SWT301-NHS-S6

Q. 201: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from

A. Project plan
B. Business plan
C. Support plan
D. None of the above

A

none" class=MsoNormal>Q. 202: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is
called:

A. A dynamic analysis tool

B. A test execution tool

C. A debugging tool

D. A test management tool

E. A configuration management tool

D

Q. 203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique

A. Error guessing
B. Walkthrough
C. Data flow analysis
D. Inspections

A

Q. 204: Which document specifies the sequence of test executions?

A. Test procedure specification
B. Test design specification
C. Test case specification
D. Test plan

A

Q. 205: Inspections can find all the following except

A. Variables not defined in the code
B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
D. How much of the code has been covered

D

Q. 206: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

A. Operability
B. Observability
C. Simplicity
D. Robustness

D

Q. 207: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?

A. 10-20
B. 40-50
C. 70-80
D. 5-10

B

Q. 208: Which tool can be used to support and control part of the test management process?

A. Coverage management tool
B. Test management tool
C. Data preparation tool
D. Performance testing tool

B

Q. 209: If an expected result is not specified then:

A. We cannot run the test
B. It may be difficult to repeat the test
C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
D. We cannot automate the user inputs

C

Q. 210: When should we stop our testing?

A. This question is difficult to answer
B. The answer depends on the contract with the client, special requirements if any & risks your organization is willing to take
C. The answer depends on the experience & maturity of your developers
D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

B

Q. 211: The purpose of requirement phase is

A. To freeze requirements
B. To understand user needs
C. To define the scope of testing
D. All of the above

D

Q. 212: Which

of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
A. Simple Loops
B. Nested Loops
C. Concatenated Loops
D. All of the above

D

Q. 213: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.

A. White box
B. Black box
C. Green box
D. Yellow box

A

Q. 214: A reliable system will be one that:

A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
B. Is unlikely to cause a failure
C. Is likely to be fault-free
D. Is likely to be liked by the users

B

Q. 215: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?

A. Being diplomatic
B. Able to write software
C. Having good attention to detail
D. Able to be relied on

B

Q. 216: A regression test:

A. Will always be automated

B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected

C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected

D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing

B

Q. 217: Function/Test matrix is a type of

A. Interim Test report
B. Final test report
C. Project status report
D. Management report

C

Q. 218: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:

A. Top-down integration
B. Bottom-up integration
C. None of the above
D. Module integration

B

Q. 219: Verification is:

A. Checking that we are building the right system
B. Checking that we are building the system right
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

B

Q. 220: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects

B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests

C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier

D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment

E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

A

Q. 221: Testing should be stopped when:

A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A. and C.
E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested

E

Q. 222: Which test technique is based on requirements specifications?

A. White-box technique
B. Component testing
C. Black-box technique
D. Data driven testing

C

Q. 223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:

A. Status accounting of configuration items
B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
C. Identification of test versions
D. Record of changes to documentation over time
E. controlled library access

B

Q. 224: A test plan defines

A. What is selected for testing

B. Objectives and results

C. Expected results

D. Targets and misses

B

Q. 225: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:

A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool
D. A test management tool
E. A configuration management tool

D

Q. 226: The cost of fixing a fault:

A. Is not important
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
E. Can never be determined

B

Q. 227: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:

A. 1000, 5000, 99999
B. 9999, 50000, 100000
C. 10000, 50000, 99999
D. 10000, 99999
E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

C

Q. 228: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:

A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake

C

Q. 229: Which of the following can be tested as part of operational testing?

A. Component interaction
B. Probe effect
C. State transition
D. Disaster recovery

D

Q. 230: Given the following:

Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

B

Q. 231: Test managers should not:

A. Report on deviations from the project plan
B. Sign the system off for release
C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

C

color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial>
Q. 232: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

A. Business process-based testing
B. Performance, load and stress testing
C. Requirements-based testing
D. Usability testing
E. Top-down integration testing

E

Q. 233: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

B

Q. 234: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions

C

Q. 235: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. To know when test planning is complete
E. To plan when to stop testing

E

Q. 236: Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN
C = A B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D

IF C = D Then
Print "Error"
ENDIF

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

B

Q. 237: Unreachable code would best be found using:

A. Code reviews
B. Code inspections
C. A coverage tool
D. A test management tool
E. A static analysis tool

A

Q. 238: What information need not be included in a test incident report:

A. How to fix the fault
B. How to reproduce the fault
C. Test environment details
D. Severity, priority
E. The actual and expected outcomes

A

Q. 239: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:

A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
B. What is not to be tested
C. Test environments
D. Quality plans
E. Schedules and deadlines

D

Q. 240: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:

A. Test items
B. Test deliverables
C. Test tasks
D. Test environment
E. Test specification

E

Q. 241: The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

A. ISO/IEC 12207
B. BS7925-1
C. BS7925-2
D. ANSI/IEEE 829
E. ANSI/IEEE 729

B

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Q. 242: What are the main objectives of software project risk management?

A. Increase focus on preventive processes and improve tester job satisfaction
B. Reduce the probability of occurrence and decrease the potential impact
C. Control contractor problems and minimize the impact of corporate politics
D. Increase the probability of project success regardless of the cost involved

B

Q. 243: Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?

A. A,C,B
B. B,C,A
C. A,B,C
D. C,B,A

C

Q. 244: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % decision coverage?

If (p = q) {
s = s + 1;
if (a < S) { t = 10; } } else if (p > q) {
t = 5;
}

A. 3
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4

D

Q. 245: Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:

A. Black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
B. White box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
E. White box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

A

Q. 246: Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

A. No, because they apply to development documentation
B. No, because they are normally applied before testing
C. No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
D. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
E. Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

D

Q. 247:The main focus of acceptance testing is:

A. Finding faults in the system
B. Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
C. Testing the system with other systems
D. Testing for a business perspective
E. Testing by an independent test team

D

Q. 248: Which of the following can help testers understand the root causes of defects from previous projects?

A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Cause-and-effect diagram
C. Lessons learned
D. Fishbone diagram

C

Q. 249: Which technique is appropriate to test changes on old and undocumented functionalities of a system?

A. Specification-based technique
B. Black-box technique
C. White-box technique
D. Data driven testing technique

C

Q. 250: Non-functional system testing includes:

A. Testing to see where the system does not function properly
B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
C. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
E. Testing for functions that should not exist

B

Q. 251: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. LCSAJ
D. Syntax testing
E. Boundary value analysis

C

Q.

252: Expected results are:

A. Only important in system testing
B. Only used in component testing
C. Never specified in advance
D. Most useful when specified in advance
E. Derived from the code

D

Q. 253: Beta testing is:

A. Performed by customers at their own site
B. Performed by customers at their software developer s site
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Useful to test bespoke software

E. Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

A

Q. 254: Consider the following:

Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

A. SC = 1 and DC = 1
B. SC = 1 and DC = 2
C. SC = 1 and DC = 3
D. SC = 2 and DC = 2
E. SC = 2 and DC = 3

E

Q. 255: A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Generating expected outputs
B. Replaying inputs according to a programmed script
C. Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
D. Recording test inputs
E. Reading test values from a data file

Q. 256: Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. Early test design can find faults
iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. Early test design takes more effort

A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
B. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
D. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
E. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

A

Q. 256: Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. Early test design can find faults
iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. Early test design takes more effort

A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
B. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
D. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
E. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

A

Q. 257: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:

Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF

If P > 50 THEN
Print "P Large"
ENDIF

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

B

Q. 258: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

A. Attend a tool exhibition
B. Invite a vendor to give a demo
C. Analyse your needs and requirements
D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool
E. Search the internet

C

Q. 259: Error guessing is best used

A. As the first approach to deriving test cases
B. After more formal techniques have been applied
C. By inexperienced testers
D. After the system has gone live
E. Only by end users

B

Q. 260: Exit Criteria may consist of:

i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.

A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
B. i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
C. ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
D. iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

B

Q. 261: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalance class value.

A. CLASS
B. cLASS
C. CLass
D. CLa01ss

D

Q. 262: The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:

A. Explaining the objective
B. Fixing defects found typically done by author
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations

A

Q. 263: Peer Reviews are also called as :

A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical Review
D. Formal Review

C

Q. 264: Validation involves which of the following

i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.

B

Q. 265: Success Factors for a review include:

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
B. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
C. i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
D. ii is correct

A

Q. 266: Which test measures the system at or beyond the limits of its specified requirements?

A. Structural testing
B. Stress testing
C. Error guessing
D. Black-box testing

B

Q. 267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:

i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures

A. i , ii,iii,iv is correct
B. iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
C. i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
D. iv, ii is correct

A

Q. 268: Which defect can typically be discovered using a static analysis tool?

A. Inconsistencies in numerical calculations
B. Programming standards violations
C. Problems related to system usability
D. Internal and external system reliability

B

Q. 269: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?

A. State transition testing
B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
C. Syntax testing
D. Boundary value analysis

B

Q. 270: Features of White Box Testing Technique:

i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.

ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.

iii. Checking for the performance of the application

iv. Also checks for functionality.

A. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
B. iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
C. ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
D. iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

A

Q. 271. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items is called as

A. Configuration Control
B. Status Accounting
C. Configuration Identification
D. Configuration Identification

A

face=Arial>
Q. 272: The selection of a test approach should consider the context:

i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team

A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

B

Q. 273: Benefits of Independent Testing

A. Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
B. Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
C. Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
D. Independent Testers can test better than developers

B

Q. 274: Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage:

Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if

A. Statement coverage is 4
B. Statement coverage is 1
C. Statement coverage is 3
D. Statement Coverage is 2

B

Q. 275: Test Conditions are derived from:

A. Specifications
B. Test Cases
C. Test Data
D. Test Design

A

Q. 276: Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

A

Q. 277: Impact Analysis helps to decide:

A. How much regression testing should be done.
B. Exit Criteria
C. How many more test cases need to written.
D. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

A

Q. 278: Drivers are also known as:

i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding

A. i , ii are true and iii is false
B. i , iii are true and ii is false
C. ii , iii are true and i is false
D. All of the above are true

C

Q. 279: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

A. Top down
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom up
D. Functional incrementation.

B

Q. 280: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.

A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager

B

Q. 281: In case of Large Systems :

A. Only few tests should be run
B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk
C. Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
D. Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.

B

Q. 282: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

vAlign=top width="30%">
Rule1

Rule2

Rule3

Rule4

Conditions

Citibank Card

Member

Yes

Yes

No

No

Type of Room

Silver

Platinum

Silver

Platinum

Actions

Offer upgrade

To Gold Luxury

Yes

No

No

No

Offer upgrade to Silver

N/A

Yes

N/A

No

A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room

A. A Don t offer any upgrade, B Don t offer any upgrade.
B. A Don t offer any upgrade, B Offer upgrade to Gold.
C. A Offer upgrade to Silver, B Offer upgrade to Silver.
D. A Offer upgrade to Gold, B Don t offer any upgrade.

D

Q. 283: Which typical defects are easier to find using static instead of dynamic testing?

L. Deviation from standards
M. Requirements defects
N. Insufficient maintainability
O. Incorrect interface specifications

A. L, M, N and O
B. L and N
C. L,N and O
D. L,M and N

A

Q. 284: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following details be recorded?

a) Test incident report identifier
b) Summary
c) Incident description
d) Impact

1. Expected results
2. Actual results
3. Procedure step
4. Environment
5. Revision level
6. Date and time

A. a: 3; b: 5; c: 1, 2, 4 and 6
B. b: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
C. b: 5 and 6; c: 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. a: 5; c: 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6

B

Q. 285: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

A. Re Testing
B. Confirmation Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Negative Testing

C

Q. 286: Consider the following state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?

A. OFF to ON
B. ON to OFF
C. FAULT to ON

C

Q. 287: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing:

A. User Acceptance Test Cases
B. Integration Level Test Cases
C. Unit Level Test Cases
D. Program specifications

A

Q. 288: Regression testing should be performed:

i. Every week
ii. After the software has changed
iii. As often as possible
iv. When the environment has changed
v. When the project manager says

A. i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
B. ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
C. ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
D. ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

C

Q. 289: Which input combinations will a knowledgeable tester MOST LIKELY use to uncover potential errors when testing a surname field?

A. Wilson, de Costa and Morgan
B. Go, Cheenaswamimuthusami and Venkatsewaran
C. Smit, Smyth and Smithson
D. O'Lever, Lesa-Brit and Jewel D e

D

Q. 290: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are:

A. Designed by persons who write the software under test
B. Designed by a person from a different section
C. Designed by a person from a different organization
D. Designed by another person

C

Q. 291: Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and
interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

face=Arial>
A. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

A

Q. 292: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-

i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

C

Q. 293: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:

A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

D

Q. 294: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:

Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print "Large"
End if
If p > 50 then
Print "pLarge"
End if

A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

C

Q. 295: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:

i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

D

Q. 296: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?

i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.

A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
D. All of above are true

C

Q. 297: What principles do "avoiding author bias" and "communicating problems constructively" represent?

A. Preventive testing and reactive testing
B. Experience-based testing and interoperability testing
C. Independent testing and good interpersonal skills
D. Criticism avoidance and effective relationships

C

Q. 298: Which test is OFTEN the responsibility of the customers or users of the system?

A. Usability testing
B. Functional testing
C. Maintenance testing
D. Acceptance testing

D

Q. 299: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:

A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

A

Q. 300: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%

Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000

A