A&P Final Exam Flash Cards

What is Anatomy?

Anatomy is the study of the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another.

What is Physiology?

Physiology is the study of the function of body parts; how they work to carry out life-sustaining activities.

Distinguish between Anabolism and Catabolism.

Anabolism is the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring energy; Catabolism is the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, releasing energy.

Define Homeostasis.

Homeostasis is the ability to maintain relatively stable internal conditions despite continuous changes in the outside world.

Explain Negative Feedback.

Negative feedback is the most common type of homeostatic control mechanism, which reverses or reduces the intensity of the original stimulus, keeping the variable within its normal range. Examples include regulation of blood glucose, blood calcium levels, and blood pressure.

Explain Positive Feedback.

Positive feedback is a mechanism that enhances or exaggerates the original stimulus, pushing the variable farther from its original value. Examples include labor contractions and blood clotting.

Place the following levels of structural organization in order from simplest to most complex: proton, neutron, electron, atom, element, molecule, compound, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism.

Subatomic particles (proton, neutron, electron)

ightarrow Atom

ightarrow Element

ightarrow Molecule

ightarrow Compound

ightarrow Organelle

ightarrow Cell

ightarrow Tissue

ightarrow Organ

ightarrow Organ system

ightarrow Organism.

Define the Sagittal plane.

A sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts. A Midsagittal (median) plane divides the body exactly in the midline, while a Parasagittal plane divides the body into unequal right and left parts.

Define the Frontal (Coronal) plane.

The Frontal (Coronal) plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) parts.

Define the Transverse plane.

The Transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) parts.

Which organs are located in the Thoracic Cavity?

The Thoracic cavity contains the heart and lungs.

Which organs are located in the Abdominal Cavity?

The Abdominal cavity contains the stomach, liver, and intestines.

Where are the Visceral and Parietal Pleura located?

The Visceral pleura covers the surface of the lungs, while the Parietal pleura lines the walls of the thoracic cavity.

Where are the Visceral and Parietal Peritoneum located?

The Visceral peritoneum covers the surface of most abdominal organs, while the Parietal peritoneum lines the abdominopelvic cavity walls.

Define pH.

pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion (H^+) concentration of a solution; a scale from 0-14 specifies acidity or alkalinity.

How do buffers chemically prevent dramatic changes in pH?

Buffers consist of a weak acid and a weak base. When an acid is added, the weak base component binds to the H^+ ions; when a base is added, the weak acid component releases H^+ ions. This binding or releasing of H^+ ions minimizes the change in pH.

Distinguish between an Acid and a Base.

An Acid is a substance that releases hydrogen ions (H^+) in solution (proton donor); a Base is a substance that accepts hydrogen ions (H^+) or releases hydroxide ions (OH^-) in solution (proton acceptor).

Name the four most abundant elements in the human body.

Oxygen (O), Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), Nitrogen (N).

What is an Ionic Bond?

An Ionic bond is a chemical bond formed by the transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to another, resulting in charged ions.

What is a Covalent Bond?

A Covalent bond is a chemical bond formed by the sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between atoms.

Identify the major extracellular and intracellular cations in the human body.

The major extracellular cation is Sodium (Na^+); the major intracellular cation is Potassium (K^+).

How do you determine the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in a neutral atom?

Protons: Equal to the atomic number. Electrons: In a neutral atom, equal to the number of protons (atomic number). Neutrons: Approximately equal to (Atomic weight - Atomic number).

What is the function of ATP?

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) is the primary energy-carrying molecule in cells, used to power most cellular activities.

What is DNA? What are its components?

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) carries genetic instructions. It is composed of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and nitrogenous bases (adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine).

What are the major chemical components of the plasma membrane and their roles?

The plasma membrane consists of Phospholipids (form the bilayer), Cholesterol (stabilizes membrane fluidity), Proteins (integral and peripheral, for transport, receptors, enzymes), and Carbohydrates (glycocalyx, for cell recognition).

Define Transcription.

Transcription is the process where genetic information from DNA is copied into an RNA molecule.

Define Translation.

Translation is the process where the genetic code carried by mRNA is decoded to produce a specific sequence of amino acids (a protein).

Define Diffusion.

Diffusion is the passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

Define Osmosis.

Osmosis is the net diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration.

Describe the Resting Membrane Potential.

The Resting Membrane Potential is the voltage difference across the plasma membrane of a resting cell, primarily generated by the differential distribution of ions (Na^+ and K^+) due to the Na/K ATP pump and leak channels, with the inside of the cell being more negative.

Describe ion movements during Depolarization.

During Depolarization, the membrane potential becomes less negative (more positive) internally, typically due to the influx of positive ions like Na^+ into the cell.

Describe ion movements during Repolarization.

During Repolarization, the membrane potential returns to its negative resting state, typically due to the efflux of positive ions like K^+ out of the cell.

What happens to a cell placed in a Hypotonic solution?

When a cell is placed in a Hypotonic solution (lower solute concentration than inside the cell), water will diffuse into the cell, causing it to swell and potentially lyse.

What happens to a cell placed in a Hypertonic solution?

When a cell is placed in a Hypertonic solution (higher solute concentration than inside the cell), water will diffuse out of the cell, causing it to shrink or crenate.

What is Isotonic Saline?

Isotonic saline is a solution (0.9% NaCl) that has the same solute concentration as human body fluids, causing no net movement of water into or out of cells.

What is the function of Collagen?

Collagen is a fibrous protein that provides high tensile strength to connective tissues.

What is the function of Elastin?

Elastin is a rubber-like protein that allows connective tissues to stretch and recoil.

Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands.

Exocrine glands secrete products (e.g., sweat, oil, digestive enzymes) onto body surfaces or into body cavities, usually via ducts. Endocrine glands produce hormones and secrete them directly into the bloodstream without ducts.

Name the four major categories of tissues.

The four major tissue categories are Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nervous tissue.

What are the distinguishing characteristics of Skeletal muscle tissue?

Skeletal muscle is voluntary, striated, and multinucleated, responsible for body movement.

What are the distinguishing characteristics of Cardiac muscle tissue?

Cardiac muscle is involuntary, striated, and typically uninucleate, found only in the heart, with intercalated discs.

What are the distinguishing characteristics of Smooth muscle tissue?

Smooth muscle is involuntary, non-striated, and uninucleate, found in the walls of internal organs (e.g., digestive tract, blood vessels).

What are the primary functions of the Integumentary System?

The Integumentary System functions in protection, body temperature regulation, cutaneous sensation, metabolic functions, blood reservoir, and excretion.

What are the functions of Melanin and Keratin?

Melanin is a pigment that provides skin and hair color and protects against UV radiation. Keratin is a tough, fibrous protein that provides protection and waterproofing.

Name the five layers of the epidermis from superficial to deep.

Stratum corneum, Stratum lucidum (in thick skin only), Stratum granulosum, Stratum spinosum, Stratum basale.

What is the function of Melanocytes?

Melanocytes produce melanin, which contributes to skin color and protects against UV damage.

What is the function of Sudoriferous glands?

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands produce sweat for thermoregulation and some waste excretion.

What is the function of Sebaceous glands?

Sebaceous glands produce sebum (oil) to lubricate skin and hair and provide antibacterial properties.

Which layers of the skin are vascular?

The dermis and hypodermis are vascular; the epidermis is avascular.

Define Osteon.

An Osteon (Haversian system) is the structural unit of compact bone, consisting of concentric lamellae around a central Haversian canal.

Define Osteoblast.

An Osteoblast is a bone-forming cell that secretes the bone matrix.

Define Osteoclast.

An Osteoclast is a large, multinucleated bone-resorbing cell that breaks down bone tissue.

Describe the action of PTH (Parathyroid Hormone) on bone.

PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts to resorb bone, releasing calcium into the blood, and enhancing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys.

Describe bone formation by Endochondral Ossification.

Endochondral ossification is how most bones form, where bone replaces a hyaline cartilage model. Examples include long bones.

Describe bone formation by Intramembranous Ossification.

Intramembranous ossification is when bone develops directly from fibrous membranes without a cartilage model. Examples include flat bones of the skull and the clavicle.

What bone feature is associated with the pituitary gland?

The pituitary gland is found within the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.

Define Synarthrosis and give an example.

A Synarthrosis is an immovable joint. An example is a suture between skull bones or a gomphosis (tooth in socket).

Define Diarthrosis and give an example.

A Diarthrosis is a freely movable joint. An example is a synovial joint like the knee or shoulder.

What is the specific function of Acetylcholine (ACh) in muscle contraction?

Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction, which binds to receptors on the sarcolemma, initiating muscle excitation.

What is the specific function of Calcium (Ca^{2+}) in muscle contraction?

Calcium ions (Ca^{2+}) are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind to troponin, causing a conformational change that uncovers myosin-binding sites on actin, allowing cross-bridge formation.

Which myofilaments are thick and which are thin?

Myosin forms the thick filaments, and Actin forms the thin filaments.

Define Motor Unit.

A Motor Unit consists of a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

Define Sarcomere.

A Sarcomere is the basic contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber, extending from one Z-disc to the next Z-disc.

Identify the prime mover and main antagonist for Elbow Flexion.

Prime Mover: Biceps brachii; Main Antagonist: Triceps brachii.

Identify the prime mover and main antagonist for Knee Extension.

Prime Mover: Quadriceps femoris; Main Antagonist: Hamstrings.

Define Afferent Neuron (Sensory Neuron).

An Afferent (Sensory) Neuron transmits sensory information from receptors in the periphery toward the central nervous system.

Define Efferent Neuron (Motor Neuron).

An Efferent (Motor) Neuron transmits motor commands from the central nervous system to effectors (muscles or glands).

What are the major functions of the Cerebellum?

The Cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements, posture, balance, and motor learning.

What are the major functions of the Hypothalamus?

The Hypothalamus is a central control region for many homeostatic functions, including body temperature, hunger, thirst, sleep, and endocrine system regulation.

What are factors that increase the speed of nerve impulse transmission along an axon?

Increased axon diameter and myelination (presence of a myelin sheath) both increase the speed of nerve impulse transmission.

What are Mechanoreceptors?

Mechanoreceptors respond to mechanical force, such as touch, pressure, vibration, stretch, and itch.

What are Photoreceptors?

Photoreceptors respond to light energy, found in the retina of the eye.

Distinguish between a Graded Potential and an Action Potential.

A Graded Potential is a short-lived, localized change in membrane potential that varies in magnitude. An Action Potential is a brief, rapid, and large depolarization and repolarization that propagates along the axon without degradation.

What are the major functions of the Sympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous System?

The Sympathetic division generally prepares the body for stressful situations ('fight or flight' response), increasing heart rate, dilating bronchioles, and inhibiting digestion. Its nerves originate in the thoracolumbar region.

What are the major functions of the Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous System?

The Parasympathetic division generally promotes 'rest and digest' activities, decreasing heart rate, constricting bronchioles, and promoting digestion. Its nerves originate in the craniosacral region.

What neurotransmitter is released by all pre-ganglionic fibers in the ANS, and all post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

Acetylcholine (ACh).

What neurotransmitter is released by post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers?

Norepinephrine (NE), with the exception of sweat glands, which release ACh.

What neurotransmitter is released at all neuromuscular junctions?

Acetylcholine (ACh).

What is the physiological effect of Alpha-blockers?

Alpha-blockers block norepinephrine's action on alpha-receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.

What is the physiological effect of Beta-blockers?

Beta-blockers block norepinephrine's action on beta-receptors, primarily decreasing heart rate and contractility, and lowering blood pressure.

What is the function of the Tympanic Membrane in hearing?

The Tympanic membrane (eardrum) vibrates when struck by sound waves, transmitting these vibrations to the ossicles.

What is the function of the Ossicles (Malleus, Incus, Stapes) in hearing?

The Ossicles amplify and transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the cochlea.

What is the function of the Cochlea in hearing?

The Cochlea is a snail-shaped, fluid-filled structure containing the Organ of Corti, where sound vibrations are converted into electrical signals for hearing.

What is the function of the Retina in vision?

The Retina is the light-sensitive layer at the back of the eye containing photoreceptors (rods and cones) that convert light into neural signals.

What is the function of Rods in vision?

Rods are photoreceptors responsible for vision in dim light and peripheral vision.

What is the function of Cones in vision?

Cones are photoreceptors responsible for sharp, color vision in bright light.

What is the function of the Lens in vision?

The Lens focuses light onto the retina by changing its shape.

What is the specific location of olfactory receptors?

Olfactory receptors are located in the olfactory epithelium in the superior part of the nasal cavity.

What is the role of the Semicircular Canals in balance?

The Semicircular Canals detect rotational movements of the head (dynamic equilibrium).

What is the role of the Vestibule (Utricle and Saccule) in balance?

The Vestibule (containing the utricle and saccule) detects linear acceleration and head position relative to gravity (static equilibrium).

Describe the correct order in which cells in the retina are stimulated by light.

Light stimulates photoreceptors (rods and cones), which then signal bipolar cells, and finally, ganglion cells generate action potentials that travel to the brain via the optic nerve.

What is the function of Intrinsic Eye Muscles?

Intrinsic eye muscles (ciliary body and iris muscles) control the shape of the lens for focusing and the size of the pupil for light regulation.

What is the function of Extrinsic Eye Muscles?

Extrinsic eye muscles are skeletal muscles attached to the outer surface of the eyeball, controlling eye movement and maintaining eyeball shape.