Advanced clinical bacteriology

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120 Terms

1
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A test for the hydrolysis of esculin in the presence of bile is especially useful in differentiating species of the genus:

Haemophilus

Streptococcus

Brucella

Staphylococcus

Veillonella

streptococcus

2
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An environmental sampling study of respiratory therapy equipment produced cultures of a yellow, nonfermentative, gram-negative bacillus from several of the nebulizers, which would most likely be species of:

Flavobacterium

Alcaligenes

Pseudomonas

Moraxella

Acinetobacter

Flavobacterium

3
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Culture media such as Mueller-Hinton broth, trypticase soy agar with sheep blood, or Todd-Hewitt broth will not support the growth of Abiotrophia and Granulicatella because they are deficient in:

Cysteine

Pyridoxal

Hemin

Thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide

Beta-galactosidase

Pyridoxal (vitamin B6)

4
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A fastidious gram-negative bacillus was isolated from a case of periodontal disease, which upon dark-field examination was noted to have a gliding motility. The most likely identification of this etiologic agent would be:

Capnocytophaga

Kingella

Plesiomonas

Chromobacterium

Campylobacter

Capnocytophaga

5
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Severe disseminated intravascular coagulation often complicates cases of:

Pneumococcemia

Gonococcemia

Streptococcemia

Meningococcemia

Staphylococcemia

Meningococcemia

6
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Nocardia asteroides infections in humans characteristically produce:

Draining cutaneous sinuses

Carbuncles

Septic shock

Gastrointestinal disease

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Draining cutaneous sinuses

7
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Erysipelothrix infections in humans characteristically produce:

Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism

Central nervous system pathology

The formation of abscesses in visceral organs

Pathology in the lower respiratory tract

Lesions of the urinary tract

Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism

8
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Salmonella typhi exhibits a characteristic biochemical activity pattern, which differentiates it from the typical salmonellae reactions. All the reactions listed below are produced by S. typhi except:

Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar

Anaerogenic

Citrate negative

Agglutination in Vi grouping serum

Presence in the blood before it is able to be recovered from feces

Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar

9
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Melioidosis is transmitted by:

Inhalation of spores

Contact with infected surface waters

Droplet infection from infected horses

Blood transfusions

Animal bites

Contact with infected surface waters

10
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The pseudomonad frequently misidentified as an enteric pathogen because it produces a large amount of H2S is:

Shewanella putrefaciens

Pseudomonas putida

Pseudomonas cepacia

Pseudomonas pseudomallei

Pseudomonas fluorescens

Shewanella putrefaciens

11
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Agricultural insecticides are made from the toxin proteins produced by:

Bacillus licheniformis

Bacillus pumilus

Bacillus thuringiensis

Bacillus sphaericus

Bacillus cereus

Bacillus thuringiensis

12
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The etiologic agent of the disease erysipelas is:

Bartonella bacilliformis

Streptobacillus moniliformis

Streptococcus pyogenes

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Streptococcus pyogenes

13
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Acinetobacter species are similar to other Neisseriaceae with the notable exception that they are:

Gram-negative coccoid organisms

Grown on blood and chocolate agars

Oxidase negative

Glucose positive

Catalase positive

Oxidase negative

14
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Identify the fermentative agent that may infect reptiles or fish as well as humans when they are exposed to contaminated soil or water:

Edwardsiella

Aeromonas

Cedecea

Flavobacterium

Hafnia

Aeromonas

15
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Streptococci obtain all their energy requirements from the fermentation of sugars to:

Succinic acid

Formic acid

Lactic acid

Valeric acid

Butyric acid

Lactic acid

16
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When a case of nocardiosis is suspected, isolates of Nocardia asteroides can be separated from other bacteria by:

Cold shocking of the culture

Incubating the culture at greater than 37°C

Drying the specimen before inoculating the culture media

Heat shocking the culture

Incubating the culture at 24°C

Incubating the culture at greater than 37 degrees Celsius

17
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Identify the motile, oxidase and nitrate positive, gram-negative bacillus that was isolated from a case of endocarditis following the implantation of a prosthetic heart valve. Related species have long been recognized as plant pathogens.

Erwinia carotivorum

Agrobacterium radiobacter

Mycobacterium terrae

Chryscobacterium species

Hafnia alvei

Agrobacterium radiobacter

18
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The former species of Corynebacterium that is a pathogen of swine, horses, and cattle is also known to cause disease in compromised hosts. This organism when grown on culture media produces pale pink colonies that help to presumptively identify it as:

Gardnerella vaginalis

Actinomyces pyogenes

Aracnobacterium hemolyticum

Rhodococcus equi

Propionibacterium avidium

Rhodococcus equi

19
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Which of the following is not true regarding virulent strains of Vibrio cholerae?

Toxigenic

Colonize the large intestine

Adherent

Motile

Respond to chemotactic stimuli

Colonize the large intestine. They do colonize the small intestine

20
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Nocardia can be differentiated from Actinomyces based on:

Nocardia being an obligate anaerobe

The partial-acid fast staining reaction of Actinomyces

The production of sulfur granules in cases of nocardiosis

Nocardia being acid-fast

Actinomyces being gram-positive

Nocardia being acid-fast

21
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Yersinia pestis is characteristically:

Urease negative

Hydrogen sulfide positive

Motile at 20° - 25°C

Oxidase positive

Transmitted by the deer tick

Urease negative

22
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Lack of motility is characteristic of:

Tatumella ptyseos

Morganella morganii

Kluyvera ascorbata

Cedacea davisae

Edwardsiella tarda

Tatumella ptyseos

23
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Klebsiella Calymmatobacterium granulomatis is:

Resistant to ampicillin and tetracycline

Grown easily on blood agar

Transmitted by mites

A gram-positive organism

The causative agent of granuloma inguinale

The causative agent of granuloma inguinale

24
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Which of the following organisms is able to hydrolyze sodium hippurate to benzoic acid and glycine?

Streptococcus agalactiae

Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus bovis

Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis

Streptococcus agalactiae

25
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Cardiobacterim hominis, an inhabitant of the upper respiratory tract of humans, has been recovered as the etiologic agent from cases of endocarditis. An identifying characteristic of the organism is:

Motility

Positive catalase

Positive oxidase

Gram-positive bacillus

Strict anaerobe

Positive oxidase

26
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Which of the following organisms produce a positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction?

Kluyvera ascorbata

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Tatumella ptyseos

Yersinia enterocolitica

Cedecea davisae

Tatumella ptyseos

27
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Which of the following organisms is unable to grow on MacConkey agar?

Chromobacterium violaceum

Bordetella bronchiseptica

Plesiomonas shigelloides

Acinetobacter anitratus

Kingella denitrificans

Kingella denitrificans

28
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Which of the following is not true about Coxiella burnetii?

Is an obligate intracellular parasite

Is transmitted from animals to man by inhalation

A rash characteristically appears first on the extremities then on the trunk

Is the etiologic agent of Q fever, which may be acute or chronic

Is susceptible to tetracycline

A rash characteristically appears first on the extremities then on the trunk. This is false due to Coxiella burnetii being inhaled by spores.

29
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The optimal clinical specimen for the recovery of Legionella pneumophilia is:

Nasopharyngeal swab

Blood

Stool

Bronchial washings

Urine

Bronchial washings

30
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Which of the following species of Moraxella is able to deaminate phenylalanine and break down urea?

M. osloensis

M. lacunata

M. urethralis

M. nonliquefaciens

Psychrobacter phenylpyruvica

Psychrobacter phenylpyruvica

31
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Which of the following bacterial agents may cause human skin infections following contact with infected tissue of cattle suffering with "woody tongue"?

Bacillus anthracis

Actinobacillus lignieresii

Streptobacillus moniliformis

Capnocytophaga sputigena

Rhodococcus equi

Actinobacillus lignieresii

32
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Which of the following is a species of group C streptococci?

S. faecium

S. equisimilis

S. agalactiae

S. sanguis

S. equinis

S. equisimilis

33
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The optimal specimen for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis is:

Coughed sputum

Blood

Anterior nares swab

Pleural fluid

Nasopharyngeal swab

Nasopharyngeal swab

34
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Streptococcus sanguis is most commonly associated with which of the following clinical conditions?

Relapsing fever

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Otitis media

Pharyngitis

Bacterial meningitis

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

35
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Violet-colored colonies are typically produced by:

Chromobacterium violaceum

Flavobacterium meningosepticum

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Serratia marcscens

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Chromobacterium violaceum

36
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Edwardsiella tarda biochemically may be confused with Salmonella in that it is:

Lactose positive

Hydrogen sulfide positive

Urea positive

Nonmotile

Polar flagellated

Hydrogen sulfide positive

37
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The characteristic colonial morphology of Actinomyces israelii on solid agar resembles:

Bread crumbs

A molar tooth

A fried egg

Ground glass

An oil droplet

A molar tooth

38
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An obligately anaerobic, gram-negative bacillus, recovered from an abdominal wound, was found to be resistant to penicillin. Growth of this organism was not inhibited in the presence of bile. What is the most likely identification of this isolate?

Eubacterium lentum

Fusobacterium nucleatum

Bacteroides fragilis

Clostridium septicum

Propionibacterium acnes

Bacteroides fragilis

39
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Obligately anaerobic gram-positive cocci or coccobacilli that are often found in chains are called:

Propionibacterium

Peptostreptococcus

Capnocytophaga

Peptococcus

Veillonella

Peptostreptococcus

40
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The anerobic organism that is presumptively identified by its ability to grow on kanamycin, vancomycin, blood agar (KV) is:

Clostridium perfringens

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

Bifidobacterium eriksonii

Bacteroides fragilis ssp fragilis

Eubacterium lentum

Bacteroides fragilis ssp fragilis

41
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The majority of the gram-positive, non-spore-forming, anaerobic bacilli isolated from clinical material will be:

Propionibacterium acnes

Arachnia propionica

Bifidobacterium dentium

Eubacterium limosum

Actinomyces israelii

Propionibacterium acnes

42
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The gram-negative, non-spore-forming, anaerobic bacillus frequently implicated in such serious clinical infections as brain abscesses and lung abscesses is:

Leptotrichia buccalis

Bacteroides melaninogenicus

Fusobacterium nucleatum

Eubacterium lentum

Propionibacterium acnes

Fusobacterium nucleatum

43
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Septicemia caused by which of the following is generally associated with an underlying malignancy?

Clostridium septicum

Clostridium perfringens

Bifidobacterium

Eubacterium lentum

Lactobacillus catenaforme

Clostridium septicum

44
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Identify the statement that does not describe a characteristic of Clostridium botulinum.

Wound infections may produce botulism in humans

Of the seven toxicologic types, types A, B, E, and F are associated with human botulism

Pathogenicity is related to a potent neurotoxin

Oval spores are located either centrally or subterminally

It produces a positive Nagler reaction

It produces a positive Nagler reaction. The Nagler reaction is a test for the production of licithinase (the alpha toxin specifically) and is primarily used for the presumptive ID of clostridium perfringens.

45
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Which of the following is not a gram-positive, anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacilli?

Actinomyces israelii

Bifidobacterium eriksonii

Lactobacillus catenaforme

Eubacterium lentum

Wolinella curva

Wolinella curva

46
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Which of the following is not a characteristic used for the presumptive identification of Fusobacterium necrophorum?

Pleomorphic gram-negative bacillus with rounded ends

Lipase positive

Indole positive

Catalase positive

Esculin negative

Catalase positive

47
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Which of the following organisms is not gram-positive?

Eubacterium lentum

Bifidobacterium eriksonii

Propionibacterium acnes

Leptotrichia buccalis

Lactobacillus cantenaforme

Leptotrichia buccalis

48
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Identify the correct statement concerning the genus Veillonella:

Gram-positive, anaerobic cocci

Significant pathogens found in pure culture in infections

Ferments a variety of carbohydrates

Obligate anaerobes

Esculin positive

Obligate anaerobes

49
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Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Propionibacterium acnes?

Produce a major amount of lactic acid

Catalase positive

Normal inhabitant of human skin

Very susceptible to penicillin

Produces propionic acid from glucose fermentation

Produces a major amount of lactic acid

50
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A curved appearance on Gram stain is characteristic of which of the following?

Propionibacterium acnes

Clostridium ramosum

Actinomyces israelii

Clostridium septicum

Eubacterium lentum

Clostridium ramosum

51
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Which of the following descriptions is most characteristic of Bifidobacterium dentium?

Pale staining, gram-negative bacilli with tapered ends

Slender, long, curved, gram-positive bacilli

Gram-positive bacilli, diphtheroidal

Gram-positive bacilli, filamentous, and branching forms

Gram-positive bacilli with swollen sporangia with round terminal spores

Gram-positive bacilli, diphtheroidal

52
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Which of the following is an important virulence factor of Bacteroides fragilis?

Endotoxin

Protease

Exotoxins

Polysaccharide capsule

Chemotaxis

Polysaccharide capsule

53
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During the first week of the disease leptospirosis, the most reliable way to detect the presence of the causative agent is by the direct:

Culturing of urine

Examination of cerebrospinal fluid

Culturing of blood

Examination of blood

Culturing of kidney tissue

Culturing of blood

54
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A research technologist was bitten on the hand by a laboratory rodent. After a week the technologist experienced regional lymphadenitis, fever, a rash spreading from the site of the bite, and liver enlargement. Wound exudate, node tissue, and blood cultures failed to grow the etiologic agent. Dark-field examination and Giemsa stain of clinical material showed short, thick, spiral cells with bipolar tufts of flagella. The etiologic agent in this case was identified as:

Pseudomonas mallei

Treponema pertenue

Spirillum minus (minor)

Borellia recurrentis

Leptospira interrogans

Spirillum minus (minor)

55
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The axial fibrils of spirochetes most closely resemble which bacterial structure?

Cytoplasmic membrane

Flagellum

Pilus

Sporangium

Cytoplasmic inclusion body

Flagellum

56
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Select the statement that is correct in regard to the genus Leptospira.

Push RBC's around in wet preparations made from blood

Parasitic for species of arthropods

Can be visualized by bright-field microscopy

Helicoidal organisms with semicircular hooked ends

Pathogenic leptospires are anaerobic organisms

Helicoidal organisms with semicircular hooked ends

57
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The characterization of spirochetes relies primarily on:

Metabolic end products

Cell wall constituents

Carbohydrate degradation

Morphology

Gram stain reaction

Morphology

58
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Which of the following is true for Treponema pallidum?

Can be cultivated on semisolid Fletcher's medium

Parasitic for species of arthropods

Carried by the tick Ixodes dammini

Able to be cultivated on serum agar

Obligate anaerobe

Obligate anaerobe

59
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When reading a tube dilution test, one observes that tube 5 demonstrates no observable growth. Therefore one determines that the amount of antibiotic in tube 5 represents:

The minimum bacteriostatic concentration

The minimum lethal concentration

The minimum therapeutic concentration

The minimum inhibitory concentration

The minimum zone of inhibition concentration

The minimum inhibitory cencentration

60
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The chemotherapeutic agents that are structurally similar to the vitamin p-aminobenzoic acid and act to inhibit bacteria by the inhibition of folic acid synthesis are:

Aminoglycosides

Penicillins

Macrolides

Tetracyclines

Sulfonamides

Sulfonamides

61
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Which drug known to be active against parasitic infections has importance as a therapeutic agent in cases of disease caused by anaerobic bacteria?

Trimethoprim

Metronidazole

Isoniazid

Rifampin

Novobiocin

Metronidazole

62
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Select from the statements below the one that is not correct regarding ciprofloxacin:

No activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A fluoroquinolone

A bactericidal drug

Acts to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

Naladixic acid was the first drug in the quinolone class

No activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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The phenomenon of bacterial resistance to the bactericidal activity of penicillins and cephalosporins, with only inhibition of the organism's growth, is know as:

High-level resistance

Intrinsic resistance

Tolerance

Inducible resistance

Low-level resistance

Tolerance

64
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Select from the list of antibiotics given one that does not act as an inhibitor of protein synthesis:

Aminoglycosides

Tetracyclines

Erythromycin

Chloramphenicol

Ciprofloxacin

Ciprofloxacin

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Beta-lactam antimicrobials comprise the penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenams, and monobactams. These antimicrobials are bactericidal to susceptible bacteria. Their therapeutic application is recommended for all of the following etiologic agents except:

Mycoplasma

Escherichia coli

Non-penicillinase-producing strains of Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus agalactiae

Non-penicillinase-producing strains of Haemophilus influenzae

Mycoplasma

66
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Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

Vancomycin

Clindamycin

Naladixic acid

Gentamicin

Erythromycin

Vancomycin

67
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Metronidazole is most commonly recommended for treatment of infections caused by:

Obligate intracellular microorganisms

Microaerophilic microorganisms

Aerobic microorganisms

Obligate anaerobic microorganisms

Mycobacteria

Obligate anaerobic microorganisms

68
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Which of the following antimicrobial agents act by inhibiting protein synthesis?

Rifampin

Methicillin

Gentamicin

Vancomycin

Penicillin

Gentamicin

69
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The synergistic action of sulfonamides and trimethoprim is related to which of the following?

Inhibition of beta-lactamase

Inhibition of the sequential steps in tetrahydrofolate synthesis

Altered poron channels

Altered penicillin-binding proteins

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

Inhibition of the sequential steps in tetrahydrofolate synthesis

70
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Steam ethylene oxide gas sterilizers must be checked weekly with an appropriate live-spore suspension. The test spores used for steam sterilizers are those of:

Bacillus stearothermophilus

Bacillus cereus

Bacillus subtilis

Bacillus thuringiensis

Bacillus anthracis

Bacillus stearothermophilus

71
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Volumes of culture media of up to 500 mL can be sterilized by autoclaving at:

127°C for 5 min

124°C for 10 min

121°C for 15 min

118°C for 20 min

115°C for 25 min

121C for 15 min

72
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Which of the following is NOT true of blood cultures for the recovery of bacteria?

No more than 3 cultures should be drawn in 1 day

Cultures should be drawn before the expected fever spike

Cultures should be incubated aerobically and anaerobically

Collect 5 mL of blood for optimal recovery of pathogen

Hold cultures at least 1 week before reporting as negative

Collect 5 mL of blood for optimal recovery of pathogen.

73
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Quality assurance testing requires selecting an organism that will demonstrate a positive reaction on a citrate agar slant. Select the organism from the list below that would give a positive reaction.

Shigella sonnei

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Escherichia coli

Morganella morganii

Yersinia enterocolitica

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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When an epidemiologic survey for the detection of upper respiratory carriers of Neisseria meningitidis or Bordetella pertussis is being conducted, the optimal type of specimen to be obtained for culture is:

Throat

External nares

Buccal cavity

Nasopharyngeal tract

Sputum

Nasopharyngeal tract

75
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Diseases produced by rickettsiae are transmitted to humans by:

An arthropod vector

Contact with stagnant water contaminated with rat urine

Droplet nuclei

Ingestion of contaminated food products

The bite of a dog or cat

An arthropod vector

76
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Milk has classically been the primary food associated with disease transmission, especially for those diseases of cattle that are transmissible to man, such as:

Meliodosis

Cryptococcosis

Diphtheria

Brucellosis

Tularemia

Brucellosis

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Which of the following statements is true concerning those organisms that are anaerobic, gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacilli?

Bifidobacterium eriksonii is the most frequent contaminant of blood cultures

Lactobacilli species primarily produce propionic acid from the fermentation of glucose

Eubacterium are highly pathogenic for man and are primarily isolated in pure culture from infections

Actinomyces are a part of the indigenous microbial flora of the female genital tract and have been implicated in infections associated with the use of IUDs

Propioinibacterium acnes is usually a pathogen in clinical material

Actinomyces are a part of the indigenous microbial flora of the female genital tract and have been implicated in infections associated with the use of IUDs

78
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Association with sink and faucet aerators and humidifiers used with ventilators in the intensive care units is most commonly a factor in outbreaks of infections with which of the following microorganisms?

Serratia marcescens

Mycobacterium marinum

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Salmonella enteritidis

Staphylococcus aureus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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A tryptophan broth culture produces a red color following the addition of Ehrlich's reagent. The color produced indicates the presence of:

Indole

Phenylalanine deaminase

Acetylmethylcarbinol

Ammonia

Nitrites

Indole

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A Salmonella species was inoculated to a Moeller lysine broth. After incubation, the tube shows evidence of growth and is purple. The purple color indicates that the organism has decarboxylated the lysine to:

Putrescine

Ornithine

Cysteine

Tyrosine

Cadaverine

Cadaverine

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In the nitrate test, reduction is demonstrated by the development of a red color, following the addition of:

Alpha-naphthol and potassium hydroxide

p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde and amyl alcohol

Ninhydrin and acetone

Alpha-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid

o-nitrophenyl-ß-D-galactoside and toluene

Alpha-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid

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Which of the following would be negative using the acid-fast stain?

Cryptosporidium sp

Actinomyces israelii

Mycobacterium leprae

Isospora belli

Nocardia asteroides

Actinomyces israelii

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When using the rapid chromogenic cephalosporin method for the detection of beta-lactamase production by an organism, a positive test is indicated by the color:

Purple

Green

Pink-red

Blue

Yellow

Pink-red

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The nucleic acid probe procedure that analyzes DNA is called a:

Western blot

Lectin assay

Northern blot

Liposome-enhanced latex agglutination

Southern blot

Southern blot

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The initial step in the preparation of a gene probe is the isolation and removal of the desired gene by digesting DNA with:

A nitrocellulose filter

Restriction endonuclease enzymes

Sodium hydroxide

DNA ligase

Ethidium bromide

Restriction endonuclease enzymes

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Which of the following techniques for the analysis of DNA has proven to be a rapid and reliable means of distinguishing related and unrelated bacterial strains for clinical and epidemiologic purposes?

Carbohydrate utilization analysis

Metabolic end product analysis

PCR techniques

Antimicrobial susceptibility pattern analysis

Bacteriophage analysis

PCR techniques

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A young woman was seen by her physician for a dermatologic problem that developed 48 hours after she used the whirlpool at her health spa. She was afebrile with a macular, pustular skin rash on her chest, abdomen, and back. A gram-negative, nonfermentative, motile organism was recovered from a culture of one of the lesions. This case is most consistent with which of the following infectious processes?

Q fever

Chancroid

Acinetobacter cellulitis

Pseudomonas dermatitis

Cutaneous diphtheria

Pseudomonas dermatitis

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The observation of Koplik's spots along with the clinical symptoms of fever and rash strengthens the diagnosis of:

Erysipeloid

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Varicella

Scarlet fever

Measles

Measles

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A 35-year-old man came to the gastrointestinal clinic with symptoms of fever, chills, nausea, sore throat, headache, and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. Blood, stool, and urine cultures were taken, and he was told to return in 2 days. When he returned, the doctor noted that the patient had developed rose-colored spots on his trunk. The blood culture was found to be positive for a gram-negative bacillus that gave the following biochemical reactions:

TSIAlkaline/acid, no gas, slight H2S
CitrateNegative
UreaNegative
LysinePositive
MotilityPositive
ONPGNegative
IndoleNegative
Given the previous description, the most likely diagnosis would be:

Salmonella typhi

Vibrio cholerae

Shigella dysenteriae

Campylobacter jejuni

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

Salmonella typhi

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With the complaint of fever and leg pain a patient was seen by a physician. It was noted that the patient resided in a crowded housing shelter and did not practice good hygiene. A tentative diagnosis of trench fever was made, and laboratory studies were initiated. The mode of transmission for this disease is the body louse, which carries the infectious agent:

Bartonella quintana

Coxiella burnetii

Bartonella bacilliformis

Rickettsia prowazekii

Rickettsia tsutsugamushi

Bartonella quintana

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A 32-year-old male was seen in the emergency room with symptoms of lower right quadrant abdominal pain and diarrhea. A CBC showed a leukocytosis with an increased number of neutrophils. He was admitted, and a stool culture was obtained. The culture showed many bipolar-staining, gram-negative bacilli, which were oxidase negative, citrate negative, and indole negative. The TSI reaction was acid over acid, but there was no evidence of gas or H2S production. The organism was positive for urease and ONPG and negative for phenylalanine. The characteristic symptomatology and the biochemical reactions confirmed that the etiologic agent was:

Campylobacter jejuni

Yersinia enterocolitica

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

Tatumella ptyseos

Klebsiella oxytoca

Yersinia enterocolitica

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Blood cultures from a patient admitted to the hospital with fever, malaise, skin rash, and painful joints grew a pleomorphic, gram-negative coccobacillus, which showed branching and swollen, club-shaped cells in chains. It was noted by the technologist that in the culture bottle growth resembled breadcrumbs on the surface of the red cells, which settled to the bottom. The most likely identification of this isolate would be:

Listeria monocytogenes

Leptospira interrogans

Streptobacillus moniliformis

Haemophilus ducreyi

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Streptobacillus moniliformis

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An immigrant from Mexico was seen in a California clinic with symptoms of a skin disease producing patches of dyschromic changes. The process was noted to spread, forming a squamous, erythematous area. Over the months a variety of hyperpigmented and depigmented areas of skin developed. Aspirated material from a cutaneous lesion demonstrated a spirochete. The most likely diagnosis would be:

Yaws

Chagas' disease

Pinta

Syphilis

Hansen's disease

Pinta

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The etiologic agent implicated in cases of repeated abortion is:

Listeria monocytogenes

Streptobacillus moniliformis

Streptococcus agalactiae

Actinobacillus lignieresii

Spirillum minus

Listeria monocytogenes

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A college student got a summer job working at a marina. While working on one of the outboard motors on a rental boat, he received several lacerations on his right forearm. No medical treatment was sought at the time of the injury but after several weeks he noted that the lesions were not healing and sought the opinion of his physician. A biopsy of one of the lesions showed it to be a cutaneous granulomatous condition. Given the history, which of the following microorganisms would most likely be the etiologic agent in this case?

Vibrio vulnificus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Mycobacterium marinum

Nocardia asteroides

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Mycobacterium marinum

96
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Bacillus cereus has been implicated as the etiologic agent in cases of:

Impetigo

Toxic shock syndrome

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Periodontal disease

Food poisoning

Food poisoning

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A woman who had recently returned from a vacation in Mexico was admitted to the hospital. She was febrile and complained of flu-like symptoms. Her case history revealed that she had eaten cheese that had been made from unpasteurized milk while on vacation. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be:

Staphylococcus aureus

Listeria monocytogenes

Yersinia enterocolitica

Bordetella pertussis

Bacillus cereus

Listeria monocytogenes

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The causative agent in cases of malignant pustule is:

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

Brucella suis

Bacillus anthracis

Mycobacterium avium complex

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Bacillus anthracis

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Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of:

Yaws

Scalded skin syndrome

Rat bite fever

Human plague

Acute gastroenteritis

Human plague

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Streptobacillus moniliformis is the etiologic agent of:

Scalded skin syndrome

Yaws

Acute gastroenteritis

Human plague

Rat bite fever

Rat bite fever