SSRIs, MAOIs, Antiemetics, ECTs

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81 Terms

1
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Gastrin

Which GI hormone is produced by G cells in stomach, stimulated by food in stomach, and increases gastric acid and pepsin secretion?

2
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Secretin, Cholecystokinin, Gastric inhibitory peptide

Which GI hormones are produced in the small intestine?

3
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Cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory peptide

Which GI hormones are stimulated by food in the duodenum?

4
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Somatostatin

Which GI hormone is produced by D cells in pancreatic islets, stomach, and SI; stimulated by food in the gut, gastrin, CCK; and decreases ALL GI function (universal shut off)?

5
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Anticholinergics, cricoid pressure, pregnancy

What decreases barrier pressure?

6
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Metoclopramide

What increase barrier pressure?

7
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Succs

What has no effect on barrier pressure?

8
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25mL and <2.5

What volume and pH is enough to cause aspiration pneumonia?

9
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H1

Which histamine receptor activates phos. C?

10
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H2

Which histamine receptor increases intracellular cAMP?

11
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H3

Which histamine receptor is responsible for negative feedback inhibiting more histamine release?

12
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H4

Which histamine receptor is involved with mast cells and eosinophils (allergy and inflammation)?

13
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H2

Which histamine receptor causes mild bronchodilation, pulmonary constriction, and increase in gastric acid?

14
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H1

Which histamine receptor causes smooth muscle broncho constriction?

15
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Diphenhydramine

Which H1 blocker has antimuscarinic effects and the dose is 25-50mg?

16
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Promethazine

Which H1 blocker has antidopaminergic blocking properties and the dose is 12.5-50mg?

17
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H2 blocker

Which histamine blocker competitively inhibits binding and results in reduced gastric output and acidity?

18
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H2 blocker

What med class is used to treat gastric ulcers, GERD, H-pylori, reduce gastric volume?

19
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Hepatotoxicity, nephritis, thrombocytopenia, lethargy, and hallucinations in elderly

What are long term use SE of H2 blockers?

20
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Arrhythmias

What SE is mainly involved with rapid injection of H2 blockers?

21
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Renal

How are H2 blockers eliminated?

22
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Cimetidine

Which H2 blocker slows metabolism of lidocaine, propranolol, theophylline, phenobarbital, warfarin, and phenytoin?

23
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Cimetidine and Ranitidine

Which H2 blockers have inhibitory effects of P450 system?

24
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Antacids

What drug class are used to pretreat in OB or for a full stomach and have an immediate effect but increase gastric volume?

25
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15-30 min

How long before induction should antacids be given?

26
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Reglan

Which drug increases LES tone, speeds gastric emptying, decreases gastric volume, and blocks dopamine receptors in CRTZ?

27
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Reglan

What drug is a cholinomimetic which facilitates AcH transmission at M-receptors and central dopamine blockers?

28
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Reglan

Which drug is contraindicated in complete bowel obstruction, can cause HTN crisis in pheochromocytoma patients, and lead to tardive dyskinesia and NMS d/t dopamine antagonism?

29
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PPIs

What drug class is used to treat peptic ulcers, GERD, and Zollinger-Ellison's?

30
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PPIs

What drug class interferes with P450 therefore decreases Plavix effectiveness and clearance of diazepam, warfarin, and phenytoin?

31
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5 HT3 blocker

What drug class are ondansetron, granisetron, tropisetron, dolasteron fall into?

32
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5 HT3 blockers

What drug class selectively blocks with NO effect on dopamine receptors because the receptors are outside the BBB?

33
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GI tract

Where are serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) largely present?

34
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5HT3 blockers

What drug class can causes HA, prolonged QT, and metabolized in the liver?

35
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Butyrophenones

What drug class does Droperidol, Compazine, and Promethazine fall into?

36
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Droperidol

Which drug blocks dopamine receptors and carries a black box warning for prolonged QT with high doses?

37
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Substance P

What is a neuropeptide that interacts at NK1 receptors?

38
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Aprepitant (Emend)

What drug is a NK1 antagonist that inhibits substance P at central and peripheral receptors and can reduce PONV when used with Zofran?

39
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At induction

When should you give decadron?

40
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Scopolamine and hydoxyzine

Which drugs target the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear?

41
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Zofran (5-HT3)

What drug acts in two areas: CRTZ and peripheral receptors in GI?

42
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SSRIs

What drug class does fluoxetine, sertraline, and paroxetine fall into and are considered the first line agents for depression?

43
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HA, agitation, insomnia

SE of SSRIs include?

44
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TCAs

What drug class is used to treat depression and chronic pain syndrome by working at nerve synapses by blocking neuronal reuptake of catecholamines and serotonin?

45
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Desipramine and nortriptyline

Which two TCA meds have fewer SE and are less sedating?

46
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Amitriptyline

Which TCA has more sedative properties and the most profound anticholinergic effects?

47
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TCAs

Which drug class includes anticholinergic type SE and cardiac effects which includes tachycardia, T-wave flattening/inversion, and prolongation of PRI/QRS/QT?

48
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Doxepin

Which TCA med has the fewest cardiac effects?

49
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TCAs and MAOIs

The most important interaction between anesthetic agents and WHAT DRUG CLASSES causes an exaggerated response to INDIRECT-acting vasopressors and sympathetic stimulation?

50
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Direct/selective

Would you use indirect/nonselective or direct/selective acting cardiac meds for patients on TCAs/MAOIs?

51
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MAOIs

What drug class does Isocarboxazid (Marplan), Phenelzine (Nardil), and Selegiline fall into?

52
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MAOIs

What drug class blocks the oxidative delaminating of natural occurring amines?

53
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MAOIs

What drug class carries the following SE risks: ortho hypotension, agitation, tremor, seizures, urinary retention, and HTN crisis d/t excess of tyramine?

54
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Phenelzine

Which MAOI can prolong succs?

55
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Opioids and meperidine

What drugs should NOT be used with MAOIs d/t risk of hyperthermia, seizures, and coma?

56
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Benzos

For mild serotonin syndrome what meds do you use for treatment?

57
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Cyproheptadine

For moderate serotonin syndrome what med do you use to treat?

58
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SSRIs, SNRIs, MAOIs, MDMA

What can cause serotonin syndrome?

59
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Serotonin syndrome

What syndrome has these key features: akathisia, mydriasis, tremor, AMS, clonus, and muscle rigidity?

60
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Halogenated anesthetic and succs

What can cause malignant hyperthermia?

61
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Hypercarbia, tachycardia, acidosis, muscle rigidity

What are the key features of malignant hyperthermia?

62
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Dopamine depletion in basal ganglia

What causes NMS?

63
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Dopamine antagonists

What drug class do these meds fall into (metoclopramide, haloperidol, chlorpromazine, risperidone) and should be avoided in patients with Parkinson's?

64
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NE, Epi, Phenylephrine

Which vasopressors are direct acting meaning they stimulate the receptor directly?

65
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Dopamine, dobutamine, ephedrine

Which vasopressors are indirect acting?

66
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NO

If catecholamine reserve is depleted, will indirect vasopressor agents be effective?

67
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NE

With mania, what is there an excess activity of in the brain?

68
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True

True or false: The MOA of lithium is poorly understood.

69
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T-wave changes, leukocytosis, vasopressin resistant DI

What are the SE of lithium?

70
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Confusion, sedation, weakness, tremor, slurred speech

What are the toxicity s/s of lithium?

71
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Wide QRS, AV block, hypotension, seizures

What are HIGH toxicity s/s of lithium?

72
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Lithium

What psych drug decreases MAC, prolongs NMS blockers, and can lead to sodium depletion?

73
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Loop and thiazide diuretics

Which drugs decrease lithium excretion and can lead to toxicity?

74
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PNS then SNS tone

The initial phase to ECTs involve an increase in WHAT and then followed by an increase in WHAT?

75
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Methohexital (Brevital)

Which med is the gold standard for rapid recovery in ECTs?

76
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Barbiturates

What drug class does Brevital fall into?

77
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Brevital, Precedex, Esmolol, Clonidine

Which drugs have no effect on seizure duration for ECTs?

78
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HYPERventilate

What should you do just prior to ECT to help prolong seizure duration?

79
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Increase duration

The following meds do what to seizure duration: etomidate, ketamine, aminophylline, and caffeine?

80
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Decrease duration

The following meds do what to seizure duration: propofol, versed, Ativan, fentanyl, lidocaine?

81
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Etomidate

Which induction agent is associated with an increase risk of PONV and post-ECT HTN?