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What is the general purpose of vaccines?
To generate an immune response in the absence of a pathogen (or with a less pathogenic microbe)
Vaccines reduce risk of _____
Disease-associated complications and hospitalizations
What happens in the immune system when a vaccine is administered?
Dendritic cells collect vaccine antigens and adjuvants
Dendritic cells migrate to lymph nodes
Antigens are presented to CD4 and CD8 T cells
CD8 T cell activation results in CD8 effector T cells and CD8 memory T cells
T cell help from activated CD4 T cells leads to:
additional activation of CD8 T cells
proliferation of antigen specific B cells
maturation of the antibody response
plasma cell differentiation and antibody production
proliferation of memory B cells
The immune memory after vaccination for a pathogen with a long incubation time (like Hepatitis B) is _____
sufficient
the antibodies will reach the necessary protective level without a booster vaccine
The immune memory after vaccination for a pathogen with a short incubation time (like Influenza B) is _____
not sufficient
rapidly invasive pathogens require boosters to produce a sufficient response
Live attenuated vaccines
Live pathogens that have been weakened or inactivated
Attenuation
Reduces virulence while maintaining immunogenicity
Rational attenuation
Inactivates or removes virulence genes by targeted mutations or gene deletion (typical for viruses)
Killed whole organism vaccines
Whole organism killed by physical or chemical means
Toxoid vaccines
modified bacterial exotoxins
How do toxoid vaccines work?
Antibodies directed at toxoid neutralize exotoxins before they reach the target cell
Why are antibodies effective at neutralizing exotoxins?
Antibodies recognize linear epitopes AND conformation epitopes
This includes secondary, tertiary, and quaternary protein structure, as well as glycosylated proteins
Subunit vaccines
Antigenic molecules or critical epitopes necessary for protection against infection
Whole cell vaccines contain nonantigenic molecules that can cause rare systemic and frequent local adverse effects
Purified protein, recombinant protein, polysaccharide, peptide
Virus-like particle vaccines
Particles constructed of viral proteins that structurally mimic the native virus but lack the viral genome
Nonenveloped VLPs or Enveloped VLPs
Outer membrane vesicle vaccines
Contain gram negative bacterial outer membrane and antigen
Polysaccharide and protein-polysaccharide conjugate vaccines
Need to be conjugated to proteins to elicit T cell dependent responses and generation of immune memory
Viral vectored vaccines
Recombinant virus (replicating or not) with altered genomes to express the target pathogen antigen
Nucleic acid vaccines
Consist of either DNA or RNA encoding the target antigen
Subcutaneous or intramuscular injection of vaccines
Stimulates systemic immunity in the spleen, lymph nodes, and peripheral blood
Interrupts person-to-person transmission
Prevents the spread to crucial organs
Mucosal administration of vaccines
Antigen-stimulated lymphocytes from initial site travel to other mucosal surfaces conferring immunity at multiple mucosal sites
Passive protection
Use of specific neutralizing antibodies purified from immune donors to prevent the transmission of various viruses
Main point of herd immunity
For vaccine coverage above the threshold for herd immunity, infection cannot spread in the population and susceptible individuals are indirectly protected by vaccinated individuals
MMR vaccine
Live attenuated vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella
(Other options include measles alone or in combination with mumps or rubella)
How many types of influenza affect humans?
Three types: A, B, C
Type A Influenza
Subtypes determined by hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA)
Type B Influenza
Two lineages:
B/Yamagata
B/Victoria
Type C Influenza
Rarely reported as a cause of human illness
Not associated with epidemic disease
How do influenza viruses enter cells?
Attaches and penetrates respiratory epithelial cells in trachea and bronchi
Enters through sialic acid receptors
After influenza enters a cell, replication results in _____
Destruction of host cells
Regeneration of epithelium takes 3-4 weeks
Viremia (presence in blood) is rare
Engagement of receptors by influenza leads to _____
Activation of IRF3, IRF7, and NF-kappaB
Transcription factors
Production of IFNs
Transcription of interferon-stimulated genes
How are CD8 T cells involved in influenza?
Use cytotoxic granules and FasL-mediated apoptosis to eliminate infected cells
How are CD4 T cells involved in influenza?
Trigger B cell activation and promote antibody production to neutralize virus
_____ is important for early recovery from severe influenza
Rapid and prominent CD8 CTL recall
What type of transmission is important for Influenza A virus?
Zoonotic Transmission (Primarily wild aquatic birds)
Reassortment
Swap gene segments to generate a new virus
Which influenza virus is capable of reassortment?
Influenza A virus
Antigenic Shift
Intermixing of RNA from two viruses to make a new virus
Antigenic Drift
Accumulation of mutations over time
Can flu vaccines give you the flu?
No
IIVs (Inactivated Influenza Vaccines) are inactivated virus, so the virus is “dead”
Recombinant vaccines include only the Hemagglutinin protein
What does WHO/CDC try to predict about influenza?
Which strains will dominate each year
Surveillance of people, wild bird populations, farms
Sample from over 100 different sites worldwide → map movement of the virus
Influenza Vaccine Effectiveness Network
Measure how the vaccine performs under real-world conditions
Enroll patients ≥ 6 months old seeking medical care for an acute respiratory infection with cough within 7 days of symptom onset
Test for influenza and group by vaccine status
Cross-protection in influenza
Antibodies against one strain of influenza may offer cross-protection against related strains
One antibody could neutralize multiple strains, at least to some extent (overlapping HA or NA)
Benefit of cross-protection in influenza vaccines
Even if there is a mismatch between the vaccine and circulating strains, the vaccine will often confer some degree of protection
What is the difference between positive-sense and negative-sense RNA viruses?
Positive sense
RNA can act as mRNA → translate into protein
Negative sense
RNA requires conversion to positive sense before translation
Characteristics of SARS-CoV-2 (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2)
Highly pathogenic
Enveloped, positive sense, single stranded, non-segmented RNA virus
How does SARS-CoV-2 enter cells?
By binding angiotensin converting enzyme 2 (ACE2) receptor through spike protein (S)
Endocytosis
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
Clinical feature of COVID-19 that can be fatal
Monocytes and neutrophils are attracted to damage and promote inflammation and coagulation
Neutrophils, activated by platelets, release NETs and promote formation of microthrombi
Result of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
Focal pattern of highly inflamed and flooded lung tissue, impairing oxygen exchange and leading to hypoxia
What was the overall goal of the Dan et al. COVID study?
To understand immune memory responses to SARS-CoV-2
What were the four types of immune memory examined in the Dan et al. COVID study?
Antibodies
Memory B cells
CD4+ T cells
CD8+ T cells
What does durability mean in the context of immune memory?
The length of time immune memory is measured after infection
Why is IgA important in the context of SARS-CoV-2 infection?
It is associated with humoral immunity at mucosal surfaces like the airway and lung, major sites of SARS-CoV-2
What functions do circulating T follicular helper (cTfh) cells serve as it relates to B cells?
Provide B cell help
Support SARS-CoV-2-specific antibody generation
Long-lived humoral immunity
CCR6+ SARS-CoV-2-specific cTfH (circulating T follicular helper) cells increase over time. What is the function of CCR6? What might be happening to cTfh cells that express CCR6?
CCR6 is a chemokine receptor that mediates cell migration into tissue (especially mucosal tissue like lung and airway)
The increase in CCR6+ cTfh may indicate that these cells are migrating into tissues and providing support of local humoral immune responses
Immune memory to SARS-CoV-2 is heterogenous, which means _____
Different individuals have different patterns of immune memory
What percentage of patients retained immune memory ~6 months after infection?
95% of patients had at least 3 out of 5 immune memory responses at 6-8 months
Is durable immunity possible against secondary COVID-19 disease?
Yes (longer studies are needed to determine how long)
How do mRNA vaccines elicit an immune response?
Intramuscular immunization
mRNA/antigen uptake by APCs
Trafficking to lymph nodes
Priming of T lymphocytes
CD4 and CD8 T cell activation
Germinal center reaction
Produces MBCs (Memory B Cells) and LLPCs (Long-Lived Plasma Cells)
Janssen COVID Vaccine
Viral vector vaccine
A replication defective adenovirus that carries the gene for the SARS-CoV-2 spike protein
Cannot replicate or cause infection
How does boosting (for COVID vaccine) work if it doesn’t match the new variants?
Greater levels of and cross reactivity from neutralizing antibodies
T cells are holding up really well against variants
Leads to affinity maturation, which makes broader and more efficient antibodies
What is the “prototype pathogen” approach in the context of COVID vaccine development?
Coronaviruses were known to have outbreak potential
Some labs studied SARS and MERS in anticipation of a new coronavirus
Developed and tested the mRNA platform before COVID19
What does it mean that mRNA vaccines are “plug and play”?
Can modify for new strains
Fast and easy to produce
No infectious virus
How was the COVID vaccine developed so fast?
Overlap in early clinical trials phases and manufacturing
Safety benchmarks were NOT lowered by the FDA
What two diseases are caused by VZV?
Chicken pox (varicella)
Shingles (zoster)
Viral Latency
The virus is present in a cell but is not replicating
Pathogenesis of VZV
Widely distributed vesicular rash due to viral spread to lymph nodes and transport of virus from blood to skin through infected T cells
How does the presentation of VZV differ from measles and rubella?
The skin rash begins on the torso (centripetal distribution) and progresses outward to the arms, legs, and head
What effect does VZV infection have on T cells?
Enhances homing to skin
VZV infected CD4 T cells express skin homing proteins, such as cutaneous leukocyte antigen (CLA) and CCR4
Once in the skin, VZV triggers _____
Innate immune response
Type 1 IFNs - IFNα
PML (Promyelocytic leukemia protein)
PML (promyelocytic leukemia protein)
Forms intranuclear cages to trap new virions
How does VZV establish latency?
By infecting sensory nerve bodies in the dorsal root ganglia (spine) and trigeminal ganglia (face)
Where in the body does zoster manifest?
In the dermatome that is innervated by the affected ganglion
What two things are needed to resolve VZV infection?
Cell mediated immunity (CMI)
Antibodies
What is needed to prevent reactivation of VZV?
Memory T cells (CD4 and CD8 T cells)
If you have shingles once, can you get it again?
Yes
Rates of recurrent infections are similar to rates of first occurrences
Why is the varicella vaccine given after 12 months?
Maternal antibodies are high the first year of life and will clear out virus
Antibodies against gE (glycoprotein E) are neutralizing, which means _____
Attachment and infection are blocked
What was added to the Shingrix vaccine to improve the immune response to gE (glycoprotein E)?
An adjuvant
What does it mean that HPV is a Naked DNA Virus?
Non-enveloped
Composed of the capsid protein called L1
L stands for “late” as in it's a late/structural gene
L1 spontaneously self-assembles
Does not require any other viral proteins to assemble
How does HPV enter the cell?
Conformational changes in capsid promote association with a secondary receptor on epithelial cells
Virion internalized by endocytosis
Once inside the cell, viral capsid proteins _____
Hide by inserting into membrane vesicle and are transported to the nucleus
What happens when the host cell infected with HPV divides?
Promyelocytic leukemia (PML) nuclear bodies reform in association with encapsulated virus
Important for the establishment of infection
PMLs are usually antiviral, but in this case, they protect the viral DNA
What do E1 and E2 proteins do in the pathogenesis of HPV?
Replicate the HPV genome as extrachromosomal plasmids
What do E5, E6, E7 proteins do in the pathogenesis of HPV?
Promote viral life cycle
Induce cell cycle re-entry and delay differentiation
Virion production requires fully differentiated keratinocytes
How does cell-mediated immunity recognize HPV-infected cells?
Local activation of APCs
Activated APCs migrate to lymph node
Antigen presentation by APCs and stimulation of CD8 T cells and B cells by CD4 T cells
Recruitment of NK cells and activated APCs into the infected tissue
CD8 T cell infiltration and clearance of viral infection
Secretion of neutralizing antibodies (nAbs) and neutralizing of viral particles
New HPV infection prevented by nAb
What do E6 and E7 proteins do in the oncogenesis of HPV?
Deregulate cell cycle control
Less well differentiated lower layers of the lesion
Creates genomic instability (higher frequencies of mutations)
What does the Gardasil 9 vaccine for HPV contain?
Adjuvant - Aluminum hydroxyphosphate sulfate
Most aluminum exposure is through diet and antacids
Low doses of aluminum salts can act as adjuvants
Stimulates a specific antibody response
Antigen - Virus-like particles (VLPs)
Composed of only one viral protein
No genetic material (no DNA)
Gardasil does NOT contain live virus
Are virus-like particles infectious?
No, they do not contain any DNA or other proteins
They are also not oncogenic
What does it mean that virus-like particles are highly immunogenic?
Produce high levels of antibodies and B cell memory
Some antibodies are crossprotective against other HPV strains that are not seen in the vaccines
Why does the Gardasil 9 HPV vaccine produce a better antibody response than natural infection?
Intramuscular administration allows the virus-like particles to reach the lymphatics and lymph nodes
Greater antigen presentation and cell mediated immunity in the lymph nodes
Who can’t receive the Gardasil 9 HPV vaccine?
Someone who had a life-threatening reaction to a prior dose of the vaccine
Someone who had a life-threatening reaction to yeast
Yeast is used to generate virus-like particles
What is the main limitation of the Gardasil HPV vaccine?
The vaccine is prophylactic, so it is effective at preventing HPV prior to exposure
What kind of bacteria is Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Gram-positive facultative anaerobic
What is a distinguishing feature of gram positive bacteria?
Thick layer of peptidoglycans
What is the basis for pathogenicity of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Surface complex polysaccharides (capsular polysaccharides) (CPS)
What does the bacterial capsule do in Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Aids in immune evasion
capsule prevents binding of IgG to membrane antigens
What two ways can Streptococcus pneumoniae spread?
Through respiratory droplets person-to-person
Autoinoculation in a person carrying S. pneumoniae in their upper respiratory tract
What do capsular polysaccharides (CPS) do in the pathogenesis of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Allow S. pneumoniae to avoid entrapment by:
mucus
opsonophagocytosis
detection by host receptors
Streptococcus pneumoniae produces a biofilm, which can _____
Hinder drug penetration and contribute to drug resistance
How does Streptococcus pneumoniae enter the bloodstream?
Through epithelial polymeric immunoglobulin receptor (used to translocate antibodies) or, in severe cases, lung injury and severe epithelial damage