Rutgers Biology Exam 1 (115)

studied byStudied by 1 person
0.0(0)
get a hint
hint

You are studying a poison that interferes with the process of protein transport. You have determined that this poison inhibits the formation of vesicles by the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Hypothesize which of the following steps in protein transport STILL OCCUR despite the cell being exposed to the poison?

I. Tertiary folding of the polypeptide.

II. Exocytosis of the protein

III. Formation of the mRNA

IV. Hydrolysis of peptide bonds

V. Protein modification in Golgi Apparatus

A. II only

B. I, III, and IV

C. II, III, and V

D. II and V

1 / 139

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no one added any tags here yet for you.

140 Terms

1

You are studying a poison that interferes with the process of protein transport. You have determined that this poison inhibits the formation of vesicles by the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Hypothesize which of the following steps in protein transport STILL OCCUR despite the cell being exposed to the poison?

I. Tertiary folding of the polypeptide.

II. Exocytosis of the protein

III. Formation of the mRNA

IV. Hydrolysis of peptide bonds

V. Protein modification in Golgi Apparatus

A. II only

B. I, III, and IV

C. II, III, and V

D. II and V

B. I, III, and IV

New cards
2

If an organism is incapable of neuronal plasticity, which of the following will still occur.

A. removal of existing synapses

B. neuronal development

C. encoding to short-term memory

D. retrieval from long-term memory

B. neuronal development

New cards
3

Compare and contrast the components of a chloroplast. Photosystem II is located in the ______________ and the Calvin cycle occurs in the ______________.

A. outer membrane, cytosol

B. thylakoid membrane, stroma

C. inner membrane, thylakoid

D. stroma, thylakoid membrane

B. thylakoid membrane, stroma

New cards
4

The oxygen molecules that are used in the mitochondrion during cell respiration move into the cell because they:

A. are actively transported against their concentration gradient.

B. cycle through ATP synthase.

C. bind to transmembrane proteins which produce channels in the membrane.

D. follow their concentration gradient.

D. follow their concentration gradient.

New cards
5

Compare and contrast organelles. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus?

I. Both organelles are contiguous with the nuclear envelope.

II. Both the Golgi and ER are studded with ribosomes.

III. The ER is involved both protein synthesis and modification, the Golgi only with protein synthesis.

IV. The Golgi is a set of separate compartments while the ER has a single continuous lumen.

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. IV only

D. III only

C. IV only

New cards
6

The human small intestine has a pH of about 5.5, the human stomach has a pH of 2. Diagnose the result of taking a medication that lowers the pH in the intestine to the same as in the stomach? The intestinal enzymes _________

A. will stimulate an abnormally high rate of digestion.

B. will denature and will no longer be biologically active.

C. will function properly and begin to digest materials in the stomach.

D. will raise the pH of the stomach and begin to function.

B. will denature and will no longer be biologically active.

New cards
7

Identify which of the following statements are functions of enzymes in biological systems.

I. lower the activation energy needed for a reaction

II. increase the rate of chemical reactions in cells

III. physically bring together two reactants

IV. facilitate the breaking of chemical bonds

V. facilitate a reaction that would otherwise not occur

A. II, IV and V

B. I, II, III and V

C. I, III and V

D. I, II, III and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

New cards
8

Identify where in a prokaryotic cell the conversion of G3P to pyruvate occurs during respiration.

A. cristae

B. cytosol

C. outer mitochondrial membrane

D. matrix

B. cytosol

New cards
9

If all of the proteins were removed from a cell's membrane, hypothesize which of the following processes would still occur?

I. Simple Diffusion

II. Transport of Hydrogen Ions (H+)

III. Osmosis

IV. ATP synthase's production of ATP

V. Facilitated Diffusion

A. I, II, and IV

B. I, III, and V

C. I and III

D. II, III, and V

C. I and III

New cards
10

Nerve cells, called neurons, maintain a higher concentration of Na+ outside the cell than inside the cell. When small protein channels are opened in the membrane, Na+ flows quickly into the cell. This is an example of:

A. osmosis.

B. exocytosis.

C. facilitated diffusion.

D. active transport pumps.

C. facilitated diffusion.

New cards
11

A molecule of glucose in which each excited electron is tagged enters aerobic cellular respiration in a human and each electron is tracked. Upon completion of pyruvate oxidation, where would you expect to find the tagged electrons?

A. All electrons are in acetyl CoA

B. Some have been breathed out and the rest are in acetyl CoA

C. Some have been breathed out and the rest are in PGA

D. Some are in acetyl CoA and some are in NADH

D. Some are in acetyl CoA and some are in NADH

New cards
12

Hypothesize the result if you competitively inhibited the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of Coenzyme A?

A. No ATP would be generated during glycolysis

B. The Calvin cycle would no longer use CO2.

C. ATP synthase would fail to transfer electrons to CO2.

D. The Citric acid cycle would stop.

D. The Citric acid cycle would stop.

New cards
13

Compare and contrast short-term and long-term memory. Which of the following are TRUE about short-term memory?

I. Information is lost if it is not used.

II. Activated when information needs to be retained.

III. Encoded into long-term memory if used often.

IV. Has unlimited capacity

A. I, III, and IV

B. II and III

C. I and III

D. I, II, and IV

C. I and III

New cards
14

Identify which of the following is an example of emergence.

A. An organism has properties absent from the individual atoms that comprise it.

B. A liver cell can be broken down into organelles and various molecules.

C. A toaster can be broken down into small mechanical parts.

D. The mass of the atomic nucleus is the sum of the masses of the protons and neutrons.

A. An organism has properties absent from the individual atoms that comprise it.

New cards
15

The fluid mosaic model readily permits which type of movement of proteins within a membrane?

I. Lateral movement within the membrane

II. Flipping orientation within the membrane

III. Moving from peripheral to integral

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. I only

D. I, II, and III

C. I only

New cards
16

Compare and contrast photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for BOTH?

I. Water is reduced, and organic carbon is oxidized.

II. They are anabolic reactions.

III. On net, ATP is produced.

IV. Chemiosmosis occurs.

V. Occur in eukaryotes as a result of endosymbiosis.

A. II and III

B. I and II

C. I, II, and III

D. IV and V

D. IV and V

New cards
17

Identify which of the following cell structure(s) are theorized to have originated through endosymbiosis?

I. Endoplasmic Reticulum

II. Nucleus

III. Mitochondria

IV. Chloroplast

V. Golgi Apparatus

A. I and III

B. III and IV

C. II, IV, and V

D. I, II, and V

B. III and IV

New cards
18

The reaction pictured below occurs within all living organisms. Which of the following describe this reaction? (the picture shows adding H2O)

I. Catabolic

II. Anabolic

III. Spontaneous

IV. Dehydration synthesis

V. Facilitated by enzymes

A. I and IV

B. II and IV

C. I, III, and V

D. II, III, and IV

C. I, III, and V

New cards
19

The reaction CaO(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) has a free energy change of -387.3 kJ/Mole. The reaction is:

A. exergonic.

B. catabolic.

C. at equilibrium.

D. endergonic.

A. exergonic.

New cards
20

Sequence photosynthesis. During the light reaction protons are pumped from the stroma to the

A. intermembrane space.

B. thylakoid space.

C. matrix.

D. cytoplasm.

B. thylakoid space.

New cards
21

Compare and contrast biological molecules. Maltose is a sugar used inside of a cell. It consists of two alpha glucose molecules. Which statement correctly describes maltose?

A. The two components are joined by a peptide bond.

B. The two components were joined during a dehydration synthesis.

C. A water molecule is removed to hydrolyze the molecule

D. It is synthesized in a free ribosome.

B. The two components were joined during a dehydration synthesis.

New cards
22

Which describe BOTH phagocytosis AND pinocytosis?

I. Plasma membrane pinches in

II. Releases molecules from cell

III. Cell brings in large solid particles

IV. Type of passive diffusion

V. Type of endocytosis

A. I and III

B. I and V

C. III and IV

D. II, IV, and V

B. I and V

New cards
23

Identify which of the following types of interactions is a bond formed between two atoms with electronegativity differences of (less than) < 2.

A. hydrogen bond

B. Van der Waals interaction

C. ionic bond

D. covalent bond

D. covalent bond

New cards
24

Sequence polymerization. A peptide bond joins the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the _______ of the next amino acid.

A. carboxyl group

B. R group

C. glycerol

D. amino group

D. amino group

New cards
25

Compare and contrast membrane transport. The below diagram represents a cell in solution. Hypothesize which of the following will occur through diffusion if the cell membrane is permeable to glucose and fructose, but not sucrose?

I. glucose will diffuse out of the cell

II. fructose will diffuse out of the cell

III. sucrose will maintain dynamic equilibrium

IV. fructose will diffuse into the cell

V. glucose will diffuse into the cell

A. III only

B. III, IV, and V

C. II and V

D. I and IV

C. II and V

New cards
26

Correctly sequence the evolution of life on Earth in the order that the following organisms first appear.

I. Anaerobic bacteria

II. Endosymbiosis

III. Photosynthesis

IV. Protocells

V. Archaea

A. IV → I → III → V → II

B. I → IV → III → II → V

C. III → I → IV → V → II

D. IV → II → I →III→ V

A. IV → I → III → V → II

New cards
27

Which of the following accurately describes endergonic reactions?

I. They have a net positive ΔG

II. They involve increasing potential energy

III. They have a net negative ΔG

A. II and III

B. I and II

C. I only

D. III only

B. I and II

New cards
28

Identify the CORRECT definition for a prediction.

A. A proposed explanation for an observation.

B. A statement of what always occurs.

C. A testable observation.

D. The expected outcome of an experiment.

D. The expected outcome of an experiment.

New cards
29

Compare and contrast dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis. Which of the following accurately describe(s) dehydration synthesis reaction and hydrolysis?

I. dehydration reaction often involves hydrolases

II. dehydration reaction builds polymers

III. hydrolysis results in the formation of a water molecule

IV. hydrolysis builds polymers

A. III and IV

B. I only

C. III and IV

D. II only

D. II only

New cards
30

A mutation affecting which of the following would directly disrupt the carbon fixation reactions of photosynthesis?

I. NADPH oxidation

II. mitochondria

III. Rubisco

IV. P700

A. I and IV

B. II and III

C. III and IV

D. I and III

D. I and III

New cards
31

Sequence an enzymatic reaction where the enzyme is inhibited by a compound that is noncompetitive and reversible. You will not need to use all of the Roman numeral statements in your answer.

I. Inhibitor binds to the active site

II. Inhibitor binds to enzyme, but not at active site

III. Enzyme changes shape and substrate is unable to bind

IV. Inhibitor is released from the enzyme

V. Inhibitor permanently inactivates the enzyme

A. II → III → IV

B. I → III → V

C. I → III → IV

D. II → IV → V

A. II → III → IV

New cards
32

Which statements are TRUE for the reaction depicted in this graph?

I. Spontaneous

II. Positive free energy change

III. Negative free energy change

IV. Catabolic

V. Cannot occur without an enzyme

A. I, III, IV, and V

B. I, II, IV, and V

C. I, II, and V

D. I, III, and IV

D. I, III, and IV

New cards
33

Identify which of the follow are TRUE concerning long-term and short-term memory?

I. Long-term memory is limited in capacity

II. Both are longer in duration than sensory memory storage

III. Short-term memory is unlimited in capacity

IV. Long-term memory is unlimited in duration

A. II and IV

B. I, II and III

C. I and IV

D. I and III

A. II and IV

New cards
34

Sequence photosynthesis. Which of the following is a reactant in carbon fixation reactions?

A. RuBisCo

B. Glucose

C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)

D. O2

A. RuBisCo

New cards
35

Identify in which molecule energy is STORED during the citric acid cycle.

A. NADH

B. NAD+

C. Glucose

D. ADP

A. NADH

New cards
36

The creation of organizers in workshop best facilitates:

I. "chunking" information

II. strengthening LTP

III. improving ease of retrieval of information

IV. the initial introduction to the material

A. I, II and III

B. III and IV

C. I and II

D. II, III and IV

A. I, II and III

New cards
37

Compare and contrast types of chemical bonds. Ionic bonds can form between ______________ while non-polar covalent bonds can form between ____________.

A. atoms with the same electronegativities, tetravalent atoms

B. atoms with (greater than) > 2 difference in their electronegativities, identical atoms

C. identical atoms, molecules that possess electronegativities that are (greater than) > 2 different

D. partially charged atoms, the H and the O in a water molecule

B. atoms with (greater than) > 2 difference in their electronegativities, identical atoms

New cards
38

Sequence polymerization. When a bond is formed between two amino acids, the bond forms between the amine of one amino acid and the ____________ of the second amino acid using the _____________________ reaction.

A. R group, dehydration synthesis

B. amino, hydrolysis

C. carboxyl, hydrolysis

D. carboxyl, dehydration synthesis

D. carboxyl, dehydration synthesis

New cards
39

During aerobic respiration, oxygen accepts electrons directly from:

A. Complex I

B. Complex IV

C. Complex III

D. NADH

B. Complex IV

New cards
40

Identify in which process(s) NADH is oxidized.

I. glycolysis

II. pyruvate oxidation

III. the citric acid cycle

IV. oxidative phosphorylation

A. II and III

B. II and IV

C. IV only

D. I, II and III

C. IV only

New cards
41

Identify which of the following structures contain DNA in eukaryotes. I. Lysosome

II. Nucleus

III. Nucleoid

IV. Mitochondria

A. I and III

B. I and II

C. II, III and IV

D. II and IV

D. II and IV

New cards
42

Compare and contrast functional groups. Which of the following is/are hydrophobic? (picture)

A. III only

B. I only

C. I and II

D. II only

D. II only

New cards
43

The Diplomonads are a group of living organisms that include several common intestinal parasites in humans. These parasites are characterized by the presence of genetic material in the form of DNA, a plasma membrane, and ribosomes. Additionally, this group is classified by the presence of non-functioning mitochondria. Based on this information, hypothesize which of the following must also be true about this group.

A. They have a nucleoid.

B. They possess both a nucleolus and an endoplasmic reticulum.

C. They possess chloroplasts.

D. They lack an endomembrane system.

B. They possess both a nucleolus and an endoplasmic reticulum.

New cards
44

Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Which of the following structures is ONLY found in Eukaryotes?

I. nuclear pores

II. DNA

III. RNA

IV. ribosomes

V. cell wall

A. I only

B. I and V

C. II, III and IV

D. II, III and V

A. I only

New cards
45

Which statement best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

A. Respiration stores energy in complex organic molecules, whereas photosynthesis releases it.

B. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants and respiration occurs only in animals.

C. Respiration is catabolic, and photosynthesis is anabolic.

D. ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis and used up in respiration.

C. Respiration is catabolic, and photosynthesis is anabolic.

New cards
46

Identify which molecule is reduced during glycolysis.

A. Glucose

B. Water

C. NAD+

D. Oxygen

C. NAD+

New cards
47

Identify which of the following is NOT required for abiotic synthesis?

A. source of carbon and nitrogen

B. high levels of energy

C. time

D. an oxygen-rich atmosphere

D. an oxygen-rich atmosphere

New cards
48

Correctly sequence investigating whether a wound heals faster when covered with a bandage.

I. Two wounds are created on an individual's arm, one is covered and one is left exposed to the air.

II. The hypothesis is rejected.

III. There is no statistical difference in the time it takes a wound to heal when covered or uncovered.

IV. The observation is that wounds heal faster when covered with a bandage.

V. The hypothesis is that wounds heal faster because they are covered.

A. I → II → III → IV → V

B. IV → V → I → III → II

C. V → IV → III → II → I

D. IV → V → III → I → II

B. IV → V → I → III → II

New cards
49

The following diagram represents a type of reaction that commonly occurs in cells. Identify in which of the following descriptions could this reaction be taking place?

A. A tertiary protein is denatured.

B. The hydrolysis of a polysaccharide yields 1 glycerol and 3 fatty acids.

C. Simple sugars are joined together during a dehydration reaction.

D. Disaccharides are hydrolyzed into monosaccharides

D. Disaccharides are hydrolyzed into monosaccharides

New cards
50

Compare and contrast biological molecules. Carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are normal components of the human diet. What features do all of these molecules have in common?

I. They are comprised of monomers

II. They are biological macromolecules

III. They are primarily hydrophobic

IV. Their subunits are joined by covalent bonds

V. They can be synthesized by dehydration reactions

A. I, II, and V

B. II, IV, and V

C. II, III, and V

D. I and V

B. II, IV, and V

New cards
51

Hypothesize why trees are able to transport water through water-conducting cells from the roots to the top of the tree.

I. Individual water molecules adhere to each other creating columns that rises up the tree.

II. Water's high heat of vaporization turns water to a gas which rises to the top of the tree.

III. Sunlight absorbed by the tree breaks the hydrogen bonds between water molecules and provides the energy to transport water.

IV. Cohesion between water molecules and the adhesion between water and the plant cells prevent gravity from pulling water down.

A. II and IV

B. I and III

C. IV only

D. I and II

C. IV only

New cards
52

Compare and contrast the Oparin-Haldane (prebiotic soup) hypothesis and the iron-sulfur world hypothesis. Which of the following do both hypotheses SHARE?

I. Result in the formation of monomers

II. Require a source of energy

III. Require low free O2

IV. Require the formation of phospholipids

A. II, III, and IV

B. I and IV

C. II and III

D. I, II, and III

D. I, II, and III

New cards
53

A chemical has been developed which increases the activity of the lysosomes in a cell. The chemical has no other effect on the cell. Hypothesize which of the following would most likely occur if a cell was treated with the chemical.

A. Phagocytosis would increase, and food molecules would enter the cell at a higher rate.

B. The rate of lipid synthesis would increase.

C. Proteins would be produced by the cell at a higher rate.

D. Food molecules would be digested at a higher rate inside the cell.

D. Food molecules would be digested at a higher rate inside the cell.

New cards
54

Which of the following is NOT a function associated with vesicular transport?

A. Moving proteins within the endoplasmic reticulum

B. Moving materials from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus

C. Transporting proteins away from the Golgi apparatus

D. Adding lipids to the plasma membrane

A. Moving proteins within the endoplasmic reticulum

New cards
55

Correctly sequence events prior to the appearance of life.

I. Abiotic synthesis of macromolecules

II. Formation of protocells

III. Formation of amino acids

IV. Self-replicating molecules

A. III → II → I → IV

B. III → I → II → IV

C. II → III → IV → I

D. I → II → III → IV

B. III → I → II → IV

New cards
56

Identify the primary role of carbohydrates in the plasma membrane.

A. Cell identification

B. Modulate membrane fluidity

C. Signal transduction

D. Ion transport

A. Cell identification

New cards
57

Identify the term that describes the capacity for changing the connections in the brain during an individual's entire lifetime.

A. short term memory

B. neuronal development

C. learning

D. neuronal plasticity

D. neuronal plasticity

New cards
58

Identify which of the following is a correct explanation for why a pond in the winter has ice at the top and liquid water at the bottom.

A. In ice, ionic bonds between adjacent molecules result in a crystal structure

B. Liquid water's low surface tension makes it sink below the ice.

C. The hydrogen atoms in ice are less dense than those in liquid water.

D. Ice has fewer molecules than an equal volume of water

D. Ice has fewer molecules than an equal volume of water

New cards
59

Identify the statement that describes learning.

A. Use of memory to decrease the likelihood of a negative outcome.

B. Encoding and reencoding resulting in physical changes in the brain.

C. A series of experiences that are encoded into short-term memory.

D. Holding 7+2 items for a period of time

A. Use of memory to decrease the likelihood of a negative outcome.

New cards
60

Researchers have discovered a chemical which blocks nuclear pores. Hypothesize which of the following is the most likely direct effect of the chemical on a eukaryotic cell?

A. The membrane continuity between the Golgi apparatus and the nucleus will be disrupted.

B. Polypeptides will no longer be transported into the nucleus.

C. The mitochondria will cease to produce ATP.

D. mRNA will no longer be able to exit the nucleus.

D. mRNA will no longer be able to exit the nucleus.

New cards
61

Identify which statement best describes the overall function of cellular respiration?

A. Converting sunlight into a form of energy that can be used by the cell

B. Storing electrons from water in the high-energy compound NADH

C. Splitting glucose to release ATP molecules

D. Harvesting the energy of glucose for ATP synthesis

D. Harvesting the energy of glucose for ATP synthesis

New cards
62

Phagocytosis is the process by which

A. folds of plasma membrane surround large solid particles.

B. large molecules move through proteins channels in the plasma membrane.

C. a cell takes in fluids and dissolved materials.

D. vesicles containing wastes are released from the cell.

A. folds of plasma membrane surround large solid particles.

New cards
63

Compare and contrast biological molecules. Which statements correctly describe BOTH lipids and proteins?

I. They are polymers.

II. They are components of cell membranes.

III. Their quaternary structure results in a specific 3-dimensional shape.

IV. Their synthesis involves dehydration reactions.

A. III and IV

B. II and III

C. II and IV

D. I and III

C. II and IV

New cards
64

Which term describes changes occurring at synapses that result in an increase in synaptic transmission?

A. long term potentiation

B. retrieval

C. encoding

D. neuronal plasticity

A. long term potentiation

New cards
65

Sequence major events in the evolution of life. A new fossil of an aerobic prokaryote has been discovered. The evidence supports the conclusion that it evolved at the time when aerobic prokaryotes were already common. Based on this evidence, what can we say about the environment in which it evolved?

A. It must have been an autotroph

B. Photosynthesis had not yet evolved

C. Atmospheric oxygen was common

D. Eukaryotes were common at this time

C. Atmospheric oxygen was common

New cards
66

Stanley Miller and Harold Urey's famous experiment was designed to test the prebiotic soup hypothesis. Which of the following did this experiment produce?

I. organic monomers

II. protein enzymes

III. prokaryotic cells

IV. protocells

V. ribozymes

A. III and IV

B. I only

C. II and V

D. I and II

B. I only

New cards
67

An unidentified substance consisting of a single type of molecule has been added to the non-polar solvent hexane (CH3(CH2)4CH3). You observe that the unidentified substance does not dissolve in hexane. Identify which statement most likely describes this substance?

A. It is a protein.

B. It has many regions of partial positive and partial negative charges which have canceled each other out.

C. It is both nonionic and nonpolar.

D. It readily forms hydrogen bonds with polar solvents like water.

D. It readily forms hydrogen bonds with polar solvents like water.

New cards
68

Protocells exhibit many of the attributes of living cells except:

A. undergo osmosis.

B. maintaining a gradient across membranes.

C. a mechanism for heredity.

D. split into two smaller versions after growing large.

C. a mechanism for heredity.

New cards
69

Reduction is:

A. The formation of a new bond with oxygen

B. The loss of one or more electrons

C. The breaking of ionic bonds

D. The gain of one or more electrons

D. The gain of one or more electrons

New cards
70

You are investigating the effects of low-energy radiation on photosynthesis. You find that under some conditions, photosystems I and II absorb energy, but are not oxidized. Hypothesize the possible cause.

A. Energized e- escape and are captured by an acceptor

B. Energized e- return to a lower orbital

C. Energized e- are lost from the system

D. Energized e- associate with protons and are neutralized

B. Energized e- return to a lower orbital

New cards
71

Identify chromosome number. An organism with a diploid number of 2n=16 has how many pairs of homologous chromosomes?

A. 32

B. 8

C. 16

D. 4

B. 8

New cards
72

DNA molecules migrate through a polyacrylamide gel according to:

A. charge on the phosphate group.

B. restriction site sequence.

C. nucleotide sequence.

D. size; shorter fragments move faster.

D. size; shorter fragments move faster.

New cards
73

Identify which of the following processes use a polymerase.

I. DNA replication

II. PCR

III. Transcription

IV. Translation

A. I, II, III and IV

B. I ONLY

C. I, II and III

D. I and II

C. I, II and III

New cards
74

Canine degenerative myelopathy is an autosomal recessive disease in dogs which causes degeneration of the spinal cord. You have a dog that appears healthy and want to determine if she is a carrier for canine degenerative myelopathy. Identify what type of dog should you breed her with to determine her genotype?

I. Homozygous dominant.

II. Heterozygous.

III. Homozygous recessive

A. I only

B. I or II

C. II only

D. III only

D. III only

New cards
75

Identify which of the following sets of genes are LINKED.

(Picture)

I. A and B

II. C and D

III. A and D

IV. B and C

A. I, II, III, and IV

B. None of these genes are linked

C. III and IV

D. I and II

D. I and II

New cards
76

Which of the following are REQUIRED for DNA replication, transcription, PCR, AND dideoxy chain termination sequencing?

I. Complementary base pairing

II. DNA primers

III. DNA polymerase

IV. RNA nucleotides

A. I and IV

B. III ONLY

C. I ONLY

D. II and III

C. I ONLY

New cards
77

Taxol is an anti-cancer drug that inhibits the formation of the mitotic spindle. Hypothesize which of the following events could occur NORMALLY in a cell that has been exposed to Taxol.

I. Condensation of chromosomes.

II. Formation of kinetochores.

III. DNA synthesis

IV. Alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate.

A. III and IV

B. I and II

C. II and IV

D. I, II and III

D. I, II and III

New cards
78

You are studying gene expression in humans. The gene that you are interested in has the following pattern: Neither parent expresses the gene. One quarter of sons and one quarter of daughters express the disease. Hypothesize what type of inheritance COULD this pattern of expression be?

I. Mendelian.

II. Sex-linked on the X chromosome.

III. Sex-linked on the Y chromosome.

A. II only

B. III only

C. I only

D. I or II

C. I only

New cards
79

Identify which of the following is the central finding of Thomas Morgan that was different from what Mendel concluded.

A. Homozygous recessive individuals exhibit recessive phenotypes

B. Genes move on chromosomes, not as individual units

C. Dominant alleles mask recessive alleles

D. Alleles segregate during gamete formation

B. Genes move on chromosomes, not as individual units

New cards
80

Correctly sequence events that occur during DNA replication.

I. Helicase unwinds the double helix.

II. RNA primer produced.

III. Gaps between fragments in lagging strands are closed.

IV. New DNA strand synthesized by DNA polymerase.

V. Single-strand binding proteins bind to DNA.

A. IV ➔ III ➔ II ➔ I ➔ V

B. I ➔ II➔ IV ➔ V ➔ III

C. III ➔ V ➔ II ➔ IV ➔ I

D. I ➔ V ➔ II ➔ IV ➔ III

D. I ➔ V ➔ II ➔ IV ➔ III

New cards
81

Compare and contrast stages of meiosis. Which of the following images depicts a cell in Metaphase II?

A. I

B. III

C. II

D. IV

B. III

New cards
82

Hypothesize and diagnose patterns of inheritance. If genes A and B are LINKED, and both dominant alleles were inherited from the same parent, what are the possible gamete genotypes generated by an individual whose genotype is AaBb?

A. Ab and ab

B. AB and ab

C. AB, Ab, aB, and ab

D. Ab ONLY

B. AB and ab

New cards
83

Sequence gene regulation in eukaryotes.

I. Adding a 5' cap to pre-mRNA

II. DNA packaging

III. Regulation of translation

IV. Protein processing and folding

A. II → III → I → IV

B. I → II → III → IV

C. II → I → III → IV

D. I → III → IV → II

C. II → I → III → IV

New cards
84

Identify which of the following are components of a nucleotide of cytosine.

I. a purine

II. a pyrimidine

III. a five-carbon sugar

IV. phosphate functional group

A. I and III

B. II, III, and IV

C. I, III, and IV

D. II and III

B. II, III, and IV

New cards
85

Identify which of the following correctly describes the operation of DNA polymerase.

I. Adds new nucleotides to the 5' side of the new DNA strand

II. Catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds

III. Synthesizes a complementary daughter to the parent strand

A. II and III

B. III only

C. II only

D. I only

A. II and III

New cards
86

A malfunction in the thermocycler used for PCR resulted in the temperature remaining unchanged at 91 ͦC. What effect would you expect this to have on the PCR process?

A. Taq DNA polymerase will be denatured

B. The primers will be broken down

C. The primers will not anneal properly

D. The strands of DNA will not separate

C. The primers will not anneal properly

New cards
87

Identify the function of polymerase chain reaction (PCR):

A. Determine genotypes on the DNA.

B. Generate many copies of a DNA fragment.

C. Barcode an unknown sample.

D. Determine the sequence of an unknown fragment of DNA.

B. Generate many copies of a DNA fragment.

New cards
88

Hypothesize and diagnose the process of meiosis. A DNA mutation causes one of the proteins of the synaptonemal complex, the proteins that mediate synapsis, to no longer be produced in one of your patients. As a result, no synapsis occurs. Hypothesize the result of this mutation.

A. All genes in the patient's chromosomes would act as if they are unlinked.

B. Gametes produced would be more genetically alike than expected.

C. The patient's cells are unable to undergo anaphase.

D. Sister chromatids would fail to form.

B. Gametes produced would be more genetically alike than expected.

New cards
89

Identify the function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

A. Catalyze peptide bond formation between amino acids.

B. Translocate the ribosome by binding to a tRNA

C. Covalently link an amino acid to a tRNA

D. Terminate translation.

C. Covalently link an amino acid to a tRNA

New cards
90

Identify which of the following best describes the ultimate outcome of meiosis.

A. 1 parent cell divides into 2 identical daughter cells

B. 2 parent cells fuse into a single zygote

C. 1 parent cell divides into 4 genetically unique daughter cells

D. 1 parent cell divides in 4 daughter cells with double the ploidy

C. 1 parent cell divides into 4 genetically unique daughter cells

New cards
91

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding alleles? They are:

I. a segment of DNA.

II. segregated into different gametes.

III. only found in diploid organisms.

IV. versions of a gene.

A. I, II, and IV

B. I and IV

C. I, II and III

D. III and IV

A. I, II, and IV

New cards
92

Correctly sequence the following events in the cell cycle starting with the start of S phase.

I. DNA is replicated

II. Nuclear envelope reforms

III. Chromosomes condense.

IV. Mitotic spindle fibers attach to the kinetochore handles.

V. Sister chromatids move to opposite sides of the cell

A. I → IV → III → II → V

B. III → IV → I → II → V

C. III → I → V → IV → II

D. I → III → IV → V → II

D. I → III → IV → V → II

New cards
93

Apply genetic crosses. In superb birds-of-paradise (Lophorina superba) tufted head feathers ears (T) are dominant over no tufts (t). A female superb bird-of-paradise who is homozygous for tufts is mated to a male who is homozygous recessive for tufts, what percentage of the offspring will be heterozygous for tufts?

A. 25

B. 50

C. 100

D. 0

C. 100

New cards
94

Correctly sequence dideoxy chain termination sequencing.

I. elongate new strand

II. incorporate dideoxyribonucleotide

III. separate fragments by length

IV. denature DNA

A. I → IV → II →III

B. IV →II →I→III

C. IV →I →II →III

D. II →I →IV →III

C. IV →I →II →III

New cards
95

Male cockatiels have the sex chromosome pair ZZ while female cockatiels have the sex chromosome pair ZW. Identify which of the following statements are TRUE?

I. Z-linked diseases are more commonly expressed in female cockatiels

II. one Z chromosome in male cockatiels is condensed into a Barr body

III. male cockatiels can be heterozygous for sex-linked traits

IV. female cockatiels are heterogametic

A. I, II, III, and IV

B. I, II, and III

C. I and II

D. I and III

A. I, II, III, and IV

New cards
96

Identify which of the following is TRUE of dominant and recessive alleles.

A. Dominant and recessive alleles are never found in the same individual

B. Dominant alleles will mask the presence of recessive alleles

C. When both are present, the resulting phenotype is a combination of the two

D. Only dominant alleles can determine phenotype

B. Dominant alleles will mask the presence of recessive alleles

New cards
97

Compare and contrast the stages of the cell cycle. In which stage[s] could you observe sister chromatids?

I. G1

II. Prophase

III. Anaphase

IV. Metaphase.

A. II and IV

B. I and III

C. II, III, and IV

D. I, II, and III

A. II and IV

New cards
98

Diagnose sex linkage. A man inherits a Y-linked sex-linked disorder. Hypothesize which of the following ancestors could be the source of his disorder?

I. paternal grandmother (his father's mother)

II. maternal grandmother (his mother's mother)

III. paternal grandfather (his father's father)

IV. maternal grandfather (his mother's father)

A. I only

B. either III or IV

C. either I or II

D. III only

D. III only

New cards
99

Compare and contrast DNA and RNA. Which statement(s) describe(s) BOTH DNA and RNA?

I. It is a polymer of nucleotides

II. It has a sugar linked to a phosphate group

III. It can be found in the nucleus

IV. It is normally double-stranded in cells

A. I, II, III and IV

B. II and III

C. I only

D. I, II and III

D. I, II and III

New cards
100

Apply probability rules. Identify in which of the following situations is it appropriate to use the addition rule.

I. Determining the combined probability of mutually exclusive events.

II. Determining the combined probability of independent events.

III. Determining the combined probability of events that cannot occur simultaneously.

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and III

D. III only

C. I and III

New cards

Explore top notes

note Note
studied byStudied by 5 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 11 people
Updated ... ago
4.0 Stars(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 5 people
Updated ... ago
4.5 Stars(2)
note Note
studied byStudied by 12 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(2)
note Note
studied byStudied by 16 people
Updated ... ago
4.0 Stars(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 31 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 4 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)
note Note
studied byStudied by 109 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)

Explore top flashcards

flashcards Flashcard90 terms
studied byStudied by 3 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(2)
flashcards Flashcard59 terms
studied byStudied by 40 people
Updated ... ago
4.5 Stars(15)
flashcards Flashcard23 terms
studied byStudied by 16 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(2)
flashcards Flashcard48 terms
studied byStudied by 24 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)
flashcards Flashcard96 terms
studied byStudied by 21 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)
flashcards Flashcard29 terms
studied byStudied by 50 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(2)
flashcards Flashcard93 terms
studied byStudied by 2 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)
flashcards Flashcard40 terms
studied byStudied by 12 people
Updated ... ago
5.0 Stars(1)