Clinical Toxicology

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174 Terms

1
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about ___ of poisonings occur in adults

30%

2
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almost ___ of poisonings occur in children < 6 y/o (40% in children < 3 y/o)

50%

3
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where do most toxic exposures occur?

at the patient's own residence

4
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do most patients require an ER visit?

no, most (75%) are managed on-site w/ assistance from a poison information center

5
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what is the national poison control hotline number?

1-800-222-1222

6
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in an overdose, the expected duration of action & AEs are much ______ than you would expect to see at therapeutic doses

longer

1 multiple choice option

7
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will t/12 & duration of action information apply in a dramatic overdose situation where the body's ability to metabolize & excrete is profoundly overwhelmed?

no

1 multiple choice option

8
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what will overwhelming the body w/ substance lead to?

- slowed & impaired oral absorption

- often hypoperfusion of organs (such as, liver & kidney)

- saturated metabolism & renal clearance

- alterations in protein binding, distribution patterns, etc

9
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what is the general treatment of poisonings?

ABCDEFG

- airway

- breathing

- decontamination

- D.O.N.T

- enhanced elimination

- focused therapy (ex: antidotes)

- get toxicology help/support (contact poison control center)

10
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decontamination for inhaled poison =

fresh air

11
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decontamination for poison on skin =

remove clothing, wash w/ plain soap & shampoo hair

12
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decontamination for poison in eye =

flush w/ 1L (each eye) of saline or water x 15 min

13
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decontamination for swallowed poison =

give 2-4 oz water immediately

14
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what is D.O.N.T?

sometimes considered initial drug therapy for toxic patient w/ altered mental status of unknown origin

- dextrose

- oxygen

- naloxone

- thiamine

15
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dextrose 25-50 g IV

administer if hypoglycemic

16
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oxygen @ 100%

administer if hypoxic

- useful for CO, hydrogen sulfide, & asphyxiants

17
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naloxone 0.4-2 mg IV

administer if opioid toxicity suspected

- reverses opioids/heroin

- watch for immediate & intense withdrawal sx

18
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thiamine 100 mg IV

administer if pt is severely malnourished

- prevents Wernicke's encephalopathy

19
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how are poisonings diagnosed?

- H&P

- toxidrome recognition

- diagnostic tests

20
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what treatments may we use for decontamination?

- syrup of ipecac

- gastric lavage

- activated charcoal

- whole bowel irrigation

21
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which method is most commonly used for decontamination?

activated charcoal

22
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what is the MOA of syrup of ipecac?

derived from ipecec root

- induces vomiting by locally irritating the gastric mucosa & by directly stimulating chemo-receptor trigger zone of CNS

23
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is syrup of ipecac a reliable way to remove toxins from the stomach?

no, theoretically it would only be used for recent ingestions (<1 hr)

24
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although years ago it was recommended that every household keep a bottle of syrup of ipecac for emergency use, is this still recommended?

NO

25
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what are the possible complications of syrup of ipecac?

- aspiration

- persistent/uncontrollable vomiting

- lethargy

- may delay other txs (such as, activated charcoal, whole bowel irrigation, or oral antidotes)

26
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when is syrup of ipecac contraindicated?

in ingestion of caustic material, hydrocarbons, seizures, or if unconscious

27
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how may syrup of ipecac be misused?

in bulimia nervosa or for weight loss

28
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_________________ is only recommended if life-threatening quantities of substances have been ingested & only if ingested w/i 1 hr of presentation to ER

gastric lavage

29
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when doing gastric lavage, _________________ if patient is unconscious or lacks gag reflex

intubate first

30
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what are possible complications of gastric lavage?

- aspiration

- laryngospasm

- perforation injury to esophagus & stomach

- electrolyte imbalance

31
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what is the MOA of activated charcoal?

binds w/ substances in GI tract to prevent oral absorption

32
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what is the preferred method of decontamination for most poisons?

activated charcoal

33
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activated charcoal is most effective when administered ______ after the ingestion

early

34
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what are the possible complications of activated charcoal?

- emesis

- aspiration

- constipation

- bowel obstruction

- perforation

35
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what is ileus?

loss of peristalsis without structural obstruction resulting in intolerance of oral intake

36
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when is activated charcoal contraindicated?

in pts w/ ileus

37
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generally only the 1st dose of activated charcoal should contain ___________.

cathartics

- ex: sorbitol or magnesium citrate

38
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what agent is used for whole-bowel irrigation?

polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution (GoLytely, Colyte)

39
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there is limited efficacy for decontamination by whole-bowel irrigation. when is it the most useful?

- when ingestion occurred hours ago

- sustained release formulations

- lead

- iron

- lithium

- "body packers"

40
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when is whole-bowel irrigation contraindicated?

- bowel obstruction

- bowel perforation

- GI bleeding

- ileus

41
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what are the methods for enhancement of elimination?

- multiple doses of activated charcoal

- dialysis

- diuresis

42
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when may multiple-doses of activated charcoal be helpful for enhancement of elimination?

for drugs that undergo enterohepatic recirculation

43
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examples of drugs that undergo enterohepatic recirculation:

- theophylline

- phenobarbital

- carbamazepine

- diazepam

- digoxin

- TCAs (desipramine, nortriptyline, amitriptyline)

44
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when multi-dose activated charcoal is used, only the _____ dose should contain a cathartic

1st

45
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when may dialysis be helpful for enhancement of elimination?

- methanol

- ethylene glycol

- lithium

- salicylates

- ethanol

- theophylline

46
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when may diuresis be helpful for enhancement of elimination?

for some renally cleared drugs

47
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____________________ may help alkalinize the urine to enhance clearance of acidic poisons

sodium bicarbonate

48
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mental status w/ sympathomimetic CNS stimulant OD:

- hyper alert

- agitation

- hallucinations

- paranoia

49
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mental status w/ anticholinergic OD:

- hyper vigilance

- agitation

- hallucinations

- delirium w/ mumbling speech

- coma

50
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mental status w/ hallucinogenic OD:

- hallucinations

- perceptual distortions

- depersonalization

- synesthesia

- agitation

51
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mental status w/ opioid OD:

- CNS depression

- coma

52
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mental status w/ sedative-hypnotic OD:

- CNS depression

- confusion

- stupor

- coma

53
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mental status w/ cholinergic OD:

- confusion

- coma

54
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mental status w/ serotonin syndrome:

- confusion

- agitation

- coma

55
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vital signs w/ sympathomimetic CNS stimulant OD:

- hyperthermia

- tachycardia

- HTN

- widened pulse pressure

- tachypnea

- hyperpnea

56
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vital signs w/ anticholinergic, hallucinogenic OD, or serotonin syndrome:

- hyperthermia

- tachycardia

- hypertension

- tachypnea

57
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vital signs w/ opioid or sedative/hypnotic OD:

- hypothermia

- bradycardia

- hypotension

- apnea

- bradypnea

58
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vital signs w/ cholinergic OD:

- bradycardia

- hypertension or hypotension

- tachypnea or bradypnea

59
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other manifestations w/ sympathomimetic CNS stimulant OD:

- mydriasis

- diaphoresis

- tremors

- tremors

- hyperreflexia

- seizures

60
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other manifestations w/ anticholinergic OD:

- mydriasis

- dry flushed skin

- unable to sweat

- dry mucous membranes

- decreased bowel sounds

- urinary retention

- myoclonus

- choreothetosis

- picking behavior

- seizures

61
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TCAs may cause..

myrdriasis or miosis

62
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other manifestations w/ hallucinogenic OD:

- mydriasis

- nystagmus

63
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other manifestations w/ opioid OD:

- miosis

- hyporeflexia

- pulmonary edema

- needle marks

64
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other manifestations w/ sedative/hypnotic OD:

- miosis

- hyporeflexia

65
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other manifestations w/ cholinergic OD:

- miosis

- salivation

- urinary & fecal incontinence

- diarrhea

- emesis

- diaphoresis

- lacrimation

- GI cramps

- bronchoconstriction

- muscle fasiculations

- weakness

- seizures

66
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other manifestations w/ serotonin syndrome OD:

- mydriasis

- tremor

- myoclonus

- hyperreflexia

- clonus

- diaphoresis

- flushing

- trismus

- rigidity

- diarrhea

67
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examples of toxic sympathomimetic CNS stimulants:

- cocaine

- amphetamines

- bath salts

- pseudoephedrine

- ephedrine

- theophylline

- caffeine

- nicotine

68
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examples of anticholinergics:

- antihistamines

- TCAs

- cyclobenzaprine & other SMRs

- antipsychotics

- anticholinergic PDs

- atropine

- antispasmodics

- phenothiazines

- scopolamine

- drugs to treat urinary incontinence

- belladonna alkaloids (jimson weed)

69
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examples of hallucinogenics:

- phencyclidine

- LSD

- mesacaline

- psilocybin

- MDMA (ectasy)

- ketamine

70
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examples of opioids:

- heroin

- morphine

- methadone

- oxycodone

- codeine

- hydromorphone

- diphenoxylate

71
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examples of sedative-hypnotics:

- benzos

- barbiturates

- carisoprodol

- zolpidem

- anticonvulsants

- alcohol

72
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examples of cholinergics:

- organophosphate & carbamate insecticides

- nerve gas

- nicotine

- pilocarpine

- physotigmine

- edrophonium

- bethanechol

- urecholine

- toxic mushrooms

73
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examples of meds that may cause serotonin syndrome:

- MOA-Is

- SSRIs

- SNRIs

- TCAs

- meperidine

- dextromethorphan

- LSD

- MDMA (ectasy)

- ketamine

74
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how is sympathomimetic CNS stimulant OD treated?

symptomatically (control agitation & other signs of sympathetic excess; maintain adequate fluid hydration)

- benzos (for agitation, & to treat/prevent seizures)

75
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what can HTN unresponsive to benzos in sympathomimetic/CNS stimulant OD tx be treated w/?

phentolamine & nitroprusside

- BB should not be used w/o a vasodilator (or BP may worsen)

76
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how is anticholinergic OD treated?

symptomatically (identify & dc drugs w/ anticholinergic SEs

- agitation/seizures = benzos

- do NOT give physotigmine unless directed by poison center

77
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why is IV sodium bicarbonate helpful in tx of anticholinergic OD?

bc this type of OD may result in blockage of sodium channels & cardiac dysrhymias

78
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what is physotigmine?

direct acting cholinergic agonist

79
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how is hallucinogenic OD treated?

symptomatically

- obtain serum acetaminophen levels

80
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tramadol toxicity may include:

seizures

81
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methadone toxicity may include:

QT prolongation

82
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how is opioid OD treated?

naloxone

83
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what is naxloxone?

pure opioid antagonist w/ a fast onset of action (1-2 mins)

84
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what is the initial dose of naloxone?

0.2-4 mg, depending on the situation & drug resource

- give q2-3 mins up to 10 mg

- if reversal does not occur after 10 mg, consider another diagnosis

85
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if the patient is in cardiac arrest, ________ IV naloxone can be given

2-4 mg

86
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the higher the dose of naloxone, the more likely __________________________ may occur

immediate withdrawal sx

87
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naxloxone effects last about _________, shorter than most opioids

1-4 hrs

88
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do NOT give __________ for sedative-hypnotic OD treatment

flumazenil

89
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single substance overdoses of benzos are ______ fatal

rarely

- however, when mixed w/ other respiratory depressants (such as, opioids) they can be fatal

90
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what is flumazenil (Romazicon)?

GABA blocker

91
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does flumazenil reduce sedation or respiratory depression better?

sedation

1 multiple choice option

92
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why is re-dosing often required w/ flumazenil?

bc it has a shorter t1/2 than most benzos

93
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when is flumazenil contraindicated?

- hx of seizure disorders

- ingestion of seizuregenic agents (such as, TCAs & many others)

94
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how is cholinergic OD treated?

- atropine (short t1/2, will require repeated, high dose or continuous infusion x several days to wks)

- pralidoxime (antidote; breaks bond between poison & AChE; most likely only effective if used w/i 36-72 hrs)

- benzos (diazepam; to treat/prevent seizures caused by excessive acetylcholine)

95
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how is serotonin syndrome treated?

- benzos (for agitation & correct mild increases in BP & HR)

- cyproheptadine (antidote, if needed)

96
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what is cyproheptadine?

antihistamine + serotonin blocker (specifically 5-HT1A & 5-HT2A)

- may result in sedation & hypotension

97
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why should physostigmine NOT be given in tx of anticholinergic OD unless directed by the poison control center?

although it theoretically should reverse anticholinergic effects, it is assoc. w/ lowering seizure threshold

- thus, should NOT be routinely used

98
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why should flumazenil NOT be used in tx of sedative-hyponotic OD?

only an antidote for benzos specifically

- is assoc. w/ lowering seizure threshold, thus should not be routinely used, esp. for single-substance benzo ODs

99
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symptomatic/supportive care of hypotension:

- initially: IV fluids

- if ineffective: give IV vasopressor (norepi, phenylephrine, epi)

100
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symptomatic/supportive care of hypertension:

- agitated patient: benzos

- shorter acting drugs perferred to accommodate changing status/vitals

- avoid monotherapy w/ a BB in cocaine & other sympathomimetic toxicity