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80 Terms

1
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Who is credited with the discovery of x-rays?

a. Thomas Edison

b. Marie Curie

c. Wilhelm Röntgen

d. Philipp Lenard

- Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

- November 8, 1895

2
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Who discovered fluoroscopy?

a. Thomas Edison

b. Benjamin Franklin

c. Michael Faraday

d. Clarence Dally

- Thomas Edison

- 1896

3
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Who discovered radium?

a. Thomas Edison

b. Marie Curie

c. Wilhelm Röntgen

d. Philipp Lenard

Marie Curie

4
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Who was the first known American fatality from radiation exposure?

a. Thomas Edison

b. Benjamin Franklin

c. Michael Faraday

d. Clarence Dally

Clarence Dally

5
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What type of tube was used when x-rays were discovered?

a. Calvin tube

b. Coolidge tube

c. Catcher tube

d. Crookes tube

d. Crookes tube

6
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What are the genetic effects of radiation?

a. Radiation damage that occurs to persons whose ancestors were irradiated

b. Radiation damage that occurs to the person who received the radiation

a. Radiation damage that occurs to persons whose ancestors were irradiated

7
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What are the somatic effects of radiation?

a. Radiation damage that occurs to the person who received the radiation

b. Radiation damage that occurs to persons whose ancestors were irradiated

a. Radiation damage that occurs to the person who received the radiation

8
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What is Acute Radiation Syndrome?

a. reddening of the skin caused by exposure to ionizing radiation

b. low dose of radiation (to whole or partial body) over a long period of time

c. High dose of radiation (to whole or partial body) over a short period of time

d. bone marrow cannot make enough new blood cells for your body to work normally, and caused by radiation therapy

c. High dose of radiation (to whole or partial body) over a short period of time

9
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What is Radiodermatitis?

a. reddening of the skin caused by exposure to ionizing radiation

b. low dose of radiation (to whole or partial body) over a long period of time

c. High dose of radiation (to whole or partial body) over a short period of time

d. bone marrow cannot make enough new blood cells for your body to work normally, and caused by radiation therapy

a. reddening of the skin caused by exposure to ionizing radiation

10
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What is Aplastic Anemia?

- a. reddening of the skin caused by exposure to ionizing radiation

b. low dose of radiation (to whole or partial body) over a long period of time

c. High dose of radiation (to whole or partial body) over a short period of time

d. bone marrow cannot make enough new blood cells for your body to work normally, and caused by radiation therapy

d. bone marrow cannot make enough new blood cells for your body to work normally, and caused by radiation therapy

11
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What is the ALARA principle

a. As Long As Readily Accountable

b. As Long As Running (is) Available

c. As Low As Reasonably Achievable

d. As Low As Readily Accessible

c. As Low As Reasonably Achievable

12
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What does HIPAA stand for?

a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

b. Health Insurance Probability and Accountability Act

c. Health institution Portability and Accessibility Act

a. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

13
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What are the HIPAA identifiers?

- name

- address

- all elements of dates related to individual

- telephone numbers

- fax number

- email address

- SSN

- medical record number

- health plan beneficiary number

- account number

- certificate or license number

- any vehicle or other device serial number

- web url

- IP address

- finger or voice print

- photographic image

14
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What are the stages of the grieving process? in order

a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

b. anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance

c. depression, anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance

a. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

15
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What does DNR stand for?

a. do not resuscitate

b. do not revive

c. do not relieve

a. do not resuscitate

16
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What does Full code mean?

a. All attempts will be made to resuscitate

b. No attempts should be made

a. All attempts will be made to resuscitate

17
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What are the Advance directives

a. Directions given by a person while in a healthy mental state concerning wishes at time of death

b. expresses the patient's wishes concerning the future of medical care

c. Appoints an agent that the person trusts to make decisions if the patient is unable to do so.

a. Directions given by a person while in a healthy mental state concerning wishes at time of death

18
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What is a living well?

a. Directions given by a person while in a healthy mental state concerning wishes at time of death

b. expresses the patient's wishes concerning the future of medical care

c. Appoints an agent that the person trusts to make decisions if the patient is unable to do so.

b. expresses the patient's wishes concerning the future of medical care

19
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What does critical thinking mean?

a. A set of beliefs and values common to a particular group of people

b. The personal characteristics by which on

c. A common history and origin

d. Assessing one's thinking to make it clearer, more accurate, or more defensible

e. Certainty or confidence in the trustworthiness of another

d. Assessing one's thinking to make it clearer, more accurate, or more defensible

20
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What does Culture mean?

a. A set of beliefs and values common to a particular group of people

b. The personal characteristics by which on

c. A common history and origin

d. Assessing one's thinking to make it clearer, more accurate, or more defensible

e. Certainty or confidence in the trustworthiness of another

a. A set of beliefs and values common to a particular group of people

21
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What does Belief mean?

a. A set of beliefs and values common to a particular group of people

b. The personal characteristics by which on

c. A common history and origin

d. Assessing one's thinking to make it clearer, more accurate, or more defensible

e. Certainty or confidence in the trustworthiness of another

e. Certainty or confidence in the trustworthiness of another

22
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What does Ethnicity mean?

a. A set of beliefs and values common to a particular group of people

b. The personal characteristics by which on

c. A common history and origin

d. Assessing one's thinking to make it clearer, more accurate, or more defensible

e. Certainty or confidence in the trustworthiness of another

c. A common history and origin

23
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What does identity mean?

a. A set of beliefs and values common to a particular group of people

b. The personal characteristics by which on

c. A common history and origin

d. Assessing one's thinking to make it clearer, more accurate, or more defensible

e. Certainty or confidence in the trustworthiness of another

b. The personal characteristics by which on

24
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What are patient expectations?

a. clean

b. well groomed

c. articulate

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

25
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What are the modes of communication?

a. verbal

b. nonverbal

c. writing

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

26
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Which of these are NOT situations that hinder good communication?

a. non-english speaking patient

b. speech-and-hearing impaired patient

c. visually impaired patient

d. developmental impaired patient

e. altered states of consciousness

f. grief striken patient

f. grief striken patient

27
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What factors affect communication?

a. paralanguage

b. not getting feedback

c. being too far away

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

28
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What does profession mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

29
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What does professional ethics mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

30
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What does moral principles mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

c. establish what is right and wrong

31
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What does confidentiality mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

e. Privacy

32
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What does Autonomy mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

33
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What does Veracity mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

34
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What does Fidelity mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

35
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What does Beneficence mean?

a. The right to make rational decisions free from external pressures

b. A calling that requires specialized knowledge and intensive academic preparation

c. establish what is right and wrong

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

e. Privacy

f. duty to fulfill one's commitments (keeping promises)

g. Honesty in all aspects of one's professional life

h. Rules of conduct or standards by which a particular group regulates its actions and sets standards for its members

d. All acts must be beneficial (good result)

36
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What is scope of practice?

a. A list of rights that every patient can expect to receive while under the care of health care providers

b. The duties or services that a particular practitioner is authorized to perform

c. Failure by a health professional to meet accepted standards

d. failure to take proper care in doing something

b. The duties or services that a particular practitioner is authorized to perform

37
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What is a Patients Bill of Rights?

a. A list of rights that every patient can expect to receive while under the care of health care providers

b. The duties or services that a particular practitioner is authorized to perform

c. Failure by a health professional to meet accepted standards

d. failure to take proper care in doing something

a. A list of rights that every patient can expect to receive while under the care of health care providers

38
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What is malpractice?

a. A list of rights that every patient can expect to receive while under the care of health care providers

b. The duties or services that a particular practitioner is authorized to perform

c. Failure by a health professional to meet accepted standards

d. failure to take proper care in doing something

c. Failure by a health professional to meet accepted standards

39
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What is negligence?

a. A list of rights that every patient can expect to receive while under the care of health care providers

b. The duties or services that a particular practitioner is authorized to perform

c. Failure by a health professional to meet accepted standards

d. failure to take proper care in doing something

d. failure to take proper care in doing something

40
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What is Battery?

a. A technologist performs an examination or touches a patient without that patient's permission

b. when this private information is leaked to individuals who did not need to know and lead to ridicule, scorn or contempt, or injury

c. A patient believes he or she has been threatened in such a way that reason to fear or to expect immediate bodily harm exists

d. A person is restrained or believes that he or she is being restrained against his or her will

a. A technologist performs an examination or touches a patient without that patient's permission

41
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What is Assault?

a. A technologist performs an examination or touches a patient without that patient's permission

b. when this private information is leaked to individuals who did not need to know and lead to ridicule, scorn or contempt, or injury

c. A patient believes he or she has been threatened in such a way that reason to fear or to expect immediate bodily harm exists

d. A person is restrained or believes that he or she is being restrained against his or her will

c. A patient believes he or she has been threatened in such a way that reason to fear or to expect immediate bodily harm exists

42
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What is Defamation?

a. A technologist performs an examination or touches a patient without that patient's permission

b. when this private information is leaked to individuals who did not need to know and lead to ridicule, scorn or contempt, or injury

c. A patient believes he or she has been threatened in such a way that reason to fear or to expect immediate bodily harm exists

d. A person is restrained or believes that he or she is being restrained against his or her will

b. when this private information is leaked to individuals who did not need to know and lead to ridicule, scorn or contempt, or injury

43
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What is False imprisonment?

a. A technologist performs an examination or touches a patient without that patient's permission

b. when this private information is leaked to individuals who did not need to know and lead to ridicule, scorn or contempt, or injury

c. A patient believes he or she has been threatened in such a way that reason to fear or to expect immediate bodily harm exists

d. A person is restrained or believes that he or she is being restrained against his or her will

d. A person is restrained or believes that he or she is being restrained against his or her will

44
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How do you prevent back injury?

a. good posture

b. body is in alignment with all the parts in balance

c. keep the body's line of balance closest to the center of the load

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

45
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How do you reduce friction when moving a patient?

a. keep the heaviest part of the object close to the body

b. reduce the surface area to be moved, or in the case of a patient, use some of the patients own strength to assist you

c. placing the patient's arms across the chest to reduce the surface area.

d. sliding board or pull sheet placed under an immobile patient

e. all of the above

e. all of the above

46
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Which of these is NOT a step in caring for a disabled patient?

a. Identify the patient

b. Collect the patient's chart and pertinent information

c. Request information on patient's ambulatory status

d. Move the patient according to restrictions

e. Allow them to get up if they think they can

e. Allow them to get up if they think they can

47
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How do you identify immobility?

a. stiffness

b. instability

c. swelling

d. pain,

e. all of the above

e. all of the above

48
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What does atrophy mean?

a. Decrease in the size of the organ, tissue, or muscle

b. increase in the size of the organ, tissue, or muscle

a. Decrease in the size of the organ, tissue, or muscle

49
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What is the Sheet transfer?

a. fold sheet in half longways

patient on his/her side

folded sheet end to patient's back

roll patient to other side, backwards toward sheet, roll out sheet, lay patient supine

b. Method of rolling the body without disturbing the alignment of the body.

the method used to turn a patient with a spinal injury, in which the patient is moved to the side in one motion

c. best accomplished with the use of a sliding board. The sliding board usually requires fewer personnel to make the move than the sheet transfer because it creates a firm bridge between the two surfaces over which the patient can be easily moved.

d. Assess if you can safely help patient

Use transfer belt (safety and comfort of patient). Ask for assistance if you feel you could strain a muscle

a. fold sheet in half longways

patient on his/her side

folded sheet end to patient's back

roll patient to other side, backwards toward sheet, roll out sheet, lay patient supine

50
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What is the Log Roll?

a. fold sheet in half longways

patient on his/her side

folded sheet end to patient's back

roll patient to other side, backwards toward sheet, roll out sheet, lay patient supine

b. Method of rolling the body without disturbing the alignment of the body.

the method used to turn a patient with a spinal injury, in which the patient is moved to the side in one motion

c. best accomplished with the use of a sliding board. The sliding board usually requires fewer personnel to make the move than the sheet transfer because it creates a firm bridge between the two surfaces over which the patient can be easily moved.

d. Assess if you can safely help patient

Use transfer belt (safety and comfort of patient). Ask for assistance if you feel you could strain a muscle

b. Method of rolling the body without disturbing the alignment of the body.

the method used to turn a patient with a spinal injury, in which the patient is moved to the side in one motion

51
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What is the Lateral transfer?

a. fold sheet in half longways

patient on his/her side

folded sheet end to patient's back

roll patient to other side, backwards toward sheet, roll out sheet, lay patient supine

b. Method of rolling the body without disturbing the alignment of the body.

the method used to turn a patient with a spinal injury, in which the patient is moved to the side in one motion

c. best accomplished with the use of a sliding board. The sliding board usually requires fewer personnel to make the move than the sheet transfer because it creates a firm bridge between the two surfaces over which the patient can be easily moved.

d. Assess if you can safely help patient

Use transfer belt (safety and comfort of patient). Ask for assistance if you feel you could strain a muscle

c. best accomplished with the use of a sliding board. The sliding board usually requires fewer personnel to make the move than the sheet transfer because it creates a firm bridge between the two surfaces over which the patient can be easily moved.

52
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What is the Wheelchair transfer?

a. fold sheet in half longways

patient on his/her side

folded sheet end to patient's back

roll patient to other side, backwards toward sheet, roll out sheet, lay patient supine

b. Method of rolling the body without disturbing the alignment of the body.

the method used to turn a patient with a spinal injury, in which the patient is moved to the side in one motion

c. best accomplished with the use of a sliding board. The sliding board usually requires fewer personnel to make the move than the sheet transfer because it creates a firm bridge between the two surfaces over which the patient can be easily moved.

d. Assess if you can safely help patient

Use transfer belt (safety and comfort of patient). Ask for assistance if you feel you could strain a muscle

d. Assess if you can safely help patient

Use transfer belt (safety and comfort of patient). Ask for assistance if you feel you could strain a muscle

53
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What is Ischemia?

a. localized death of tissue due to injury or lack of oxygen

b. Deficiency of blood in a body part due to functional constriction or actual obstruction of a blood vessel

c. An area of tissue necrosis that penetrates below the epidermis; excavation of the surface of any body organ

d. A pressure sore

b. Deficiency of blood in a body part due to functional constriction or actual obstruction of a blood vessel

54
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What is Ulceration?

a. localized death of tissue due to injury or lack of oxygen

b. Deficiency of blood in a body part due to functional constriction or actual obstruction of a blood vessel

c. An area of tissue necrosis that penetrates below the epidermis; excavation of the surface of any body organ

d. A pressure sore

c. An area of tissue necrosis that penetrates below the epidermis; excavation of the surface of any body organ

55
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What is tissue necrosis?

a. localized death of tissue due to injury or lack of oxygen

b. Deficiency of blood in a body part due to functional constriction or actual obstruction of a blood vessel

c. An area of tissue necrosis that penetrates below the epidermis; excavation of the surface of any body organ

d. A pressure sore

a. localized death of tissue due to injury or lack of oxygen

56
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What is Decubitus ulcers?

a. localized death of tissue due to injury or lack of oxygen

b. Deficiency of blood in a body part due to functional constriction or actual obstruction of a blood vessel

c. An area of tissue necrosis that penetrates below the epidermis; excavation of the surface of any body organ

d. A pressure sore

d. A pressure sore

57
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What is a Pigg-O-Stat immobilization device?

a. cradles the baby's body, securely and gently immobilizing the head and spine while maintaining airway and spine alignment.

b. Completely wrapping an infant or small child in a sheet

c. Commercial mechanical immobilizer device

c. Commercial mechanical immobilizer device

58
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What is a Mummy Wrap immobilization device?

a. cradles the baby's body, securely and gently immobilizing the head and spine while maintaining airway and spine alignment.

b. Completely wrapping an infant or small child in a sheet

c. Commercial mechanical immobilizer device

b. Completely wrapping an infant or small child in a sheet

59
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What is a Papoose immobilization device?

a. cradles the baby's body, securely and gently immobilizing the head and spine while maintaining airway and spine alignment.

b. Completely wrapping an infant or small child in a sheet

c. Commercial mechanical immobilizer device

a. cradles the baby's body, securely and gently immobilizing the head and spine while maintaining airway and spine alignment.

60
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When do you use a Pigg-O-Stat immobilization?

used during chest radiography

61
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When do you use a Mummy Wrap immobilization?

radiographic imaging procedures of the upper or lower extremities by leaving the extremity of interest unwrapped.

62
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When do you use a Papoose immobilization?

temporarily immobilize or restrain infants and young children for radiographic examinations

63
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How to communicate with a pediatric patients?

a. speak at eye level

b. explain in words they understand

c. Patience

d. good rapport

e. all of the above

e. all of the above

64
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catheterization of pediatric patients

The pediatric patient may require catheterization in the radiology department for a cystographic procedure, which may include a voiding cystourethrography

65
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What is hand hygiene and why is it important?

reduces risk of infection

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Why is using a nurse with NICU babies important?

a. The nurse should be asked to assist by positioning and immobilizing the infant.

b. Care must be taken to prevent chilling the infant or dislodging any catheters or tubing while performing the radiographic procedure

c. A & B

d. A only

e. B only

c. A & B

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What do you do if the radiographer is ill in the NICU department?

another technologist should be asked to take the NICU assignment to prevent introduction of infectious microorganisms into the protective environment of the NICU.

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What is the image gently campaign and why was it implemented

improve safe and effective imagining care of children worldwide

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What are the different types child abuse?

- physical abuse and neglect

- emotional abuse

- sexual abuse

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What are the different types of elder abuse

physical

emotional

sexual

exploitation

neglect

abandonment

financial

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What are the different body systems and what kind of changes are normal as we age

- Integumentary System

- Changes in the head and neck

- Pulmonary System

- Cardiovascular System

- Gastrointestinal System

- Hepatic System

- Genitourinary System

- Musculoskeletal System

- Neurologic System

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What is depression?

a. Organic mental syndrome characterized by general loss of intellectual abilities involving impairment of memory, judgment, and abstract thinking

b. An illness characterized by dementia, confusion, memory failure, disorientation, restlessness, speech disturbances, and an inability to carry out purposeful movements; onset usually occurs in persons aged 55 years or older

c. A morbid sadness, dejection, or melancholy

c. A morbid sadness, dejection, or melancholy

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What is dementia?

a. Organic mental syndrome characterized by general loss of intellectual abilities involving impairment of memory, judgment, and abstract thinking

b. An illness characterized by dementia, confusion, memory failure, disorientation, restlessness, speech disturbances, and an inability to carry out purposeful movements; onset usually occurs in persons aged 55 years or older

c. A morbid sadness, dejection, or melancholy

a. Organic mental syndrome characterized by general loss of intellectual abilities involving impairment of memory, judgment, and abstract thinking

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What is Alzheimer's disease?

a. Organic mental syndrome characterized by general loss of intellectual abilities involving impairment of memory, judgment, and abstract thinking

b. An illness characterized by dementia, confusion, memory failure, disorientation, restlessness, speech disturbances, and an inability to carry out purposeful movements; onset usually occurs in persons aged 55 years or older

c. A morbid sadness, dejection, or melancholy

b. An illness characterized by dementia, confusion, memory failure, disorientation, restlessness, speech disturbances, and an inability to carry out purposeful movements; onset usually occurs in persons aged 55 years or older

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What are the issues with hip replacement?

a. dislocation of the prosthesis, cannot adduct

b. Weight bearing is restricted and restored gradually and should not be hyper flex or knee

c. cannot raise arm over head

a. dislocation of the prosthesis, cannot adduct

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What is arthroplasty

replacement of diseased joint with artificial device called prosthesis

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What are the issues with knee replacement?

a. dislocation of the prosthesis, cannot adduct

b. Weight bearing is restricted and restored gradually and should not be hyper flex or knee

c. cannot raise arm over head

b. Weight bearing is restricted and restored gradually and should not be hyper flex or knee

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Top causes of death in patients over 65?

- heart disease

- cancer

- stroke

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What are the issues with shoulder replacement?

a. dislocation of the prosthesis, cannot adduct

b. Weight bearing is restricted and restored gradually and should not be hyper flex or knee

c. cannot raise arm over head

c. cannot raise arm over head

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Why are geriatric patients scared of falling?

- after experiencing a near falling incident, elderly individuals will develop a fear.

- This can lead to a decrease in physical activity and muscle weakness-this actually increases the chance of falling

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