Biol 221 Exam 2 Study Guide

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These flashcards cover key concepts in biology related to DNA structure, replication, transcription, translation, microbial control, and bacterial growth.

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96 Terms

1
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What does antiparallel mean in DNA structure?

Refers to the two strands of DNA running in opposite directions.

2
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What are the three parts of a nucleotide?

A phosphate group, a sugar (deoxyribose in DNA), and a nitrogenous base.

3
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Explain proper base pairing of nucleotides in DNA.

Adenine pairs with Thymine (A-T) and Guanine pairs with Cytosine (G-C).

4
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Define genome.

The complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism.

5
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What is the overall process of DNA replication?

The process by which DNA makes a copy of itself, resulting in two identical DNA molecules.

6
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What is the site where DNA replication begins on a bacterial chromosome called?

The origin of replication.

7
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Which enzyme synthesizes the new DNA strand during DNA replication?

DNA polymerase.

8
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In what direction does DNA polymerase read the template DNA?

DNA polymerase reads the template DNA in the 3' to 5' direction.

9
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In what direction is new DNA assembled?

New DNA is assembled in the 5' to 3' direction.

10
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Describe the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA.

The lagging strand is synthesized in short segments called Okazaki fragments.

11
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What is an Okazaki fragment?

Short sequences of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication.

12
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What is the function of DNA ligase?

Joins together Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.

13
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What does helicase do?

Unwinds the DNA double helix ahead of the replication machinery.

14
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What is the Central Dogma of molecular biology?

It describes the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein.

15
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Define transcription.

The process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template.

16
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Define translation.

The process of creating a protein from an mRNA sequence.

17
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Which enzyme synthesizes the RNA strand during transcription?

RNA polymerase.

18
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What are the three types of RNA?

mRNA (messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), and rRNA (ribosomal RNA).

19
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In which direction does RNA polymerase read the DNA?

RNA polymerase reads DNA in the 3' to 5' direction.

20
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In which direction does RNA polymerase synthesize mRNA?

RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA in the 5' to 3' direction.

21
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What nucleotide base is present in DNA but not in RNA?

Thymine (T); RNA uses Uracil (U) instead.

22
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When given a DNA sequence, how can you derive the RNA sequence?

By replacing Thymine (T) with Uracil (U) and transcribing the complementary bases.

23
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Where does transcription start and stop on DNA?

Transcription starts at the promoter region and stops at the terminator region.

24
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What are the basic steps of translation?

Initiation, elongation, and termination.

25
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Where does translation start and stop on mRNA?

Translation starts at the AUG start codon and stops at stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA).

26
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Define codon.

A sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA that corresponds to a particular amino acid.

27
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Define anticodon.

A sequence of three nucleotides on tRNA that is complementary to a codon in mRNA.

28
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What is the genetic code?

The set of rules by which information encoded in genetic material is translated into proteins.

29
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Where do transcription and translation occur in prokaryotes?

Both occur in the cytoplasm.

30
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Where do transcription and translation occur in eukaryotes?

Transcription occurs in the nucleus, translation occurs in the cytoplasm.

31
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Define exons and introns.

Exons are coding sequences in RNA that are expressed; introns are non-coding sequences that are removed.

32
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Why is it advantageous for bacteria to regulate gene expression with operons?

It allows for coordinated control of genes involved in similar functions, thereby conserving resources.

33
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List and describe the parts of an operon.

Regulator, promotor, operator, and structural genes.

34
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Give an example of an inducer.

Lactose can act as an inducer in the lac operon.

35
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Give an example of a repressor.

The LacI protein is a repressor that inhibits expression of the lac operon.

36
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What is a missense mutation?

A mutation that results in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein.

37
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What is a nonsense mutation?

A mutation that introduces a premature stop codon, leading to truncated proteins.

38
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What is a silent mutation?

A mutation that does not change the amino acid sequence of a protein.

39
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What is a frameshift mutation?

A mutation that shifts the reading frame by inserting or deleting nucleotides.

40
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What are generalized causes of DNA mutations?

Spontaneous errors during DNA replication, exposure to mutagens, and radiation.

41
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What is transduction?

The process of transferring DNA from one bacterium to another via a bacteriophage.

42
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What is transformation?

The uptake of free DNA from the environment by a bacterial cell.

43
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What is conjugation?

The transfer of DNA between bacteria through direct contact.

44
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What are plasmids?

Small, circular DNA molecules that are separate from chromosomal DNA and can replicate independently.

45
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What is binary fission?

The process by which a bacterial cell divides into two identical daughter cells.

46
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How do you calculate the number of bacteria after a number of generations?

Using the formula N = N0 * 2^n, where N0 is the initial number of bacteria and n is the number of generations.

47
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What are the phases of the bacterial growth curve?

Lag, exponential (log), stationary, and death phases.

48
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What are the five groups of bacteria in terms of temperature range?

Psychrophiles, psychrotrophs, mesophiles, thermophiles, and hyperthermophiles.

49
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What is the optimal temperature for psychrophiles?

Around 15°C.

50
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What is the optimal temperature for mesophiles?

Around 37°C (human body temperature).

51
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Where can you find examples of psychrophiles?

In cold environments like Arctic and Antarctic regions.

52
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What is the preferred pH range for most bacteria?

Neutral to slightly acidic, around 6.5 to 7.5.

53
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Define acidophile.

An organism that thrives in acidic environments.

54
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What is a halophile?

An organism that thrives in highly saline environments.

55
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What is the difference between an obligate halophile and a facultative halophile?

Obligate halophiles require high salt concentrations, while facultative halophiles can tolerate salt but do not require it.

56
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What is osmosis?

The diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane.

57
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How does a hypertonic environment affect a bacterial cell?

Causes plasmolysis or shrinkage due to water loss.

58
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How does a hypotonic environment affect a bacterial cell?

Causes the cell to swell and potentially burst due to water influx.

59
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Why is oxygen required by some bacteria?

For cellular respiration to produce ATP.

60
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Why is oxygen toxic to other bacteria?

Due to the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) that can damage cellular components.

61
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What are the categories of oxygen requirements by bacteria?

Obligate aerobes, facultative anaerobes, obligate anaerobes, aerotolerant anaerobes, and microaerophiles.

62
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Define capnophile.

An organism that thrives in environments with high carbon dioxide concentrations.

63
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What are the main chemical requirements of a bacterial cell?

Macronutrients (C, N, O, H, P, S) and micronutrients (such as trace elements).

64
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How does a bacterial cell utilize chemicals?

For growth, metabolic processes, and energy production.

65
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Define autotroph.

An organism that produces its own food from inorganic compounds.

66
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Define heterotroph.

An organism that obtains its food from organic compounds.

67
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What are the types of symbiotic relationships?

Mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism.

68
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Define sterilization.

The complete elimination of all microbes, including spores.

69
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Define sanitization.

Reduction of microbial populations to safe levels.

70
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Define contamination.

The presence of unwanted microorganisms.

71
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Define decontamination.

The process of removing contaminants.

72
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Define sepsis.

The presence of toxic substances or infection in the blood.

73
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Define antiseptic.

A substance that inhibits microbial growth on living tissues.

74
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Define disinfectant.

A substance that kills or inhibits microorganisms on inanimate objects.

75
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Define degerming.

The removal of microorganisms from the skin or surfaces.

76
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Define bacteriostatic.

A substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria without killing them.

77
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Describe the process of proper handwashing.

Washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds to remove dirt and microbes.

78
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Compare the effectiveness of moist heat, dry heat, and refrigeration in microbial control.

Moist heat is most effective for sterilization; dry heat is less effective; refrigeration slows microbial growth.

79
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Which microbial control methods work quickly to kill microbes?

Boiling, autoclaving, and some chemical disinfectants.

80
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Which methods achieve sterilization?

Autoclaving, dry heat sterilization, and radiation.

81
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What microbial structure is damaged by radiation?

DNA.

82
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What are some practical examples of how radiation is used for microbial control?

UV light for sterilizing surfaces, gamma rays for sterilizing food and medical supplies.

83
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What is filtration?

A method to remove microbes from liquids or air by using a filter.

84
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How is filtration used for microbial control?

To sterilize heat-sensitive liquids like vaccines and culture media.

85
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What factors affect how well chemical antimicrobials kill microbes?

Concentration, contact time, temperature, and microbial resistance.

86
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What is the difference between residue-producing and non-residue-producing chemicals?

Residue-producing chemicals leave a residual antimicrobial effect, while non-residue-producing chemicals do not.

87
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What is a negative effect of the overuse of antimicrobial chemicals?

Development of resistant microbial strains.

88
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What are the limits of microbial control?

Not all microbes can be eliminated; some may survive under treatment.

89
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What are surfactants?

Surface-active agents that reduce the surface tension of liquids and help in cleaning.

90
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What are quats?

Quaternary ammonium compounds used as disinfectants.

91
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What are phenols?

Chemical compounds used as disinfectants and antiseptics.

92
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What are heavy metals?

Metals like mercury, silver, and copper used in some antimicrobial applications.

93
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What is the ideal concentration of alcohol for killing microbes?

70% ethanol or isopropyl alcohol.

94
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In what situations should alcohol-based hand sanitizers not replace handwashing?

When hands are visibly dirty or greasy.

95
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Why is adding residue-producing triclosan to cleaning products a bad practice?

It can contribute to antimicrobial resistance and disrupt microbial ecosystems.

96
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What microbial controls can inactivate endospores?

Autoclaving and certain chemical sterilants.