest
b. confusion, coughing up pink frothy sputum
c. hypertension, bradycardia and diarrhoea
d. palpitations, pupil constriction and bradycardia

wheeze, stridor, dyspnoea and respiratory arrest

Question 31:
While monitoring a patient's cardiac activity, the nurse recognises that the normal physiologic mechanism responsible for an increase in heart rate and force of cardiac contractions is stimulation of:
a. baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus
b. the vagus nerve
c. alpha-adrenergic receptors in the vascular system
d. chemoreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid body

baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinus


Question 32:
In essential hypertension:
a. Peripheral resistance increases which directly increases diastolic blood pressure
b. Peripheral resistance increases which directly increases systolic blood pressure
c. Heart rate increases to compensate for the initial increase in cardiac output
d. Stroke volume increases due to the increase in diastolic blood pressure

Peripheral resistance increases which directly increases diastolic blood pressure

Question 33:
The nurse teaches a patient with hypertension that uncontrolled hypertension may damage organs in the body primarily by:
a. promoting atherosclerosis and damage of the walls of the arteries
b. thickening capillary membranes leading to hypoxia of organ systems
c. causing direct pressure on organs resulting in necrosis and replacement of cells with scar tissue
d. increasing the viscosity of the blood contributing to intravascular coagulation and necrosis of tissue distal to occlusions

promoting atherosclerosis and damage of the walls of the arteries

Question 34:
A hormone not involved in sugar metabolism is:
a. aldosterone
b. glucagon
c. cortisone
d. insulin

aldosterone

Question 35:
The transmission of sound vibrations through the inner ear occurs chiefly through:
a. fluid
b. nerve fibres
c. air
d. bone

fluid

Question 36:
A patient with a severe allergic reaction is treated with adrenaline. The nurse recognises that the rationale for the use of adrenaline is that adrenaline opposes the effects of:
a. histamine
b. lymphokines
c. interleukin-2
d. lysosomal enzymes

histamine

Question 37:
A nurse determines that fluid replacement for a patient with major burns is adequate based on the finding of:
a. a urinary output of 40 ml/hr
b. a stable weight
c. a blood pressure of 90/58
d. an intake equal to urinary output

a urinary output of 40ml/hr

Question 38:
When an individual is burned there is massive cell destruction resulting in a disruption of the normal homeostasis of the body. The nurse anticipates that the client will be susceptible to which of the following in the early phase of burn care?
a. hyperkalemia
b. hypernatremia
c. hyponatremia
d. metabolic alkalosis

hyperkalemia

Question 39:
A client with acute renal failure becomes confused and irritable. The nurse realises that this behaviour may be caused by:
a. an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
b. hyperkalemia
c. hypernatremia
d. limited fluid intake

an elevated blood urea nitrogen

Question 40:
The primary site of regulating water, sodium, and potassium ion loss in the nephron is the:
a. loop of Henle and collecting duct
b. distal convoluted tubule
c. proximal convoluted tubule
d. glomerulus

loop of Henle and collecting duct

Question 41:
Before the large vitamin B12 molecule can be absorbed, it must be bound to:
a. intrinsic factor
b. the gastric epithelium
c. another water-soluble vitamin
d. vitamin C

intrinsic factor

Question 42:
The nurse establishes a nursing diagnosis of excess fluid volume causing oedema for a patient. A possible aetiology for this nursing diagnosis is:
a. protein deficiency
b. pulmonary oedema
c. diuretic therapy
d. ascites

protein deficiency

Question 43:
If there is adequate carbohydrate intake, secretion of insulin results in:
a. all answers
b. lower blood sugar levels
c. increased cell utilisation of glucose
d. storage of glycogen

all answers

Question 44:
In evaluating a patient's inflammatory response, the nurse understands that activation of the classical complement pathway to mediate an inflammatory response is stimulated by:
a. an antigen-antibody complex
b. lysis of bacterial cells
c. monocyte diapedesis to injured tissue
d. release of histamine from injured cells

an antigen-antibody complex

Question 45:
Following bowel surgery, a patient has been receiving normal saline IV fluids at 100 ml/hr, has a nasogastric tube and is NPM. An assessment finding that would alert the nurse to a major fluid and electrolyte problem is:
a. a decreasing level of consciousness
b. weight gain
c. flushed, moist skin
d. a serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L)

decreasing level of conciousness

Question 46:
Which of the following compensatory actions by the body would occur if a client were in respiratory acidosis?
a. Retention of HCO3– by the kidneys
b. Increase in respiratory rate by the lungs
c. Decrease in respiratory rate by the lungs
d. Excretion of HCO3– by the kidneys

retention of HCO3 by the kidneys

Question 47:
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has a barrel chest. The nurse would expect the results of a chest x-ray to reveal:
a. Over-inflation of the alveoli with air
b. fluid in the alveoli
c. air in the pleural space
d. consolidation of lung tissue with mucus and exudate

over inflation of the alveoli with air

Question 48:
The most effective means of increasing alveolar ventilation is:
a. breathe slowly and deeply
b. increase rapid shallow breathing
c. breathe normally
d. increase total pulmonary circulation

breathe slowly and deeply

Question 49:
Freshly oxygenated blood is first received by the:
a. left atrium
b. right atrium
c. right ventricle
d. left ventricle

left atrium

Question 50:
The baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies are sensitive to:
a. changes in arterial pressure
b. a decrease in carbon dioxide
c. a decrease in oxygen
d. all answers

changes in arterial pressure

Question 51:
Damage to which of the following would result in cessation of breathing:
a. the medulla
b. the pneumotaxic centre
c. the stretch receptors in the lung
d. the apneustic centre

the emdulla

Question 52:
The parasympathetic nervous system influences digestion by:
a. stimulating peristalsis and secretory activity
b. relaxing smooth muscle
c. constricting sphincters
d. none of the above

stimulating peristalsis and secretory activity

Question 53:
The gallbladder:
a. stores and concentrates bile
b. produces bile
c. is attached to the pancreas
d. produces secretin

stores and concentrates bile

Question 54:
The formation of glucose from glycogen is:
a. glycogenolysis
b. gluconeogenesis
c. glycogenesis
d. glycolysis

glycogenolysis

Question 55:
Conditions such as diabetes mellitus, starvation and low carbohydrate diets are closely linked to:
a. ketosis
b. pyuria
c. albuminuria
d. haematuria

ketosis

Question 56:
In a patient with metabolic acidosis a clue that the respiratory system is compensating is provided by:
a. rapid, deep breathing
b. high blood bicarbonate levels
c. low blood bicarbonate levels
d. slow, shallow breathing

rapid, deep breathing

Question 57:
Which of the following cannot pass through the placental barrier:
a. blood cells
b. glucose
c. amino acids
d. antibodies

blood cells

Question 58:
To control bleeding in a child with haemophilia A, the nurse would expect to give:
a. Factor VIII concentrate
b. albumin
c. Fresh frozen plasma
d. Factor II, VII, IX, X complex

Factor VIII concentrate

Question 59:
The nurse administers serum albumin to a client to assist in:
a. maintenance of oncotic pressure
b. clotting of the blood
c. formation of red blood cells
d. activation of white blood cells

maintenance of oncotic pressure

Question 60:
Erythropoietin: which of the following answer about erythropoietin is incorrect:
a. is released by the kidney to stimulate erythrocyte and platelet formation
b. Causes a rise in circulatory red blood cells
c. is a glycoprotein
d. Is produced by the kidney

s released by the kidney to stimulate erythrocyte and platelet formation

Question 1:
Cultural safety refers to?
a. The beliefs and practices common to a group of people
b. The beliefs we hold of a particular group of people
c. Ethnicity
d. Indigenous people and how they live

The beliefs and practices common to a group of people


Question 2:
Irihapeti Ramsden
a. had nothing to do with cultural safety
b. reviewed cultural safety for NCNZ
c. composed the notion of cultural safety
d. created the 3 P's

reviewed cultural safety for NCNZ


Question 3:
Cultural safety in health is a
a. Religious issue
b. Relationship with the crown
c. Relationship with Pakeha
d. Power relationship issue

Question 4:
Culturally safety is determined by the
a. Recipient of care
b. Provider of care
c. Nurse
d. Health care team

Question 5:
Tino rangatiratanga is a principle of
a. Cultural safety
b. Māori health
c. Treaty of Waitangi
d. Code of Rights

treaty of wiatangi

Question 6:
Bi-culturalism in relation to the Treaty of Waitangi means
a. a relationship between different cultures
b. a relationship between Māori and all other cultures
c. a relationship between any two cultures
d. a relationship between indigenous people

a relationship between Māori and all other cultures


Question 7:
Unsafe cultural practice
a. is only applicable to certain ethnicity
b. occurs when a nurse is clinically incompetent
c. are actions that demean someone's cultural identity
d. occurs only when nurses care for Māori patients

are actions that demean someone's cultural identity


Question 8:
A pre-requisite to being culturally safe is
a. Understanding diverse cultures
b. Understanding your patient's culture
c. Understanding your own culture
d. Understanding minority groups

Understanding your own culture

Question 9:
Inequalities and disparities in Māori health can be addressed by
a. Government policy only
b. Money from Māori land claim settlements
c. Forming partnerships with local Māori
d. Providing everyone with the same health care resources

Forming partnerships with local Māori


Question 10:
Culture is best described as
a. Your identity as a person
b. The values, morals, and customs shared by a society
c. The language people use
d. Being grounded in religion

The values, morals, and customs shared by a society

Question 11:
A Māori term closely associated with cultural safety is
a. Aroha
b. Mana
c. Manaakitanga
d. Kawa whakaruruhau

Kawa whakaruruhau

Question 12:
The NCNZ introduced cultural safety into nursing curricula in
a. 1989
b. 1990
c. 1991
d. 1995

1990

Question 13:
To practice in a manner that is culturally safe is a
a. NCNZ Competency
b. NZNO Code
c. PHO requirement
d. Ethical requirement

NCNZ Competency

Question 14:
Through convention, the Articles of Te Tiriti o Waitangi have been interpreted and expressed through a set of principles. The NCNZ considers relevant principles to include:
a. Self-determination, partnership, equity
b. Partnership, protection and parallelism
c. Partnership, protection and pursuance
d. Partnership, protection and participation

Self-determination, partnership, equity

Question 15:
The process of cultural safety in nursing practice includes


a. Cultural safety then cultural sensitivity then cultural awareness


b. Cultural awareness then cultural sensitivity then cultural competence


c. Cultural awareness then cultural sensitivity then cultural safety


d. Cultural competence then cultural sensitivity then cultural awareness

Cultural awareness then cultural sensitivity then cultural safety


Question 16:
Cultural safety is underpinned by
a. Communication, health belief and colonisation
b. Communication, diverse worldviews and colonisation
c. Communication, health beliefs and bi-culturalism
d. Communication, diverse worldviews and bi-culturalism

Communication, diverse worldviews and colonisation


Question 17:
Nurses are expected to practice culturally safe because
a. NZNO manifesto requires it
b. NCNZ Code of Conduct requires it
c. Treaty of Waitangi principles requires it
d. Bill of rights requires it

Treaty of Waitangi principles requires it

Question 18:
Cultural safety in health care is relevant to
a. All health professionals
b. Only regulated health professionals
c. Only nurses
d. Nurses and doctors

all health proffesinals

Question 19:
A patient becomes culturally unsafe if a nurse
a. provides health education to her patient
b. did not commence life support on her patient
c. imposes her own beliefs on her patient
d. explains professional boundaries to her patient

imposes her own beleifs on her patient

Question 20:
An essential component of cultural safety is to
a. Prevent errors and improve health care
b. Acknowledge the Treaty of Waitangi
c. Provide the same care to all
d. Follow the Code of Rights

acknowledge the treaty of waitangi

Question 21:
A strong safety culture has the following characteristics in common:


a. Communication, ritualistic, caring and cooperation


b. Communication, instructive, caring and cooperation
c. Communication, directive, caring and cooperation


d. Communication, commitment, caring and cooperation

Communication, commitment, caring and cooperation

Question 22:
Student nurses will
a. examine their own realities and the attitudes they bring to each new person they encounter in their practice
b. examine the patient's realities and the attitudes they bring
c. explore the religious beliefs of their patients as a first step
d. determine the ethnicity of their patient so as to better serve them

examine their own realities and the attitudes they bring to each new person they encounter in their practice


Question 23:
Cultural safety has a close focus on
a. quality improvement in service delivery and consumer rights
b. applying social science concepts that underpin the art of nursing practice
c. gender and sexual orientation
d. balancing the power relationships in the practice of nursing so that every consumer receives an effective service

balancing the power relationships in the practice of nursing so that every consumer receives an effective service

Question 24:
The Treaty of Waitangi affirms Māori as
a. Iwi and hapu
b. Tangata whenua
c. Manuhiri
d. New Zealand taonga

tanagata whenua

Question 25:
The nursing workforce recognises the citizen rights of Māori and the rights to equitable access and participation in health services and delivery at all levels through:
a. the Nursing Council as a Crown agent
b. facilitating the same access and opportunities for Māori as there are for non-Māori
c. the context and delivery of education
d. Māori student attendance at the annual Māori Student Nurse Hui

facilitating the same access and opportunities for Māori as there are for non-Māori

Question 26:
A child who is very sick with a temperature of 39.2°C, and their whanau would like to hold a spiritual meeting. Your most appropriate action would be:
a. Move the patient to a single room
b. Ask the family what they need to hold the spiritual meeting
c. Show the whanau to the whanau room
d. Inform the whanau that only 2 people are allowed to visit the child

Ask the family what they need to hold the spiritual meeting

Question 27:
Parents of a terminally ill Māori child would like to assist with the care of their child. You can best support them by:
a. Allowing them to stay by the bedside
b. Offer food and drinks during their stay while they care for their child
c. Teach them how to administer subcutaneous pain relief
d. Give them time to say Karakia

Allowing them to stay by the bedside

Question 28:
Who determines when culturally safe care has been delivered?
a. The patient and/or their whanau
b. The nurse
c. The doctor
d. Hospital policy and guidelines

The patient and/or their whanau


Question 29:
A patient has been given a terminal diagnosis. They ask you “am I going to die?”. Your most appropriate nursing response would be:
a. Acknowledge the concern and encourage them to discuss their understanding of their diagnosis
b. Everything will be fine
c. Let me get the doctor for you to discuss your diagnosis
d. Change the subject and divert the patient's attention

Acknowledge the concern and encourage them to discuss their understanding of their diagnosis


Question 30:
A patient who had been recently diagnosed with diabetes tells you they are scared about giving themselves an injection. What would be your best response?
a. What is it about the injection that concerns you?
b. Don’t worry, you will get used to it
c. It’s easy, what’s wrong with you?
d. Can your wife help you with giving the injection?

What is it about the injection that concerns you?

Question 31:
Mable is admitted to hospital for elective surgery. She gives you a copy of a legal document stating that, in the event of her death or serious illness, her companion of 20 years will have the rights of next of kin and supersede her family. Your best response is:
a. Suggest that Mary discuss this matter with her family prior to surgery
b. Ensure that the surgical team are aware of Mary’s request
c. Reassure Mary that clients rarely die during elective surgery
d. Tell Mary that this is very unusual and will be discussed further

Ensure that the surgical team are aware of Mary’s request

Question 32:
You and your preceptor are caring for a terminally ill patient. You express that you have not come across a dying patient before and do not know what to do. The most appropriate nursing response would be for the preceptor to:
a. Acknowledge the student’s concerns and help prepare them on what they can expect
b. Tell the student that it is a normal part of the job
c. Tell the student that they had never come across this situation before and don’t know what to do either
d. Send the student to review the hospital policies

Acknowledge the student’s concerns and help prepare them on what they can expect

Question 33:
What is a multidisciplinary team meeting?
a. A meeting between health professionals going over individual cases
b. A meeting to improve patient safety on the ward
c. A meeting between doctors and nurses going over individual cases
d. A meeting between doctors and whanau going over individual cases

A meeting between health professionals going over individual cases


Question 34:
There is a fire on the unit and you are asked to evacuate the patients. What is the correct procedure?
a. Move all the patients from the fire zone to the adjacent non-fire zone
b. Ask the mobile patients to help move the non-mobile patients to the non-fire zone
c. Move the immobile patients first and ask the mobile patients to evacuate themselves
d. Leave the immobile patients for the fire service to rescue them

Leave the immobile patients for the fire service to rescue them

Question 35:
A patient says that’s a different colour to my usual tablet. What would be your next action?
a. Tell the patient that you will go and re-check the medication and come back
b. Tell the patient that sometimes the pharmacist substitutes brands but it is the same medication
c. Reassure the patient that it is the same medication as prescribed by the doctor
d. Tell the patient that there is nothing to worry about

Tell the patient that you will go and re-check the medication and come back


Question 36:
You come across a nurse who is accessing records of a patient in a different clinical area. What do you think of this situation?
a. This breaches professional standards and practice
b. Only doctors can access patient records in a different clinical area
c. This is appropriate as long as the nurse knows the patient
d. If this is only the first time, you can let it slide – we all make mistakes

This breaches professional standards and practice

Question 37:
Mr and Mrs B were emotionally upset when their baby girl, Sue, was born with a cleft palate and double cleft lip. The nurse, in order to give the most support to the parents, should:
a. Encourage them to express their worries and fears
b. Discourage them from talking about the baby
c. Tell them not to worry because the defect can be repaired
d. Show them post-operative photographs of babies who had similar defects

Encourage them to express their worries and fears


Question 38:
Which of the following best describes the foundation of effective interpersonal relationships in nursing?
a. Assertiveness
b. Empathy
c. Efficiency
d. Authority

empathy

Question 39:
In a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship, what is the primary focus?
a. Meeting the nurse’s professional goals
b. The patient’s needs and well-being
c. Ensuring the patient agrees with the nurse's recommendations
d. Following hospital policies strictly

The patient’s needs and well-being


Question 40:
Active listening during patient interaction includes which of the following behaviours?
a. Giving advice immediately
b. Maintaining eye contact and using verbal and non-verbal cues
c. Formulating a response while the patient is speaking
d. Multitasking while listening to the patient

Maintaining eye contact and using verbal and non-verbal cues