SWT301-NHS-S5

Q. 501: Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?

A. Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B. Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C. Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D. Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.

B

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Q. 502: Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?

A. Evaluate testers competence to use the tool.
B. Complete the testing of a key project.
C. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D. Discover what the requirements for the tool are.

C

Q. 503: What is an informal test design technique where a tester uses information gained while testing to design new and better tests?

A. Error guessing
B. Exploratory testing
C. Use case testing
D. Decision table testing

B

Q. 504: Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?

A. Extent of testing.
B. Scope for the use of test automation.
C. Size of the test team.
D. Requirement for regression testing.

A

Q. 505: When should testing be stopped?

A. When all the planned tests have been run
B. When time has run out
C. When all faults have been fixed correctly
D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested

D

Q. 506: Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be performed:

i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed

A. ii and iv.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iii.
D. i and iii.

B

Q. 507: The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:

i Information about how the software is constructed.
ii Models of the system, software or components.
iii Analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv Analysis of the internal structure of the components.

Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?

A. ii and iii.
B. ii and iv.
C. i and iv.
D. i and iii.

A

Q. 508: Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?

A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.

C

Q. 509: Based on the error guessing test design technique, which of the following will an experienced tester MOST LIKELY test in calendar software?

i. First two letters of the month, e.g., MA can represent March or May
ii. First letter of the day, e.g., T can mean Tuesday or Thursday
iii. Leap year
iv. Number of days in a month
v. Three-digit days and months

A. i, ii, iv and v
B. iii and iv
C. i, ii, iii and iv
D. i, ii and v

C

Q. 510: Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.

A. i, ii, iii.
B. i, ii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. ii, iii, iv.

B

Q. 511: What is the objective of debugging?

i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.

A. i, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. ii, iv.
D. i, ii.

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Q. 512: Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?

i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.

A. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.

D

Q. 512: Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?

i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.

A. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.

B

Q. 513: Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?

Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF

A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

B

Q. 514: Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?

A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D. Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.

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Q. 515: Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?

A. Test analysis and design.
B. Test planning and control.
C. Test closure.
D. Test implementation and execution.

D

Q. 515: Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?

A. Test analysis and design.
B. Test planning and control.
C. Test closure.
D. Test implementation and execution.

A

Q. 516: In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?

A. Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B. Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C. Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D. Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.

D

Q. 517: For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?

i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.

A. i, iv, vi.
B. ii, iii, v.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iv, v, vi.

A

Q. 518: Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?

A. The coverage of the current regression pack.
B. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C. The time since the last change was made to the system.
D. Defects found at the last regression test run.

B

Q. 519: What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?

A. Because testing everything is not feasible.
B. Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C. Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D. Because software is inherently risky.

A

Q. 520: Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?

i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.

A. i,ii, and iii.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i,iii and iv.

C

Q. 521: Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?

A. Parameter type mismatches.
B. Errors in requirements.
C. Undeclared variables.
D. Uncalled functions.

B

Q.

522: Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A. Number of undetected defects.
B. Total number of defects in the product.
C. Number of test cases not yet executed.
D. Effort required to fix all defects.

C

Q. 523: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has 4000 of salary tax free.
The next 1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next 28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

A. 4000; 5000; 5500.
B. 32001; 34000; 36500.
C. 28000; 28001; 32001.
D. 4000; 4200; 5600.

D

Q. 524: Which of the following test activities can be automated?

i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.

A. i, iii, iv.
B. i, ii, iii.
C. ii, iv, v.
D. ii, iii, v.

C

Q. 525: In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?

A. After the software or system has been produced.
B. During development.
C. As early as possible.
D. During requirements analysis.

A

Q. 526: Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

A

Q. 527: Functional system testing is:

A. Testing that the system functions with other systems
B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function together
C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
D. Testing the system performs functions within specified response times

C

Q. 528: Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

A. Operating systems
B. Test documentation
C. Live data
D. User requirement documents

C

Q. 529: What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?

A. Setting up forms and databases
B. Analysing metrics and improving processes
C. Writing the documents to be inspected
D. Time spent on the document outside the meeting

C

Q. 530: Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?

A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
B. White box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

A

Q. 531: Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A. To find faults in the software
B. To prove that the software has no faults
C. To give confidence in the software
D. To find performance problems

B

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Q. 532: Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A. Component testing
B. Non-functional system testing
C. User acceptance testing
D. Maintenance testing

D

Q. 533: What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:

A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Management review
D. Post project review

B

Q. 534: Maintenance means

A. Updating tests when the software has changed
B. Testing a released system that has been changed
C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
D. Testing to maintain business advantage

B

Q. 535: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

B

Q. 536: All of the following might be done during unit testing except

A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing

B

Q. 537: Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?

I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

A.I, II &III
B.I, II &IV
C.II, III&IV
D.I, III&IV

A

Q. 538: When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis

A

Q. 539: The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.

I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed

A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV

B

Q. 540: Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?

A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control

C

Q. 541: A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements,or both are combined all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.

A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing

B

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Q. 542: You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.

A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

C

Q. 543: There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not do on the first application?

A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity

C

Q. 544: Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.

A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning

D

Q. 545: Which of the following assertions about code coverage are correct?

A. Statement coverage usually requires more test case suites
B. 100 % statement coverage guarantees 100 % decision coverage
C. 100 % decision coverage implies 100 % statement coverage
D. Decision tables cannot be used to list statement coverage values

C

Q. 546: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?

A. It includes functional testing
B. It includes loop testing
C. It is usually done after black-box testing
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase

B

Q. 547: "The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation" done by

A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities

A

Q. 548: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 % condition coverage?

if ((temperature < 0) or (temperature > 100)) {
alert ("DANGER");
if ((speed > 100) and (load <= 50)) {
speed = 50;
}
} else {
check = false;
}

A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3

A

Q. 549: Big bang approach is related to

A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing

D

Q. 550: Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?

I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

A. I, II&III
B.II, III&IV
C.I, II&IV
D.I, III&IV

C

Q. 551: An expert based test estimation is also known as

A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi

B

Q. 552: A test harness is a

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A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

C

Q. 553: Be bugging is known as

A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

C

Q. 554: A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to

A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
C. Modify the project s organizational structure to meet the manager s management style
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

B

Q. 555: "This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks" This statement is best suited for

A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model

D

Q. 556: Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?

A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system

A

Q. 557: Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?

I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting

A.I, II&III
B.II, III &IV
C.I, III &IV
D.I, II & IV

C

Q. 558: System test can begin when?

I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting

II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system testing

III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

D

Q. 559: Defect Density calculated in terms of

A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system

B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards

C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase

D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

A

Q. 560: Test charters are used in testing

A. Exploratory testing
B. Usability testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintainability testing

A

Q. 561: Item transmittal report is also known as

A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report

B

Q. 562: COTS is known as

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A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software

A

Q. 563: Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request must be written and should include the following criteria.

I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.

A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

D

Q. 564: Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs? Change X Change Y

A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user

D

Q. 565: Cause effect graphing is related to the standard

A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1

B

Q. 566: The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to

A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version

B

Q. 567: During the testing of a module tester X finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it s not a bug. What X should do?

A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

D

Q. 568: One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for this incident?

A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only

A

Q. 569: You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan

A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

A

Q. 570: Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems

A. Data driven testing

B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing

B

Q. 571: A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is

A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

B

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Q. 572: What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the software?

A. Probed risks
B. Product risks
C. Economic risks
D. Requirements risks

B

Q. 573: Consider the following statements

i. A incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. The incident record does not include information on test environments
v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

B

Q. 574: Which test suite will check for an invalid transition using the diagram below?

A. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S4
B. S0-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
C. S0-S1-S3-S1-S2-S1
D. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2

C

Q. 575: Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance testing, respectively?

A. Senior programmers and professional testers
B. Technical system testers and potential customers
C. Independent test team and users of the system
D. Development team and customers of the system

B

Q. 576: Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common type of V-model?

A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and regression testing
B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing
C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing, and data driven testing
D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box testing

B

Q. 577: Which general testing principles are characterized by the descriptions below?

W) Early testing
X) Defect clustering
Y) Pesticide paradox
Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy

1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project
2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects
4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised

A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4
B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2
C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4
D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3

B

Q. 578: How are (a) static analysis tools and (b) performance testing tools different?

A. (a) helps in enforcing coding standards; (b) tests system performance
B. (a) analyzes security vulnerabilities; (b) measures the effectiveness of test cases
C. (a) prepares codes prior to testing; (b) prepares codes prior to stress testing
D. (a) highlights unreachable conditions; (b) improves system performance

A

Q. 579: In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

C

Q. 580: Which of the following describe test control actions that may occur during testing?

I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes before fixes are accepted into a build.

II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test environment.

III. Re-prioritizing tests when development delivers software late

A. I only

B. II only

C. I, II and III

C

. 581: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

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Rule 1

Rule 2

Rule 3

Rule 4

Conditions

Indian Resident?

False

True

True

True

Age between 18-55

Don t Care

False

True

True

Married

Don t Care

Don t Care

False

True

Actions

Issue Membership?

False

False

True

True

Offer 10% discount?

False

False

True

False

A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.

A. A Issue membership, 10% discount, B Issue membership, offer no discount.
B. A Don t Issue membership, B Don t offer discount.
C. A Issue membership, no discount, B Don t Issue membership.
D. A Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

C

Q. 582: Which of the following is false?

A. Incidents should always be fixed.
B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

A

Q. 583: Which of the following is false?

A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

B

Q. 584: A testing process that is conducted to test new features after regression testing of previous features.

A. Operational testing
B. Progressive testing
C. Recovery testing
D. Regression testing

B

Q. 585: Identify out of the following, which are the attributes of cost of faults?

A. These are cheapest to detect during early phases of development & becomes more & more expensive to fix in the later phases.

B. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.

D. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.

A

Q. 586: What is non-functional testing?

A. Testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements

B. Testing the internal structure of the system to ensure it s built correctly

C. Testing the way the system works without regard to the level of test

D. Testing characteristics such as usability or reliability

D

Q. 587: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

A. Boundary value analysis
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Security testing

A

Q. 588: Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Decision tables are useful when dealing with multiple inputs that do not interact.

II. The strength of a decision table is that it creates combinations of inputs that might not otherwise been evaluated.

III. Decision tables are useful when trying to capture system requirements that contain logical conditions.

IV. Each column of a decision table corresponds to a business rule that defines a unique combination of conditions.

A. II, III and IV

B. I and IV

C. I, II and III

D. I and III

A

Q. 589: Which of the following are metrics (measurements) that a test group may use to monitor progress?

I. Subjective confidence of the testers in the product

II. The number of testers currently testing

III. Percentage of planned test cases prepared

IV. Defects found and fixed

A. I only

B. I, III and IV

C. I, II and IV

D. II and IV

B

Q. 590: A test case has which of the following elements?

A. A test environment description and test instructions.

B. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes.

C. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions.

D. Execution instructions and a function description to determine correct outcome.

B

Q. 591: Which of the following is a fundamental principle of software defect prevention?

A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect is essential.

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Q. 592: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

A. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail

B. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design

C. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

D

Q. 592: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

A. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail

B. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design

C. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system

C

Q. 593: Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE?

A. Static analysis can find defects that are likely to be missed by dynamic testing.

B. Static analysis is a good way to force failures in the software.

C. Static analysis tools examine code or other types of product documentation.

D. Static analysis can result in cost saving by finding bugs early.

B

Q. 594: Which of the following statements is true about white-box testing?

A. It includes functional testing.
B. It includes loop testing.
C. It is usually done after black-box testing.
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase.

B

Q. 595: A set of behavioral and performance requirements which, in aggregate, determine the functional properties of a software system.

A. Functional requirement
B. Functional specifications
C. Functional test cases

B

Q. 596: Which of the following provides the test group with the ability to reference all documents and software items unambiguously?

A. Agile testing methodology

B. Effective use of tools

C. Configuration management

D. Requirements traceability matrix

C

Q. 597: Which of the following is not a job responsibility of a software tester?

A. Identifying test cases
B. Preparing test data
C. Executing tests
D. Writing the functional specifications

D

Q.598: Which of the following are Black Box test design techniques?

I. Boundary value analysis

II. Branch condition testing

III. Equivalence partitioning

IV. State transition testing.

A. I, II, III and IV

B. I and III

C. III and IV

D. I, III and IV

D

Q. 599: Which of the following are test management tool capabilities?

I. The enforcement of coding standards.

II. Support for requirements traceability activities.

III. The generation of testing progress reports

IV. Generation of test process improvement information.

A. II, III and IV

B. I and II

C. I, III and IV

D. III and IV

A

Q. 600: Errors that are cosmetic in nature are usually assigned a severity level.

A. Fatal (Severity)
B. Low (Severity)
C. Serious (Severity)
D. Not Serious at all

B