Most Common Questions - NBCE Boards

Part 1

Which of the following is a gomphosis?

Teeth

The spiral groove is located on which bone?

A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Humerus
D. Femur

Humerus

Which type of cells line the upper respiratory tract?

A. Simple squamous
B. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
C. Stratified squamous
D. Transitional

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

What is the function of a Kupffer cell? (liver)

A. Bile production
B. Phagocyte of the liver
C. Glucose storage
D. Detoxification

Phagocyte of the liver

Alveolar type II cells, found in the lungs, secrete which of the following?

A. Mucus
B. Surfactant
C. Serous fluid
D. Histamine

Surfactant

Which nerve is interrupted when flexion of the thumb can no longer occur?

A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Median
D. Musculocutaneous

Median

Examples of syndesmosis are?

A. Sutures of the skull
B. Distal ulnar/radius
C. Gomphosis
D. Intervertebral discs

Distal ulnar/radius

Which of the following processes is located on the ulna and the mandible?

A. Coronoid process
B. Styloid process
C. Coracoid process
D. Mastoid process

Coronoid process

What does Human Chorionic Gonadotropin maintain?

A. Endometrium
B. Corpus luteum
C. Placenta
D. Myometrium

Corpus luteum

What is the primary muscle of hip abduction?

A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus medius +mini
C. Tensor fasciae latae
D. Adductor magnus

Gluteus medius +mini

Which of the following plantar flexes the foot? (point toe)

A. Tibialis anterior
B. Peroneus longus
C. Extensor digitorum longus
D. Tibialis posterior

Peroneus longus

Which is located in the middle mediastinum?

A. Thymus
B. Trachea
C. Pericardium
D. Esophagus

Pericardium :heart

Where is the origin of the coracobrachialis?

A. Humerus
B. Scapula
C. Coracoid
D. Clavicle

Coracoid

Which of the following covers the entire fiber surface of a muscle fiber?

A. Endomysium
B. Perimysium
C. Epimysium
D. Fascicle

Endomysium

What bone forms the squamous suture?

A. Frontal/Parietal
B. Parietal/Temporal
C. Occipital/Parietal
D. Temporal/Zygomatic

Parietal/Temporal

The linea aspera is located on?

A. Anterior femur
B. Posterior femur
C. Anterior humerus
D. Lateral femur

Posterior femur

What is the nerve supply to the medial thigh? /inner thigh

A. Femoral
B. Obturator
C. Sciatic
D. Tibial

Obturator

Which muscle borders the anatomical snuff box? thumb

A. Abductor pollicis longus
B. Extensor pollicis brevis
C. Extensor pollicis longus
D. Flexor pollicis longus

Extensor pollicis longus

What do the major calyces empty into? Kidney

A. Ureter
B. Renal pelvis
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla

Renal pelvis

Which of the following is parallel to the floor?

A. Sagittal
B. Coronal
C. Transverse
D. Midsagittal

Transverse

All of the following are considered rotator cuff muscles, except?

A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres Minor
D. Teres Major

Teres Major

The supraglenoid tubercle is found on which of the following?

A. Humerus
B. Scapula
C. Clavicle
D. Coracoid

Scapula

What nerve innervates the teres minor muscle?

A. Axillary
B. Suprascapular
C. Radial
D. Ulnar

Axillary

Which rotator cuff muscle externally rotates the arm?

A. Subscapularis
B. Supraspinatus
C. Infraspinatus
D. Teres minor

Infraspinatus

What nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle?

A. Axillary
B. Long thoracic
C. Thoracodorsal
D. Pectoral

Long thoracic

Pronator teres is innervated by?

A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Median
D. Musculocutaneous

Median

Pronator teres is supplied by which artery?

A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Interosseous
D. Brachial

Ulnar

Which muscle is innervated by a branch of the pudendal nerve?

A. Levator ani
B. Coccygeus
C. Sphincter ani externus
D. Piriformis

Sphincter ani externus

Skeletal muscles are?

A. Uninucleated
B. Multinucleated
C. Non-nucleated
D. Binucleated

Multinucleated

Which one is the shortest muscle in the human body?

A. Stapedius
B. Masseter
C. Sartorius
D. Palmaris longus

Stapedius

What is the nerve supply of the popliteus muscle?

A. Common peroneal
B. Tibial
C. Femoral
D. Obturator

Tibial

Which muscle inserts at the calcaneus?

A. Popliteus

B. Peroneus longus

C. Peroneus brevis

D. Gastrocnemius

Gastrocnemius

Thumb flexion affected by radial nerve?

A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Adduction

Extension

Atlanto-Axial joint is an example of which diarthrosis?

A. Spheroid
B. Hinge
C. Trochoid
D. Condyloid

Trochoid

Which joint has the least movement?

A. Diarthrosis
B. Amphiarthrosis
C. Synarthrosis
D. Symphysis

Synarthrosis

The hip and the shoulder joint is classified as a __?

A. Hinge
B. Spheroid
C. Condyloid
D. Pivot

Spheroid

Which is not part of the "Unhappy Triad"? Blown knee

A. Medial Meniscus
B. Anterior Cruciate
C. Medial Collateral
D. Posterior Cruciate

Posterior Cruciate

The anterior cruciate ligament ?

A. Resists posterior translation in relation to femur
B. Resists anterior translation in relation to femur
C. Resists lateral movement of the tibia
D. Resists medial movement of the tibia

Resists anterior translation in relation to femur

Where can we find stratified squamous cells?

A. Nerve

B. Skin

C. Oral cavity

D. Lungs

Oral cavity

Which ligament protects the elbow from twisting forces generated by pinching, serving a tennis ball and throwing a javelin?

A. medial collateral

B. Lateral collateral

C. Annular ligament

D. Olecranon process

Medial collateral

What does the ductus arteriosus become after birth?
a) ligamentum teres
b) ligamentum venosum
c) ligamentum arteriosum
d) median umbilical ligament

Ligamentum arteriosum

What does the umbilical vein become?
a) round ligament
b) ligamentum venosum
c) ligamentum arteriosum
d) median umbilical ligament

Round ligament

From which part of the developing gut is the esophagus derived?
a) Foregut
b) Midgut
c) Hindgut
d) Cloaca

Foregut

From which part of the developing gut is the duodenum derived?
a) Foregut
b) Midgut
c) Hindgut
d) Cloaca

Midgut

From which embryonic structure is the sacral sympathetic chain derived?
a) Intermediate mesoderm
b) Lateral plate mesoderm
c) Neural tube
d) Neural crest

Neural crest

Which of the following is NOT derived from the neural plate:
a) Microglial cells
b) Neurons of the CNS
c) Neurons of the PNS
d) Retinal cells

Neurons of the PNS

Muscles of mastication involve which pharyngeal arch?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

1

Where in the body do we find ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium?
a) capillaries
b) vas deferens
c) trachea
d) lungs

Trachea

What is the correct order for the anterior spinothalamic pathway?
a) Post root ganglion, substantia gelatinosa, post lateral nucleus
b) Post root ganglion, dorsal column nuclei, VPL
c) Post root ganglion, cuneate tubercle, VPL
d) post root ganglion, gracile tubercle, VPL

Post root ganglion, substantia gelatinosa, post lateral nucleus

What type of sensory information does the spinothalamic tract primarily deal with?
a) Vibration
b) Proprioception
c) Pain and temperature
d) Fine touch

Pain and temperature

Is the postcentral gyrus?
a) Sensory
b) Motor
c) Sensory-motor
d) Neither

Sensory

What is a common sign of a lower motor neuron lesion?
a) Spasticity
b) Clonus
c) Fasciculations
d) Hyperreflexia

Fasciculations

What effect does an upper motor neuron lesion have on superficial reflexes?
a) Increase in superficial reflexes
b) Decrease in superficial reflexes
c) No change in superficial reflexes
d) Superficial reflexes are unaffected

Decrease in superficial reflexes

Which nerve innervates the diaphragm?
a) Vagus
b) Phrenic
c) Intercostal
d) Accessory

Phrenic

Does a peripheral nerve have _____?
a) myelinated axons
b) unmyelinated axons
c) multi axons
d) oligodendrocytes

Myelinated axons

Where are bipolar cells found?
a) Olfactory epithelium
b) Dorsal root ganglia
c) Retina and vestibular nerves
d) Spinal cord

Retina and vestibular nerves

Which is an ascending unconscious tract?
a) Anterior spinothalamic
b) Lateral corticospinal
c) Posterior Spinocerebellar
d) Anterior corticospinal

Posterior Spinocerebellar

What type of sensory information does the dorsal column pathway primarily deal with?
a) Pain and temperature
b) Light touch
c) Vibration
d) Pressure

Vibration

Where does the spinal cord typically terminate in adults?
a) T12-L1
b) L1-L2
c) L2-L3
d) S1-S2

L1-L2

The cauda equina terminates as?
a) dura mater
b) pia mater
c) arschnoid mater
d) dentate ligaments

Arachnoid mater

What is the "horse tail" structure that terminates after the spinal cord called?
a) Filum terminale
b) Conus medullaris
c) Cauda equina
d) Coccygeal ligament

Cauda equina

What is the primary motor cortex?
a) Precentral gyrus
b) Postcentral gyrus
c) Superior temporal gyrus
d) Inferior frontal gyrus

Precentral gyrus

What is the main pathway between the thalamus and cortex?
a) Internal capsule
b) Corona radiata
c) Thalamocortical radiations
d) Cerebral peduncles

Thalamocortical radiations

What is the primary function of the thalamus?
a) Motor coordination
b) Sensory integration and relay center
c) Memory consolidation
d) Regulation of autonomic functions

Integrations in relay center

Which cells form myelin in the central nervous system?
a) Schwann cells
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Astrocytes
d) Microglia

Oligodendrocytes

Which cells form myelin in the peripheral nervous system?
a) Schwann
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Astrocytes
d) Microglia

Schwann

Which cells are the most numerous in the central nervous system?
a) Microglia
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Astrocytes
d) Ependymal cells

Astrocyte

Most neurons in the central nervous system are?
a) Unipolar
b) Bipolar
c) Multipolar
d) Pseudounipolar

Multipolar

Which neurons connect within the lower centers to the cerebral cortex?
a) Association
b) Commissural
c) Projection
d) Interneurons

Projection

What does the umbilical artery become after birth?
a) Medial umbilical ligament
b) Lateral umbilical ligament
c) Ligamentum teres
d) Ligamentum venosum

Medial umbilical ligament

What secondary vesicle is associated with thallus formation?
a) Telencephalon
b) Diencephalon
c) Mesencephalon
d) Metencephalon

Diencephalon

What structure develops from the metencephalon?
a) thalamus
b) pons
c) midbrain
d) cerebrum

Pons or Cerebellum

Which part of the brain is responsible for striatal lesions (tremors) ex) Parkinsons Disease?
a) Cerebellum
b) Basal Ganglia
c) Hippocampus
d) Amygdala

Basal Ganglia

Which cranial nerves includes the myelencephalon?

A.3,4

B.6,7,8,9

C.5,6,7,8

D. 9,10,11,12

9, 10, 11, 12

The lateral ventricles are located in the?

A. Metencephalon

B. Forebrain

C. Diencephalon

D. Midbrain

Diancephalon

Damage in _____ can cause striatal lesions?

Basal ganglia

The 4th ventrical are located in the?

Metencephalon

What type of fracture involves the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment?
a) Smith's fracture
b) Colles' fracture
c) Boxer's fracture
d) Bennett's fracture

Smith's fracture

What disease is typically associated with hyperuricemia and monosodium urate crystals?
a) Gout
b) Osteoarthritis
c) Rheumatoid arthritis
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus

Gout

Which of the following is a major cause of dwarfism?
a) Gigantism
b) Acromegaly
c) Achondroplasia
d) Marfan syndrome

Achondroplasia

An ivory vertebra with obvious bone enlargement and cortical thickening leads to a diagnosis of what condition?
a) Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)
b) Osteopetrosis
c) Osteomalacia
d) Osteoporosis

Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)

Tetralogy of Fallot includes all of the following except:
a) Pulmonary stenosis
b) Right ventricular hypertrophy
c) Overriding aorta
d) Intra-atrial septal defect

Intra-atrial septal defect

Pyknosis is characterized by nuclear:
a) Condensation
b) Fragmentation
c) Swelling
d) Dissolution

Condensation

What condition describes an abnormality in a young baby boy where the urethral opening is on the ventral surface of the shaft of the penis?
a) Epispadias
b) Phimosis
c) Hypospadias
d) Paraphimosis

Hypospadias

Calcification of the anterior longitudinal ligament and sparing of the disc spaces are important findings in what condition?
a) Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH)
b) Ankylosing Spondylitis
c) Rheumatoid Arthritis
d) Osteoarthritis

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis (DISH)

A pathological accumulation of air in airspaces would best be described as:
a) Atelectasis
b) Pneumonia
c) Emphysema
d) Bronchiectasis

Emphysema

Hyperglycemia, acidosis, and polydipsia are symptoms of what condition?
a) Hyperinsulinism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hypoinsulinism
d) Hyperthyroidism

Hypoinsulinism

Iron deficiency anemia most commonly presents itself as what finding on a laboratory blood test?
a) Macrocytic, normochromic RBC
b) Microcytic, hypochromic RBC
c) Normocytic, normochromic RBC
d) Macrocytic, hyperchromic RBC

Microcytic, hypochromic RBC

An excessive amount of cortisol is characteristic of which of the following?
a) Addison's disease
b) Cushing's disease
c) Grave's disease
d) Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Cushing's disease

In an eye exam, a pupil that accommodates but has no pupillary reflex is called which of the following?
a) Tonic pupil
b) Argyll Robertson pupil
c) Mydriasis
d) Miosis

Argyll Robertson pupil

Course, rhythmic tremors of the hands and tongue, stooped posture, expressionless face and slowness of the voluntary movements are characteristic of what disease?
a) Alzheimer's disease
b) Huntington's disease
c) Parkinson's disease
d) Multiple sclerosis

Parkinson's disease

Which disorder is most apt to be responsible for iron deficiency anemia in males?
a) Hemorrhoids
b) Peptic ulcer
c) Hiatal hernia
d) Esophageal varices

Peptic ulcer

Which is not characteristic of Horner's syndrome?
a) Ptosis
b) Miosis
c) Anhidrosis
d) Dyspnea

Dyspnea

Caseous necrosis is a form of necrosis unique to:
a) berry aneurysm
b) tuberculosis
c) acute pancreatitis
d) myocardial infarction

Tuberculosis

The lung tumor most commonly caused by smoking is:
a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Small cell carcinoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Large cell carcinoma

A squamous cell carcinoma

Mature cells of atypical size, shape, and organization are characteristic of:
a) Metaplasia
b) Dysplasia
c) Anaplasia
d) Hyperplasia

Dysplasia

A pneumoconiosis characterized by an accumulation of iron dust in the lung is referred to as:
a) Anthracosis
b) Asbestosis
c) Siderosis
d) Silicosis

Siderosis

All of the following are findings with ankylosing spondylitis except:
a) Bamboo spine
b) Sacroiliitis
c) Uveitis
d) Knife clasp syndrome

Knife clasp syndrome

Exacerbations of hemolytic anemia when red blood cells are exposed to oxidative stress may be caused by deficiency of:
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin E
c) Vitamin B12
d) Folate

Vitamin E

Infection by pathogenic anaerobes of the saccharolytic group of the genus Clostridium causes:
a) Tetanus
b) Botulism
c) Gas gangrene
d) Cellulitis

Gas gangrene