epizoo - credit 2 🤓

What are the main principles of therapy in care of acute mastitis with altering the general

health status of animals

a. General antibiotic therapy, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs,

symptomatic therapy, frequent milking process

b. Topical application of anti-inflammatory ointments, frequent milking process

c. Intramammary application of antibiotics, anti-inflammatory ointments, frequent

milking process

a. General antibiotic therapy, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs,

symptomatic therapy, frequent milking process

West Nile Virus

- only affects horses

- affects only horses and birds

- is a zoonotic agent

is a zoonotic agent

samples for the labratory diagnosis of african swine fever are

- brain, blood, feces

- tonsils, kidney, spleen, clotted blood, lymph node

- liver, tonsils, lymph node, kidney

- tonsils, kidney, spleen, clotted blood, lymph node

what are the most common isolated bacterial pathogens from the digestive tract of pigs?

Escherichia coli (ETEC, EHEC, EPEC, VTEC), Campylobacter spp., Salmonella

spp., Clostridium spp., Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, Brachyspira

hyodysenteriae

Clinical manifestation of Maedi Visna

a. Respiratory signs and polyarthritis

b. Respiratory and neurological signs

c. Only neurological signs

b. Respiratory and neurological signs (but it also says arthritis in the ppt)

what family of viruses does Maedi Visna belong to?

Retrovirus

Which field diagnostics method can be used for diagnosis of Salmonella pullorum

a. Rapid slide agglutination test

b. Ascoli thermo precipitation reaction

c. Complement fixation test

a. Rapid slide agglutination test

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by

a. Mycoplasma mycoisdes subsp. Mycoides

b. Pestivirus

c. Mycoplasma bovis

a. Mycoplasma mycoisdes subsp. Mycoides

Diagnosis of Enzootic bovine leukosis is based on

a. Lymphosarcoma findings, serology and PCR detection of the viral RNA and proviral DNA

b. Only serology

c. Only necropsy findings

a. Lymphosarcoma findings, serology and PCR detection of the viral RNA and proviral DNA

Canine parvovirus enteritis is characterized by

a. Only vomiting

b. Diarrhea and vomiting

c. Neurological signs

b. Diarrhea and vomiting

Clinical signs of avian leukosis are

a. Neurological

b. Respiratory

c. Enlarged Bursa, diffuse and nodular lymphoid tumors in organs

c. Enlarged Bursa, diffuse and nodular lymphoid tumors in organs

Canine herpesvirus -1

a. Is fatal in adult dogs

b. Is amber of the kennel cough complex

c. Only affects puppies

c. Only affects puppies

Golden standard for the detection of rabies virus is

a. Hemagglutination test

b. ELISA

c. Immunofluorescence

c. Immunofluorescence

What is the basic diagnostic approach if bacterial enteral infection in suspected in animals

a. To determine the total leukocyte count, differential blood count, perform

rectal swab or taking faecal samples, bacteriological culture with antibiotic

susceptibility testing

b. To determine the total number of leukocytes, differential blood count, antibiotic therapy

To determine the total leukocyte count, differential blood count, perform

rectal swab or taking faecal samples, bacteriological culture with antibiotic

susceptibility testing

Reservoirs of Leptospira spp. are

a. Only dogs

b. Birds

c. Rodents

c. Rodents

Causative agent of feline panleukopenia is

a. Feline parvovirus

b. Feline coronavirus

c. Feline calicivirus

a. Feline parvovirus

What is the sample for virological detection of the Foot and mouth disease

a. Blood

b. Faeces

c. Vesicle fluid

c. Vesicle fluid

Avian leukosis is caused by

a. Retrovirus

b. Herpesvirus

c. Paramyxovirus

a. Retrovirus

What is the causative agent of Western equine encephalitis

a. Herpesvirus

b. Alphavirus

c. Listeria monocytogenes

b. Alphavirus

The causative agent of canine parvovirus enteritis is

a. CDV

b. CPV-2

c. CPV1

b. CPV-2

Trichophytosis (ringworm) mostly occurs in

a. Autumn and winter

b. Summer

c. Spring

a. Autumn and winter

Borreliosis are

a. Water borne diseases

b. Tick borne diseases

c. Diseases transmitted by direct contact and vector

b. Tick borne diseases

What diagnostic methods do we include in the examination of milk with mastitis in the field ?

a. Chemical examination of milk, cytological examination of milk

b. Bacteriological examination, cytological examination, physical examination,

chemical examination

c. Sensory examination, California Mastitis Test

c. Sensory examination, California Mastitis Test

Provirus

a. Is a RNA of a retrovirus in the cytoplasm of a host cell

b. Is a DNA copy of a herpesvirus, incorporated into the genome of a host cell

c. Is a DNA copy of a retrovirus, incorporated into the genome of a host cell

b. Is a DNA copy of a herpesvirus, incorporated into the genome of a host cell (?) not sure if its this or C

Enzootic bovine leukosis (EBL)

a. Is caused by a retrovirus, mostly transmitted by a biological vector

b. Is caused by a retrovirus, mostly transmitted horizontally

c. Is caused by herpesvirus, mostly transmitted horizontally

b. Is caused by a retrovirus, mostly transmitted horizontally

What is the causative agent of Canine distemper

a. Morbillivirus

b. Apthovirus

c. Herpesvirus

a. Morbillivirus

Lyme disease is caused by

a. Borrelia anserina

b. Borrelia theileria

c. Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato

c. Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato

Which species are susceptible to Foot and Mouth disease

a. Cattle, sheep, goats, swine

b. Cattle, sheep, goats, swine horses, dogs

c. Cattle, sheep, goats, swine, horses

a. Cattle, sheep, goats, swine

What is the sample for the detection of foot and mouth disease virus

a. Vesicle

b. Conjunctival swab

c. Blood and faeces

a. Vesicle

In sow and boras infected by Aujeszkys disease

a. Pruritus developes

b. Mostly neurological signs

c. Primarily respiratory signs develop -

c. Primarily respiratory signs develop -

Eastern equine encephalitis

a. Is a zoonosis

b. Only affects horses

c. Only affects humans

a. Is a zoonosis

Eosinophilic inclusions in rabies infected nerve cells are called

a. Rabies bodies

b. Negri bodies

c. Cowdry bodies

b. Negri bodies

Rabies is transmitted through

a. Bites

b. Aerosol

c. Bites and blood contact

a. Bites

Main clinical signs of strangles are

a. Abscesses in the lymph nodes of the head and neck, yellow coloured nasal discharge, contagious of upper respiratory tract

b. Abscesses in the lymph nodes of the gastrointestinal tract - diarrhoea

c. Abscesses in CNS

a. Abscesses in the lymph nodes of the head and neck, yellow coloured nasal discharge, contagious of upper respiratory tract

What is the causative agent of Fowl typhoid

a. Salmonella tyhpimurium

b. Salmonella gallinarum

c. Salmonella enteritidis

b. Salmonella gallinarum

Campylobacter jejuni and campylobacter coli are the causes of

a. Infertility and abortions

b. Enteritis

c. Enteritis and CNS infections

b. Enteritis

In cattle infected by the bluetongue virus

a. Mortality is very high

b. Infection is inapparent

c. Infection is characterized by edema and haemorrhages

c. Infection is characterized by edema and haemorrhages

Which OIE prescribed method is used for the detection of prions in animals

a. ELISA and PCR

b. Western blood and rapid test

c. Electron microscopy

a. ELISA and PCR

For the detection of canine parvovirus 2 in clinical practice we use

a. PCR

b. Rapid test detecting fecal antigen

c. ELISA for detection of antibodies

c. ELISA for detection of antibodies

Q-fever

a. Affects only birds and humans

b. Is a zoonosis

c. Affects only ruminants

b. Is a zoonosis

What are the most common isolated bacterial pathogens from the digestive tract of dogs?

a. Escherichia coli, Campylobacter spp., Salmonella spp., Yersinia enterocolitica

b. treptococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c. Bordetella bronchiseptica, Pasteurella spp., Klebsiella pneumoniae,

Arcanobacterium pyogenes

a. Escherichia coli, Campylobacter spp., Salmonella spp., Yersinia enterocolitica

Paratuberculosis

a. Is a acute disease, caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis,

characterized by hypertrofic enteritis

b. Is a chronic disease, caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. pseudotuberculosis,

characterized by hypertrofic enteritis

c. Is a chronic disease, caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp.

paratuberculosis, characterized by hypertrofic enteritis

c. Is a chronic disease, caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp.

paratuberculosis, characterized by hypertrofic enteritis

Atypical form of scrapie is characterized by

a. Diarrhea

b. Vocalization

c. Absence of pruritus

c. Absence of pruritus

Which diagnostic methods do we include in the laboratory examination of bovine mastitis

a. Sensory examination, CMT

b. Bacteriological examination, cytological examination, physical examination,

chemical examination, immunological examination

c. Chemical examination of milk, cytological examination of milk

b. Bacteriological examination, cytological examination, physical examination,

chemical examination, immunological examination

Bluetongue

a. Is a vector borne disease

b. Only transmitted vertically

c. Directly transmitted disease

a. Is a vector borne disease

Reservoirs of Leptospira spp. are

a. Only dogs

b. Rodents

c. Birds

b. Rodents

What is the diagnostic approach to animal with dermatomycoses

a. Clinical examination, vaccination of animals

b. Mycological cultivation, vaccination of animals

c. History, clinical examination, skin scraping, microscopic examination,

mycological culture

c. History, clinical examination, skin scraping, microscopic examination,

mycological culture

Lyme disease is usually diagnosed by

a. PCE

b. Cultivation

c. Serology

c. Serology

What is the sample for detection of causative agent of paratuberculosis

a. Tracheal wash

b. Blood

c. Faeces

c. Faeces

If dog gets infected with the Aujeszkys disease

a. Disease is always fatal

b. We use vaccination as therapy

c. Disease can be treated

a. Disease is always fatal

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis is

a. Airborne disease caused by porcine herpesvirus - 1

b. Vector born disease caused by BoHV - 1

c. Airborne disease caused by BoVH - 1

c. Airborne disease caused by BoVH - 1

Tularemia is

a. Caused by Francisella tularensis and not characterized by natural focality

b. Caused by Borellia burgdorferi and characterized by natural focality

c. Caused by Francisella tularensis and characterized by natural focality

c. Caused by Francisella tularensis and characterized by natural focality

Clinical signs (most common) in feline immunodeficiency Virus infections are

a. Anaemia, immunosuppression and lymphoma associated signs

b. Mostly reproductive disorders

c. Mostly neurological signs

a. Anaemia, immunosuppression and lymphoma associated signs

What is the mortality in case of prion disease

a. 50-60%

b. 100%

c. 75%

b. 100%

What are the most common bacterial agents of the digestive tract of cattle

a. Listeria spp., Leptospira spp., Arcanobacterium pyogenes

b. Escherichia coli, Salmonella spp. Clostridium spp., Mycobacterium avium

subsp. Paratuberculosis

c. Pasteurella multocida, Manhemia haemolytica, Haemophilus somnus

b. Escherichia coli, Salmonella spp. Clostridium spp., Mycobacterium avium

subsp. Paratuberculosis

In maedi visna, most animals become infected:

By drinking infected colostrum or milk

What is the causative agent of lockjaw:

- Clostridium tetanii

Herpesvirus are characterised by:

- Latency

Lyme disease is usually diagnosed by:

- Serology

Scrapie is detected by:

- Western blot

Laboratory diagnosis of Feline Leukaemia Virus infection.

- P27 antigen (rapid blood test)

Oral vaccination of boars is performed to prevent:

- Classical swine fever

What is the causative agent of Fowl typhoid?

- Salmonella gallinarum

Dumb form of rabies is characterised by:

- Paralysis

Leptospira sp survies

- Survives in wet conditions

Diagnostic of enzootic bovine leukosis is based on:

- Lymphosarcoma findings, serology and PCR detection of the viral RNA and proviral

DNA.

Equine infectious anaemia: caused and transmitted

- Is caused by a retrovirus, mostly transmitted by biting insects (horse flies,...)

Outcomes of Feline leukaemia virus infection are:

- Progressive, regressive and abortive infection.

Causative agent of rabies is a:

- Lyssavirus

African wine fever is caused by:

- Asfivirus (asfavirus)

Borreliosis are:

- Tick borne diseases.

Lumpy skin disease (LSD) is caused by:

- Capripoxvirus.

For the detection of canine parvovirus 2 in clinical practice we use:

- ELISA for detection of antibodies

clinical signs most common is feline immunodeficiency virus infection are

• anemia, immunosuppion and lymphoma associated signs

What sample is taken for rabies diagnosis:

a. Saliva

b. Blood

c. Brain

c. Brain

Which medium is used for cultivation of salmonella:

a. MacConkey agar.

b. Tween agar

c. Sabourad agar

a. MacConkey agar

Which methods is used for microscopic detection of fungi:

a. Native with KOH

b. Stamp

c. Dark field microscopy

a. Native with KOH

cytopathic effect is?

a. genetic mutation of cell culture after virus infection

b. monolayer duplication after virus inoculation

c. destruction of the cells after virus infection

destruction of cells after virus inoculation

what are the main reagents in ELISA test

DNA sample,

enzymes,

primers,

dioyribonuclease

what are the advantages of real time PCR compared with classical PCR?

fast answer, easy

division of ethological agents according to their pathogenity

obligative

facultative

apathogenic

abortive infection is

a. infection causing abortion

b. foetal infection

c. infection disappearing after pronominal period

c. infection disappearing after pronominal period

give an example of non-contagious infectious disease

bluetongue

borreliosis

lyme disease

describe risk assesment in epizootology

pathogenicity, mode of transformation, hosts, if the pathogen is zoonotic, mortality

1. In diagnostics of bovine tuberculosiss the intradermal comparative test is considered positive if

a. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is more than 4 mm

b. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is less than 4 mm.

c. c. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is from 1 to 4 mm. greater than the avian reaction.

a. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is more than 4 mm

1. What is milliary tuberculosis

Miliary tuberculosis refers to a form of tuberculosis characterized by the dissemination of numerous small (seed-like) tubercles throughout the lungs or other organs​

• Miliary tuberculosis: the lesions are the size of millet seeds - in lungs, liver, spleen, yellowish-grey in colour

When anthrax is suspected, it is forbidden

a. To perform necropsy in the field

b. To take blood in the field

a. To perform necropsy in the field

. What is Ascoli test

a. Detection of B. anthracis antigen in animal tissues by precipitative reactions

b. Detection of B. anthracis antibodies by heamolytic rection

a. Detection of B. anthracis antigen in animal tissues by precipitative reactions

To make a final diagnosis of rabies, the veterinary expert:

a) needs only to perform a thorough autopsy of the suspect animal as soon as possible.

b) needs laboratory confirmation of the presence of the virus in the tested samples.

c) needs to detect generic antibodies against lyssaviruses in the tested serum.

b) needs laboratory confirmation of the presence of the virus in the tested samples.

Rabies can affect

a. All mammals.

b. Carnivores, bats and man

c. All mammals and birds

a. All mammals.

What is the primary cause of PI infection in BVDV?

a. Infection of fetus with ncp strain in the first trimester of pregnancy

b. Infection of fetus with cp strain in the first trimester of pregnancy

a. Infection of fetus with ncp strain in the first trimester of pregnancy

Sources of classical swine fever

a. Blood, secretions and excretions, tissues of sick or dead animals, including meat.

b. Blood and meat only

a. Nasal secretions and faeces only

a. Blood, secretions and excretions, tissues of sick or dead animals, including meat.

California mastitis test detects

a. Change of pH and presence of somatic cells in milk

b. Presence of staphylococci in milk

c. Inflammatory substances in milk

a. Change of pH and presence of somatic cells in milk

What serological test is used for dg of FMD

a. Complement fixation test

b. Haemagglutination inhibition test

c. Slide agglutination test

a. Complement fixation test

What are the two clinical forms of rabies?

furious and paralytic/dumb

1. In that case where animal is positive reactor to a tuberculin test but shows no pathological lesions, samples from which 5 types of lymphnodes are taken?

· Mandibular

· Bronchial

· Retropharyngeal

· Mesenteric

· Mediastinal​

. In diagnostics of bovine tuberculosiss the intradermal comparative test is considered inconclusive if

a. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is more than 4 mm

b. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is less than 4 mm

c. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is from 1 to 4 mm greater than the avian reaction.

c. the increase in skin thickness at the bovine site of injection is from 1 to 4 mm greater than the avian reaction.

What is principle of CAMP test

a. Identification of beta hemolytic streptococci - Str.agalactaie

b. Identification of Staphylococcus aureus

a. Identification of beta hemolytic streptococci - Str.agalactaie

Five possible clinical findings of mastitis are:

- depression

- swollen and hard udder

- painful udder

- fever

- abnormal milk

- reduced milk yield

- hot and red skin of udder

Name three stages of the furious form of rabies

· Prodromal stage

· Excitatory stage

· Paralytic stage