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A nurse is caring for a patient with a second-degree burn. Which characteristic is expected?
a) Red, painful skin with no blistering
b) Full-thickness tissue destruction with a dry, charred wound
c) Edematous, blistered skin with hypersensitivity
d) Damage limited to the epidermis with rapid healing
c) Edematous, blistered skin with hypersensitivity
A patient with extensive burns is at risk for hypovolemic shock. What is the primary cause of this complication?
a) Direct blood loss from burned tissues
b) Increased metabolic demand and oxygen consumption
c) Massive fluid and electrolyte shifts into interstitial spaces
d) Increased exudate loss from burn sites
c) Massive fluid and electrolyte shifts into interstitial spaces
A patient with facial burns presents with hoarseness, wheezing, and singed nasal hairs. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Apply cool compresses to the face
b) Obtain an order for pain medication
c) Prepare for early intubation
d) Administer 100% humidified oxygen via nasal cannula
c) Prepare for early intubation
Which intervention is most important for a patient with full-thickness burns to prevent complications?
a) Administering pain medication as needed
b) Performing frequent debridement
c) Encouraging early mobility
d) Providing a high-carbohydrate, high-protein diet
b) Performing frequent debridement
A patient sustains electrical burns to the hands. Which additional assessment is a priority?
a) Neurological assessment for cognitive function
b) Monitoring for entry and exit wounds
c) Assessing for blister formation
d) Measuring body surface area (BSA) burned
b) Monitoring for entry and exit wounds
A patient with burns is experiencing hypermetabolism. Which nursing intervention best supports recovery?
a) Encouraging fluid restriction to minimize edema
b) Initiating total parenteral nutrition (TPN) immediately
c) Providing a high-protein, high-calorie diet
d) Administering vasodilators to improve circulation
c) Providing a high-protein, high-calorie diet
What is the purpose of the “Rule of Nines” in burn management?
a) To estimate the depth of the burn
b) To determine the need for skin grafting
c) To calculate fluid replacement needs
d) To assess the likelihood of infection
c) To calculate fluid replacement needs
Which of the following statements about third-degree burns is correct?
a) They are often painless due to nerve destruction
b) They heal quickly without the need for skin grafts
c) They only affect the epidermis and upper dermis
d) They present with blisters and significant edema
a) They are often painless due to nerve destruction
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a burn patient. Which abnormality is most concerning in the first 24 hours?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Hypochloremia
a) Hyperkalemia
What is the primary reason for increased infection risk in burn patients?
a) Frequent exposure to hospital pathogens
b) Increased white blood cell (WBC) production
c) Loss of protective skin barrier and reduced blood flow
d) Delayed wound healing due to hypermetabolism
c) Loss of protective skin barrier and reduced blood flow
1. A nurse is teaching a group of patients about malignant melanoma. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
a) “Melanoma originates in the melanocytes.”
b) “It can metastasize quickly and invade deeper tissues.”
c) “A benign mole that changes in size over time is not a concern.”
d) “UV radiation increases the risk of melanoma.”
c) "A benign mole that changes in size over time is not a concern."
The nurse is assessing a patient’s skin lesion using the ABCDE rule. Which finding is most concerning?
a) A mole that has a round, uniform shape
b) A lesion with well-defined borders
c) A brown lesion with irregular edges and varying shades of color
d) A lesion that remains the same size over time
c) A brown lesion with irregular edges and varying shades of color
A patient with a history of eczema presents with thick, leathery patches in the antecubital areas. The nurse documents this as:
a) Erythema
b) Lichenification
c) Macule
d) Vesicle
b) Lichenification
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer that involves deterioration of the dermis and epidermis. What stage is this ulcer?
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Stage IV
b) Stage II
A patient with extensive burns is at risk for which life-threatening complication?
a) Hyperthermia
b) Hypovolemic shock
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Respiratory alkalosis
b) Hypovolemic shock
A patient diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma asks the nurse how serious this condition is. What is the best response?
a) “Basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes and is often cured with surgery.”
b) “Basal cell carcinoma is the most aggressive form of skin cancer.”
c) “This cancer does not require treatment unless it spreads to other areas.”
d) “Basal cell carcinoma often leads to extensive internal organ damage.”
a) "Basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes and is often cured with surgery."
A nurse is providing wound care for a patient with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum. Which intervention is most appropriate?
a) Reposition the patient every four hours
b) Keep the wound dry at all times
c) Use moisture-barrier creams and padding
d) Avoid nutritional support, as it is not needed for healing
c) Use moisture-barrier creams and padding
Which of the following individuals is at greatest risk for developing malignant melanoma?
a) A 25-year-old with a history of childhood eczema
b) A 40-year-old with a history of pressure ulcers
c) A 55-year-old with fair skin, a history of multiple sunburns, and 75 moles
d) A 60-year-old with a small basal cell carcinoma on the nose
c) A 55-year-old with fair skin, a history of multiple sunburns, and 75 moles
A patient presents with red, scaly patches on their lower lip. The nurse knows that this finding is most consistent with:
a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
c) Malignant melanoma
d) Eczema
b) Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a suspected inhalation injury from a fire?
a) Administer IV fluids
b) Assess for singed nasal hairs and prepare for intubation
c) Apply antibiotic ointment to visible burns
d) Monitor urine output
b) Assess for singed nasal hairs and prepare for intubation
A patient is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
a) Bradycardia and warm skin
b) Fatigue and brittle nails
c) Hyperpigmentation and weight gain
d) Decreased respiratory rate and dry skin
b) Fatigue and brittle nails
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s lab values and notes a hemoglobin level of 8.2 g/dL. Which symptom would the nurse most likely observe?
a) Increased appetite and hyperactivity
b) Pallor and tachycardia
c) Jaundice and bradycardia
d) Hypotension and petechiae
b) Pallor and tachycardia
Which patient is at highest risk for developing pernicious anemia?
a) A patient with a history of gastrectomy
b) A patient with chronic kidney disease
c) A patient with a high intake of iron-rich foods
d) A patient with hypertension
a) A patient with a history of gastrectomy
The nurse is providing education to a patient with sickle cell anemia. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
a) “I should stay well-hydrated to prevent crises.”
b) “Pain management is important during sickle cell crises.”
c) “Sickle cells have a normal lifespan of 120 days.”
d) “I should avoid extreme temperatures to prevent complications.”
c) "Sickle cells have a normal lifespan of 120 days."
A nurse is caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
a) Encourage frequent ambulation
b) Administer anticoagulant therapy
c) Monitor for signs of bleeding and bruising
d) Encourage a high-protein diet
c) Monitor for signs of bleeding and bruising
A patient presents with severe pallor, tachycardia, and fatigue. Lab results reveal pancytopenia. The nurse recognizes these findings as characteristic of:
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Hemolytic anemia
d) Polycythemia
b) Aplastic anemia
Which of the following statements about sickle cell anemia is correct?
a) It is an autosomal dominant disorder
b) It primarily affects platelet function
c) It leads to obstruction of small vessels and infarctions
d) It is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency
c) It leads to obstruction of small vessels and infarctions
A nurse is caring for a patient receiving chemotherapy who has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 3,200/mm³. Which is the priority nursing intervention?
a) Monitor for signs of infection
b) Encourage a diet high in leafy greens
c) Administer iron supplements
d) Restrict fluid intake
a) Monitor for signs of infection
Which of the following symptoms is most concerning for a patient with sickle cell crisis?
a) Joint pain and swelling
b) Chest pain and difficulty breathing
c) Fatigue and dizziness
d) Pale skin and cold extremities
b) Chest pain and difficulty breathing
A patient is diagnosed with polycythemia vera. Which of the following complications is the most serious?
a) Fatigue
b) Headache
c) Increased risk for blood clots
d) Flushed skin
c) Increased risk for blood clots
A nurse is educating a patient with iron deficiency anemia about dietary choices. Which food should the patient be encouraged to eat?
a) White bread and dairy products
b) Red meat and leafy green vegetables
c) Citrus fruits and yogurt
d) Processed meats and sugary snacks
b) Red meat and leafy green vegetables
A patient with a history of chronic blood loss is at risk for which type of anemia?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Pernicious anemia
c) Iron deficiency anemia
d) Aplastic anemia
c) Iron deficiency anemia
A patient with hemolytic anemia has jaundice. What is the best explanation for this symptom?
a) Increased destruction of white blood cells
b) Excess bilirubin from breakdown of red blood cells
c) Reduced oxygen transport in the blood
d) Decreased clotting factor production
b) Excess bilirubin from breakdown of red blood cells
A nurse is assessing a patient with polycythemia vera. Which finding is most concerning?
a) Flushed skin
b) Headache
c) Shortness of breath and leg pain
d) Fatigue
c) Shortness of breath and leg pain
A nurse is caring for a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?
a) Hypertension and bradycardia
b) Uncontrolled bleeding and clotting
c) Decreased respiratory rate and dry skin
d) Low blood glucose and confusion
b) Uncontrolled bleeding and clotting
A patient with sickle cell anemia presents with sudden, severe pain in the joints and chest. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Administer oxygen and IV fluids
b) Encourage the patient to walk
c) Apply heat to the affected areas
d) Offer NSAIDs for pain management
a) Administer oxygen and IV fluids
A patient with vitamin B12 deficiency asks why they need injections instead of oral supplements. The nurse correctly explains that:
a) “Your digestive system cannot absorb enough B12 due to lack of intrinsic factor.”
b) “Vitamin B12 injections work faster than pills.”
c) “The injections help your blood clot more effectively.”
d) “Oral B12 supplements are toxic in large doses.”
a) "Your digestive system cannot absorb enough B12 due to lack of intrinsic factor."
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient with aplastic anemia. Which abnormal finding is expected?
a) Increased red blood cell count
b) Decreased white blood cell count
c) Elevated platelet count
d) Increased hemoglobin levels
b) Decreased white blood cell count
A patient with thrombocytopenia is at greatest risk for which complication?
a) Severe infections
b) Blood clot formation
c) Excessive bleeding
d) Hypertension
c) Excessive bleeding
The nurse is caring for a patient with leukemia. What is the priority nursing intervention?
a) Monitor for signs of infection
b) Encourage a high-protein diet
c) Monitor blood pressure closely
d) Restrict fluid intake
a) Monitor for signs of infection
A nurse is caring for a patient with a third-degree burn. Which of the following findings is expected?
a) Severe pain at the burn site
b) Blister formation and redness
c) Charred, leathery skin with no initial pain
d) Pink, moist skin with intact capillary refill
c) Charred, leathery skin with no initial pain
A patient with extensive burns is at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which electrolyte disturbance is most common in the first 24 hours?
a) Hypokalemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hyponatremia
d) Hypercalcemia
b) Hyperkalemia
The nurse is assessing a patient with an electrical burn. Which additional assessment is a priority?
a) Lung sounds
b) Cardiac rhythm
c) Pupillary response
d) Skin turgor
b) Cardiac rhythm
A patient with a facial burn is experiencing hoarseness and stridor. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Place the patient in high Fowler’s position
b) Prepare for emergency intubation
c) Administer intravenous fluids
d) Apply cool compresses to the burn site
b) Prepare for emergency intubation
Which intervention is essential in the first 48 hours of burn treatment?
a) Initiating early ambulation
b) Encouraging a high-fat diet
c) Providing aggressive fluid resuscitation
d) Administering antibiotics prophylactically
c) Providing aggressive fluid resuscitation
A patient with second-degree burns asks how long it will take for the skin to heal. The nurse’s best response is:
a) “It usually takes a few days.”
b) “Healing will take several months and may require skin grafting.”
c) “Healing typically occurs within 2 to 6 weeks.”
d) “Your burn will heal without any scarring within a week.”
c) "Healing typically occurs within 2 to 6 weeks."
What is the primary cause of death in burn patients after the first 48 hours?
a) Shock
b) Hypothermia
c) Infection
d) Respiratory distress
c) Infection
A patient with burns has decreased urine output and hypotension. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Increase IV fluid administration
b) Encourage oral fluid intake
c) Elevate the patient’s legs
d) Monitor serum sodium levels
a) Increase IV fluid administration
Which statement by a patient with a minor burn indicates the need for further teaching?
a) “I should apply antibiotic ointment to my burn.”
b) “I should break any blisters to promote healing.”
c) “I will keep my burn clean and dry.”
d) “I should seek medical attention if my burn worsens.”
b) "I should break any blisters to promote healing."
Which burn location is considered high-risk due to its impact on airway and breathing?
a) Hands
b) Chest
c) Face
d) Legs
c) Face
A nurse is assessing a mole on a patient’s back. Which of the following findings is most concerning?
a) A mole that has remained the same for years
b) A lesion that is asymmetrical and changing in color
c) A small, round, brown mole with defined borders
d) A mole with a smooth, even surface
b) A lesion that is asymmetrical and changing in color
A patient diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma asks the nurse about treatment. What is the best response?
a) “Basal cell carcinoma rarely spreads and can be treated with surgery.”
b) “It is highly aggressive and often metastasizes quickly.”
c) “It typically resolves on its own without intervention.”
d) “Chemotherapy is the first-line treatment for basal cell carcinoma.”
a) "Basal cell carcinoma rarely spreads and can be treated with surgery."
A patient presents with red, scaly patches on the lower lip and reports frequent sun exposure. The nurse suspects:
a) Malignant melanoma
b) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Eczema
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
A patient with eczema is experiencing severe itching and oozing lesions. What is the priority nursing intervention?
a) Encourage frequent bathing with hot water
b) Apply a topical corticosteroid as prescribed
c) Recommend wearing wool clothing
d) Suggest using strong detergent for laundry
b) Apply a topical corticosteroid as prescribed
A patient is admitted with a stage III pressure ulcer. Which of the following characteristics are expected?
a) Red, non-blanchable skin
b) Full-thickness tissue loss extending into subcutaneous tissue
c) Exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle
d) Intact skin with an open blister
b) Full-thickness tissue loss extending into subcutaneous tissue
The nurse is teaching a patient with atopic dermatitis about self-care. Which statement indicates a need for further education?
a) “I should avoid using perfumed lotions and soaps.”
b) “Scratching the rash will help it heal faster.”
c) “I should keep my skin well-moisturized.”
d) “Temperature changes can make my symptoms worse.”
b) "Scratching the rash will help it heal faster."
A patient with a history of pressure ulcers asks how to prevent future ulcers. The nurse should recommend:
a) Repositioning every four hours
b) Massaging bony prominences frequently
c) Using moisture-barrier creams and frequent turning
d) Keeping the skin dry without using any lotions
c) Using moisture-barrier creams and frequent turning
A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a patient with malignant melanoma. Which statement requires further clarification?
a) “I will monitor for new moles and changes in existing ones.”
b) “I can continue using tanning beds as long as I limit exposure.”
c) “I should wear sunscreen with SPF 30 or higher.”
d) “I will follow up regularly with my dermatologist.”
b) "I can continue using tanning beds as long as I limit exposure."
A patient with a pressure ulcer on the sacrum has eschar covering the wound. How should the nurse classify this ulcer?
a) Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Unstageable
d) Unstageable
A patient is diagnosed with eczema and prescribed a corticosteroid cream. What instruction should the nurse provide?
a) “Apply a thick layer of cream over the entire body.”
b) “Use the medication only when symptoms are severe.”
c) “Apply a thin layer to affected areas as prescribed.”
d) “Avoid using moisturizer while using the corticosteroid cream.”
c) "Apply a thin layer to affected areas as prescribed."
A nurse is assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding is expected?
a) Decreased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
b) Prolonged inspiration and short expiration
c) Use of accessory muscles for breathing
d) Increased lung elasticity
c) Use of accessory muscles for breathing
A patient with pneumonia is experiencing dyspnea. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Encourage deep breathing exercises
b) Elevate the head of the bed
c) Administer IV antibiotics
d) Obtain a sputum culture
b) Elevate the head of the bed
A patient presents with an acute asthma attack. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
a) Montelukast (Singulair)
b) Fluticasone (Flovent)
c) Albuterol (Proventil)
d) Salmeterol (Serevent)
c) Albuterol (Proventil)
The nurse is teaching a patient with COPD about oxygen therapy. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
a) “I should set my oxygen flow rate to 6 L/min for shortness of breath.”
b) “I should avoid smoking while using oxygen.”
c) “I need to use oxygen as prescribed by my doctor.”
d) “Too much oxygen can decrease my drive to breathe.”
a) "I should set my oxygen flow rate to 6 L/min for shortness of breath."
A patient with pulmonary edema reports pink, frothy sputum. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Encourage the patient to drink fluids
b) Perform postural drainage
c) Administer a diuretic as prescribed
d) Encourage deep breathing exercises
c) Administer a diuretic as prescribed
A patient with pneumonia has increased fremitus and dullness to percussion over the affected lung. What does this indicate?
a) Air trapping in the alveoli
b) Increased fluid in the lung
c) Hyperinflation of the lung
d) Presence of a pneumothorax
b) Increased fluid in the lung
A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom requires immediate intervention?
a) Mild cough and fatigue
b) Shortness of breath and chest pain
c) Diminished breath sounds bilaterally
d) Low-grade fever and muscle aches
b) Shortness of breath and chest pain
A nurse is caring for a patient with emphysema. Which assessment finding is expected?
a) Increased breath sounds over the lung bases
b) Barrel-shaped chest
c) Decreased respiratory rate
d) Productive cough with thick sputum
b) Barrel-shaped chest
A nurse is teaching a patient about using an incentive spirometer after surgery. What statement indicates correct understanding?
a) “I should exhale forcefully into the spirometer.”
b) “I should use the spirometer once a day.”
c) “I should inhale deeply through the spirometer to prevent lung complications.”
d) “I should use the spirometer only if I feel short of breath.”
c) "I should inhale deeply through the spirometer to prevent lung complications."
A patient is experiencing an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis. Which symptom would the nurse expect?
a) Nonproductive cough and nasal congestion
b) Sudden pleuritic chest pain
c) Chronic productive cough and cyanosis
d) Barrel chest and pursed-lip breathing
c) Chronic productive cough and cyanosis
A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
a) Hypokalemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypophosphatemia
b) Hyperkalemia
The nurse is caring for a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which symptom is most commonly reported?
a) Flank pain and hematuria
b) Frequency and burning on urination
c) Abdominal distention and nausea
d) Fever and joint pain
b) Frequency and burning on urination
A patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) due to postrenal dysfunction. Which condition is the most likely cause?
a) Hypovolemia
b) Nephrotoxic drug use
c) Kidney stone obstruction
d) Autoimmune disease
c) Kidney stone obstruction
A patient with nephrotic syndrome is at risk for which complication?
a) Hyperalbuminemia
b) Increased urine output
c) Edema and proteinuria
d) Hypotension
c) Edema and proteinuria
A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is experiencing confusion, muscle twitching, and nausea. What is the most likely cause?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Uremic encephalopathy
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Respiratory alkalosis
b) Uremic encephalopathy
The nurse is teaching a patient with nephrolithiasis about prevention strategies. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
a) “I should limit my fluid intake to prevent kidney stones.”
b) “I should increase my dietary calcium intake to prevent stones.”
c) “I should drink at least 2-3 liters of water daily.”
d) “I should avoid citrus juices, as they contribute to stone formation.”
c) "I should drink at least 2-3 liters of water daily."
A patient with glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why they are experiencing facial and periorbital edema. What is the best response?
a) “Your kidneys are producing too much urine, leading to fluid retention.”
b) “Your kidneys are unable to filter waste, causing sodium and water retention.”
c) “Your immune system is overactive, leading to excessive fluid accumulation.”
d) “The infection in your kidneys is causing swelling around your eyes.”
b) "Your kidneys are unable to filter waste, causing sodium and water retention."
A patient with a UTI is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium). What should the nurse teach the patient?
a) “This medication will help treat the infection.”
b) “You may notice your urine turning orange.”
c) “Take this medication for at least 7 days.”
d) “Avoid drinking fluids while taking this medication.”
b) "You may notice your urine turning orange."
A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) reports difficulty urinating. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
a) Checking for flank pain
b) Palpating the bladder for distention
c) Monitoring for hematuria
d) Assessing for lower extremity edema
b) Palpating the bladder for distention
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pyelonephritis. Which finding is most concerning?
a) Costovertebral angle tenderness
b) Fever and chills
c) Positive leukocyte esterase on urinalysis
d) Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
d) Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
A nurse is assessing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by prerenal dysfunction. Which condition is the most likely cause?
a) Kidney stone obstruction
b) Hypovolemia
c) Nephrotoxic drug exposure
d) Pyelonephritis
b) Hypovolemia
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention is the priority?
a) Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
b) Encourage a high-potassium diet
c) Prepare the patient for dialysis
d) Monitor urine output every four hours
a) Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
Which patient is at highest risk for developing a lower urinary tract infection (UTI)?
a) A 30-year-old male with kidney stones
b) A 24-year-old female who is sexually active
c) A 50-year-old male with a history of hypertension
d) A 70-year-old postmenopausal woman
b) A 24-year-old female who is sexually active
A nurse is educating a patient with nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) on dietary modifications. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
a) “I should drink at least 2-3 liters of water daily.”
b) “I should increase my sodium intake to prevent stones.”
c) “I should eat more high-purine foods to reduce my risk.”
d) “I should limit my calcium intake completely.”
a) "I should drink at least 2-3 liters of water daily."
A patient with pyelonephritis is experiencing fever, chills, and costovertebral angle tenderness. What is the priority nursing intervention?
a) Monitor urine output
b) Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed
c) Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
d) Obtain a urine culture
b) Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed
The nurse is caring for a patient with postrenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition is the most likely cause?
a) Hypotension
b) Nephrotoxic drug exposure
c) Prostate gland hyperplasia
d) Glomerulonephritis
c) Prostate gland hyperplasia
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the expected outcome?
a) Increased urine output
b) Increased red blood cell production
c) Decreased blood pressure
d) Improved electrolyte balance
b) Increased red blood cell production
A patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) reports difficulty urinating. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
a) Checking for costovertebral angle tenderness
b) Palpating the bladder for distention
c) Monitoring for hematuria
d) Assessing for flank pain
b) Palpating the bladder for distention
A nurse is teaching a patient about taking phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for a UTI. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
a) “This medication will relieve my burning sensation when urinating.”
b) “I should complete my antibiotic therapy even if my symptoms improve.”
c) “My urine may turn orange while taking this medication.”
d) “This medication will treat the infection causing my UTI.”
d) "This medication will treat the infection causing my UTI."
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor for a patient with acute kidney injury?
a) Decreased creatinine
b) Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
c) Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
d) Decreased potassium
c) Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
A patient with nephrotic syndrome presents with significant edema. What is the most likely cause?
a) Increased sodium excretion
b) Loss of plasma proteins in urine
c) Dehydration due to fluid shifts
d) Decreased glomerular filtration rate
b) Loss of plasma proteins in urine
A patient presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which symptom is most characteristic of pyelonephritis rather than cystitis?
a) Dysuria
b) Frequency and urgency
c) Costovertebral angle tenderness
d) Cloudy urine
c) Costovertebral angle tenderness
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving dietary education. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
a) “I should eat foods high in potassium, like bananas.”
b) “I should follow a low-protein, low-phosphorus diet.”
c) “I can drink unlimited amounts of fluids.”
d) “I should eat a high-sodium diet to maintain my blood pressure.”
b) "I should follow a low-protein, low-phosphorus diet."
A patient with an indwelling urinary catheter is at risk for catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI). Which intervention is most effective in preventing CAUTI?
a) Frequent catheter irrigation with antiseptic solution
b) Maintaining a closed drainage system
c) Changing the catheter daily
d) Allowing the drainage bag to hang below the level of the bladder
b) Maintaining a closed drainage system
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient with chronic kidney disease. Which finding most strongly indicates reduced renal function?
a) GFR of 85 mL/min/1.73m²
b) Serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL
c) BUN of 15 mg/dL
d) GFR of 40 mL/min/1.73m²
d) GFR of 40 mL/min/1.73m²
A patient with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What teaching should the nurse provide?
a) “You can stop taking the medication when symptoms improve.”
b) “Increase fluid intake while on this medication.”
c) “Take the medication on an empty stomach.”
d) “Avoid all dairy products while taking this medication.”
b) "Increase fluid intake while on this medication."
A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) is experiencing oliguria. What is the best definition of oliguria?
a) Urine output of less than 30 mL/hr
b) Complete absence of urine output
c) Increased frequency of urination
d) Dark-colored, concentrated urine
a) Urine output of less than 30 mL/hr
A nurse is teaching a female patient ways to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?
a) “I should wipe from front to back after using the bathroom.”
b) “I should avoid drinking too much water to prevent bacteria growth.”
c) “I should urinate after sexual intercourse.”
d) “I should avoid using harsh soaps in the genital area.”
b) "I should avoid drinking too much water to prevent bacteria growth."
The nurse is assessing a patient with acute pyelonephritis. Which finding is the priority?
a) Fever of 101°F (38.3°C)
b) Costovertebral angle tenderness
c) Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
d) Dysuria
c) Blood pressure of 88/50 mmHg
A patient with kidney disease is experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which laboratory finding supports this diagnosis?
a) pH 7.32
b) Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) level of 26 mEq/L
c) pH 7.45
d) PaCO₂ of 48 mmHg
a) pH 7.32
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Flashcard (20)