Chapter 20 – Pregnancy at Risk: Selected Health Conditions & Vulnerable Populations

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40 question-and-answer style flashcards summarizing critical nursing concepts for managing high-risk pregnancies in Chapter 20.

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39 Terms

1
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Name four major categories of conditions that can make a pregnancy high-risk.

Diabetes, cardiac and respiratory disorders, anemia, and autoimmune or specific infectious diseases.

2
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What are the four main clinical classifications of diabetes mellitus?

Type 1, Type 2, impaired fasting glucose/impaired glucose tolerance (pre-diabetes), and gestational diabetes.

3
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During pregnancy, diabetes is clinically categorized into which two groups?

Pregestational diabetes and gestational diabetes.

4
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True or False: A patient who develops diabetes while pregnant is classified as having type 2 diabetes.

False. Development of diabetes during pregnancy is classified as gestational diabetes.

5
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In diabetes-affected pregnancies, an HbA1c goal of less than ___ % is recommended before conception and throughout gestation.

7 %.

6
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List two key maternal screening time points for gestational diabetes.

At the first prenatal visit and again at 24–28 weeks for at-risk patients.

7
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What are the fasting and 1-hour post-prandial glucose targets for patients with gestational diabetes?

Fasting blood sugar < 95 mg/dL; 1-hour post-prandial < 120 mg/dL.

8
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Give two benefits of breastfeeding for a patient with gestational diabetes.

Helps normalize maternal blood glucose and reduces the recurrence risk of gestational diabetes mellitus in future pregnancies.

9
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Macrosomia related to gestational diabetes often leads to what mode of birth?

Cesarean section.

10
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Which four structural defects make up Tetralogy of Fallot?

Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

11
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List three common acquired heart conditions that may complicate pregnancy.

Mitral valve prolapse, mitral or aortic stenosis, and peripartum cardiomyopathy.

12
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How is a patient with class II heart disease expected to respond to increased physical activity?

They become symptomatic (e.g., dyspnea, chest pain) with increased activity.

13
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Define chronic hypertension in pregnancy.

Hypertension present before pregnancy, diagnosed before 20 weeks’ gestation, or persisting longer than 12 weeks postpartum.

14
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Which dietary plan is recommended for patients with chronic hypertension during pregnancy?

The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet.

15
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Name two rescue or maintenance drugs considered safe for asthma management during pregnancy.

Budesonide (inhaled corticosteroid) and albuterol (short-acting beta-agonist).

16
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Which three first-line medications form the standard regimen for treating tuberculosis in pregnancy?

Isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol.

17
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List three typical clinical findings in a pregnant patient with iron-deficiency anemia.

Fatigue, pale mucous membranes, and tachycardia.

18
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Which vitamin enhances the absorption of oral iron supplements?

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid).

19
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Differentiate between alpha and beta thalassemia regarding pregnancy impact.

Alpha (minor) usually causes mild persistent anemia with little pregnancy effect; beta (major) often precludes pregnancy due to severe lifelong hemolysis and anemia.

20
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State two priorities in intrapartum care for a laboring patient with sickle cell anemia.

Adequate pain control and maintenance of oxygenation/hydration (IV fluids and supplemental O₂).

21
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Give one localized and one systemic autoimmune disease that may affect pregnancy.

Localized: Hashimoto thyroiditis or Graves disease; Systemic: systemic lupus erythematosus.

22
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Which congenital infection is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing loss and neuro-disability in newborns?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

23
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Rubella infection during pregnancy primarily increases the risk for which three fetal anomalies?

Sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts/glaucoma (eye defects), and congenital heart defects.

24
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What antibiotic is routinely administered intrapartum to mothers colonized with Group B Streptococcus?

Penicillin (PCN).

25
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List two common routes of toxoplasmosis transmission to pregnant people.

Handling cat litter or soil (gardening) and eating undercooked meat.

26
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Outline the antiretroviral therapy (ART) schedule for an HIV-positive pregnancy.

Oral ART twice daily from 14 weeks until birth, IV ART during labor, and oral ART syrup for the newborn for the first 6 weeks of life.

27
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True or False: All HIV-positive pregnant patients must deliver via cesarean section.

False. Mode of delivery depends on viral load, membrane status, labor progress, and other clinical factors.

28
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List five vulnerable maternal populations highlighted in Chapter 20.

Adolescents, persons of advanced maternal age (≥ 35), pregnant patients with obesity, those living with HIV, and those who misuse substances.

29
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Name three key areas to assess when caring for a pregnant adolescent.

Vision of future goals, knowledge of health/nutrition, and availability of financial or emotional support systems.

30
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What prenatal diagnostic test is commonly offered to pregnant persons over age 35 for genetic evaluation?

Amniocentesis.

31
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Identify two hallmark facial features of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FAS/FASD).

Smooth/thin upper lip and short palpebral fissures (small eye openings).

32
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Which illicit substance exposure in utero is most associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome?

Opiates or narcotics (e.g., heroin, methadone).

33
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State one essential nursing approach when managing pregnant patients who misuse substances.

Maintain a nonjudgmental, supportive attitude to foster honest disclosure and adherence to care.

34
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What physiological change of pregnancy can exacerbate existing cardiac disease?

Increased blood volume and cardiac workload, elevating myocardial oxygen demand.

35
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Name four signs of cardiac decompensation nurses should monitor for during pregnancy.

Dyspnea, fatigue, palpitations, and pedal edema/orthopnea.

36
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Which classes of cardiac drugs are commonly used during pregnancy, and which should be avoided because it crosses the placenta?

Diuretics, beta blockers, calcium-channel blockers, and anticoagulants like heparin are used; warfarin is avoided.

37
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What fetal surveillance method combines ultrasound with fetal heart rate reactivity to assess well-being in diabetic pregnancies?

Biophysical profile (BPP).

38
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State two lifestyle recommendations for preventing gestational hypertension in patients with pre-existing chronic hypertension.

Daily rest periods and home blood-pressure monitoring, along with diet and exercise modifications.

39
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During respiratory assessment of a pregnant patient with asthma, what key lung sound indicates airway narrowing?

Wheezing.