Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery

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95 Terms

1
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Which cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the recipient?

Select one:

- #15 blade and Knight scissors

- #11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors

- #12 blade and straight tenotomy scissors

- #10 blade and curved Mayo scissors

#11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors

2
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Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of:

Select one:

hypospadias

prostate cancer

impotence

epispadias

Impotence

3
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Which structure is ligated and transsected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy, following isolation of the vessels and ureter?

Select one:

Gerota's fascia

renal vein

renal artery

proximal ureter

Renal Artery

4
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What structure of male anatomy is divided into three sections: prostatic, membranous, and spongy?

Select one:

urethra

spermatic cord

ureter

ejaculatory duct

Urethra

5
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What is the medical term for the procedure of connecting a donor ureter to a recipient bladder?

Select one:

reimplantation

ureteroscopy

ureteroneocystostomy

suprapubic cystostomy

Ureteroneocystostomy

6
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How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out?

Select one:

- A cotton-tipped applicator is inserted into the external meatus.

- A sterile tight-fitting condom is applied to the penis.

- A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.

- A gloved finger is held firmly against the head of the penis.

A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.

7
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Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys?

Select one:

suprapubic catheter

double-J or pigtail stent

Foley catheter

Jackson-Pratt drain

Double-J or pigtail stent

<p>Double-J or pigtail stent</p>
8
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Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position?

Select one:

lateral

Trendelenburg

supine

low-lithotomy

Low-lithotomy

<p>Low-lithotomy</p>
9
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Adenocarcinoma has a direct correlation to each of the following EXCEPT:

Select one:

end-stage renal disease

tobacco use

liver cirrhosis

genetic predisposition

Liver Cirrhosis

10
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What might the donor kidney be placed into to reduce possibility of injury during handling and transplantation?

Select one:

lahey intestinal bag

woven stockinette

plastic incise drape

laparoscopic entrapment sack

Woven Stockinette

<p>Woven Stockinette</p>
11
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Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position?

Select one:

low-lithotomy

lateral

prone

supine

Lateral

<p>Lateral</p>
12
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Approximately how many lobules comprise the average prostate gland?

Select one:

4

20

50

2

50

13
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In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site?

Select one:

inguinal oblique

subcostal flank

transverse abdominal

suprapubic

Subcostal Flank

14
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What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?

Select one:

omphalocele

hydrocele

cystocele

ectoceler

Hydrocele

15
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Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization?

Select one:

Ringer's lactate

furosemide

thrombin

protamine sulfate

Protamine Sulfate

16
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What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery?

Select one:

edema

surgical site infection

premature ejaculation

impotence

Surgical Site Infection

17
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What does specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce?

Select one:

mucus

urine

testosterone

sperm

Sperm

18
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An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n):

Select one:

intravenous urogram

urinalysis

prostate biopsy

PAP smear

Prostate Biopsy

19
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Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?

Select one:

allograft fascia lata

autograft fascia lata

radiopaque vaginal packing

polypropylene mesh tape

Radiopaque Vaginal Packing

20
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What does the adrenal medulla secrete?

Select one:

catecholamines

insulin

testosterone

urine

Catecholamines

21
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Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor's kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the IV?

Select one:

protamine sulfate

furosemide

Ringer's lactate

heparin and mannitol

Heparin and Mannitol

22
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What is the name of the connective tissue that forms the umbilical ligament and is used for traction in radical cystectomy?

Select one:

urachus

vas deferens

diastasis recti

symphysis

Urachus

23
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Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures.

Select one:

True

False

True

24
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When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?

Select one:

- when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal

- when one kidney is normal and the other if functioning at or below 10% of normal

- when one kidney is normal and the other is functioning at or below 25% of normal

- when both kidneys are functioning at or below 25% of normal

When both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal

25
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Bonanno, Malecot, and Pezzer are types of :

Select one:

suprapubic catheters

active wound drains

passive wound drains

urethral catheters

Suprapubic Catheters

26
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Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of:

Select one:

wound drains

post-op dressings

drape sheets

operative approaches

Operative Approaches

27
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What anatomical structure is the bladder attached to in males?

Select one:

scrotum

symphysis pubis

prostate

rectum

Prostate

28
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Which of the following comparisons of normal or typical kidney anatomy is CORRECT?

Select one:

- The left kidney is smaller and slightly lower than the right.

- The left kidney is larger and slightly higher than the right.

- The right kidney is smaller and slightly higher than the left.

- The right kidney is larger and slightly lower than the left.

The left kidney is larger and slightly higher than the right

29
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Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position?

Select one:

low-lithotomy

prone

lateral

supine

Supine

30
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What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?

Select one:

- A Penrose drain is inserted and pulled over the edge.

- It is cut into four sections and tacked to the skin.

- A purse-string suture is placed to cinch it shut.

- The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.

The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.

31
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Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants?

Select one:

- fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed

- heavy, nonabsorbable, double-armed

- heavy, absorbable, single-armed

- fine, absorbable, single-armed

Fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed

32
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Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient?

Select one:

hydrocelectomy

TURP

TURBT

orchiectomy

TURBT

33
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What type of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equipment?

Select one:

fluorescent

incandescent

fiber-optic

ultraviolet

Fiber-Optic

34
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What procedure is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum?

Select one:

cystoscopy

pyelolithotomy

orchiectomy

urethrotomy

Pyelolithotomy

35
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At approximately what age or period would a patient MOST likely be diagnosed with a Wilms' tumor?

Select one:

over age 60

onset of puberty

second trimester of gestation

between ages 3 and 8 years

Between ages 3 and 8 years

36
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Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for which of the following?

Select one:

testicular carcinoma

type I diabetes mellitus

end-stage renal disease

Wilms' tumor

End-stage renal disease

37
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Surgical technologists are not required to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only open cases because there are cystoscopy specialists who will do them.

Select one:

True

False

False

38
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Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands?

Select one:

tunica vaginalis

costal periosteum

Gerota's fascia

peritoneal sac

Gerota's Fascia

39
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What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy?

Select one:

ileal conduit

orchiopexy

Koch pouch

hydrocele

Koch Pouch

40
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What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis?

Select one:

tunica

scrotum

prepuce

epididymis

Prepuce

41
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Which type of catheter is placed postoperatively following TURP?

Select one:

a. 2-way 16 Fr. Foley with 5 mL balloon

b. 2-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon

c. 3-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon

d. 3-way 16 Fr. Foley with 5 mL balloon

3-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon

42
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What is the name of the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million?

Select one:

psoas

hilum

adrenal

nephron

Nephron

43
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Suprarenal glands are more commonly known as:

Select one:

thymus

adrenal

parotid

prostate

Prostate

44
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Cryptorchidism is more commonly known as:

Select one:

nocturnal bedwetting

kidney stones

undescended testicles

urinary tract infection

Undescended Testicles

45
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Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure?

Select one:

groaning

leg jerking

flatulence

coughing

Leg jerking

46
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What device is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser?

Select one:

Babcock forceps

entrapment sack

basket stone forceps

vessel loops

Basket Stone Forceps

47
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Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake?

Select one:

water

glycine

sorbitol

saline

Water

48
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Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis?

Select one:

Walther

Van Buren

Hegar

Bougie

Hegar

<p>Hegar</p>
49
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How many suture ligatures or free ties should the surgical technologist have prepared for ligation of the renal artery and vein prior to transsection and removal?

Select one:

one

three

seven

five

Three

50
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In what position is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy?

Select one:

prone

Trendelenburg

lateral

lithotomy

Lateral

51
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What is the morcellator used for in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy?

Select one:

- excising Gerota's fascia from around the kidney

- insufflating the peritoneal cavity after initial port placement

- cutting between the ligaclips placed on the renal vessels

- chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning

chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning

<p>chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning</p>
52
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In radical cystectomy with ileal conduit on a male patient, what tissue will be sent for frozen section to verify clear margins?

Select one:

lateral edges of the tunica vaginalis

segments of bilateral ureters

distal segments of the seminal vesicles

sections of both testicles

Segments of bilateral ureters

53
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Which of the following is a glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during TURP?

Select one:

Ellik

Toomey

Pezzer

Malecot

Ellik

<p>Ellik</p>
54
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Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops?

Select one:

nephroscope

cystoscope

resectoscope

ureteroscope

Resectoscope

55
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What is the medical term for excision of the urinary bladder?

Select one:

ystectomy

corpectomy

colporrhaphy

cystostomy

Cystectomy

56
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Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?

Select one:

medulla

cortex

Bowman's capsule

renal pelvis

Renal Pelvis

57
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The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.

Select one:

True

False

True

58
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Which component of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion?

Select one:

telescoping bridge

deflecting mechanism

sheath

obturator

Obturator

59
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Which of the following are male urethral dilators or sounds?

Select one:

Pratt

Hanks

Van Buren

Walther

Van Buren

60
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What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation?

Select one:

hydrocelectomy

vasectomy

penectomy

orchiectomy

Penectomy

61
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Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope?

Select one:

IV urogram

retrograde urogram

PSA

KUB

Retrograde Urogram

62
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Which procedure is performed for testicular cancer, trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion?

Select one:

penectomy

circumcision

orchiectomy

hydrocelectomy

Orchiectomy

63
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Where in the genitourinary system do calculi originate?

Select one:

testicles

bladder

kidney

prostate

Kidney

64
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Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK) is a traditional version of which general type of procedure?

Select one:

repair of cystocele and rectocele

shock wave destruction of calculi

inguinal hernia repair

suprapubic vesicourethral suspension

Suprapubic Vesicourethral Suspension

65
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Which irrigation or distention fluid would be contraindicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor?

Select one:

saline

glycine

water

sorbitol

Saline

66
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Which of the following is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice?

Select one:

urogenital diaphragm

external sphincter

vesical trigone

detrusor muscle

Detrusor Muscle

67
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What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope?

Select one:

wire loop snare

ESU loop electrode

endoshears

#11 blade on #7 handle

ESU loop electrode

68
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What is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion?

Select one:

ileal conduit

colostomy

pubovaginal sling

bladder prolapse

Ileal Conduit

69
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Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists.

Select one:

True

False

True

70
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What measure is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant?

Select one:

- infusion with warmed lactated Ringer's solution

- spraying with reconstituted topical thrombin

- cooling with Collins solution or ice slush

- warming with sterile isotonic saline solution

Cooling with Collins solution or ice slush

71
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Vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings are performed to mainly treat moderate to severe:

Select one:

stress incontinence

urinary tract infections

vaginal dryness

uterine prolapse

Stress Incontinence

72
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What is a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite?

Select one:

It can be adjusted for fluoroscopic exams.

It has a mesh drain attachment.

Stirrups can be attached to rails.

It is radiolucent.

It has mesh drain attachment

73
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Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as:

Select one:

contrast media

antibiotics

distention fluids

topical analgesics

Contrast Media

74
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Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to minimize mucosal injury or irritation.

Select one:

True

False

True

75
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What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate?

Select one:

carcinoma of the prostate

benign prostatic hypertrophy

stress incontinence

erectile dysfunction

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

76
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Which of the following is the term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis?

Select one:

sclerosis

balanitis

hypospadias

phimosis

Phimosis

77
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The vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the:

Select one:

internal iliac artery

ascending aorta

renal arteries

external iliac artery

Internal Iliac Artery

78
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What is one of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence?

Select one:

- increase overall bladder capacity

- tighten and enhance bladder sphincter tone

- reduce bladder spasms and irritability

- restore the posterior urethrovesical angle

Restore the posterior urethrovesical angle

79
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Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of:

Select one:

resectoscopes

evacuators

incisions

catheters

Resectoscopes

80
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Which self-retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy?

Select one:

Adson-Beckman

Gelpi

O'Sullivan-O'Connor

Judd-Mason

Judd-Mason

<p>Judd-Mason</p>
81
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Which of the following items would likely be needed if the pleural cavity is unintentionally entered during nephrectomy?

Select one:

flexible bronchoscope

chest tube with drainage system

1-inch Penrose drain

fibrin glue

Chest tube with drainage system

<p>Chest tube with drainage system</p>
82
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Where is the hilum of the kidney located?

Select one:

inferior pole

medial midsection

superior pole

lateral midsection

Medial Midsection

83
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Which of the following is NOT a form of polycystic kidney disease?

Select one:

autosomal dominant

autosomal recessive

acquired

traumatic

Traumatic

84
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Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted?

Select one:

right upper quadrant

right lower quadrant

left upper quadrant

left lower quadrant

Right Lower Quadrant

85
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Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation?

Select one:

Gibson

scrotal

inguinal

flank

Gibson

<p>Gibson</p>
86
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Particle detector that measures ionizing radiation levels

Select One:

Geiger counter

Tunica vaginalis

Torsion

Balanitis

Hypospadias

Chordee

Palladium

Hyperplasia

Robotic

Epididymis

Geiger Counter

87
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Serous sac that covers most of the testis, epididymis, and lower spermatic cord

Tunica Vaginalis

88
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Twisting of the spermatic cord, resulting in pain, ischemia, and eventual necrosis; failure of immediate correction may require orchiectomy

Torsion

89
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Inflammation of the glans penis due to poor hygiene

Balanitis

90
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Congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the ventral surface of the penis

Hypospadias

91
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Congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands

Chordee

92
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Radioactive seed implants used to treat aggressive prostate cancers in situ; stronger effect, so lower doses can be used

Palladium

93
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Condition of abnormal increase in number of cells in tissues or organs

Hyperplasia

94
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Minimally invasive surgical approach for removal of prostate with fewest post-op complications and quickest recovery time

Robotic

95
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Coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis

Epididymis