Renal -Glomeronephritis

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A set of vocabulary flashcards covering key concepts and definitions related to the urinary system, including UTIs, incontinence, kidney damage, and treatments.

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55 Terms

1
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Which findings characterize the clinical manifestation of Acute Glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Periorbital edema

  • B. Generalized hypotension

  • C. Cola-colored urine

  • D. Massive proteinuria

  • E. Hypertension

Correct Answers: A, C, E

Rationale:

  • A & E: Fluid retention and decreased GFR lead to edema (often starting in the face/eyes) and high blood pressure.

  • C: Hematuria causes the smoky or cola-colored appearance due to red blood cell casts.

  • D is more characteristic of Nephritic syndrome; while GN has proteinuria, it is usually mild to moderate. B is incorrect as patients are typically hypertensive.

2
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What is the primary pathophysiology of Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. Bacterial invasion of the glomerular capillaries
  • B. Deposition of immune complexes in the glomerular basement membrane
  • C. Primary viral infection of the nephrons
  • D. Dehydration leading to tubular necrosis
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: It is a Type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes from a previous Streptococcal infection (Group A Beta-hemolytic) deposit in the kidneys, triggering inflammation.

3
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A client is suspected of having Acute Glomerulonephritis. Which diagnostic lab result most strongly confirms a recent streptococcal infection?

  • A. Elevated Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
  • B. Elevated Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer
  • C. Decreased Serum Creatinine
  • D. Positive urine culture for E. coli
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An elevated ASO titer indicates the body has recently produced antibodies against streptococcal toxins, supporting the diagnosis of post-streptococcal GN.

4
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Which complications should the nurse prioritize for a patient with Glomerulonephritis? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Hypertensive encephalopathy
  • B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
  • C. Hypokalemia
  • D. Pulmonary edema
  • E. Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E

Rationale: Fluid overload leads to CHF and pulmonary edema. Severe hypertension can cause encephalopathy. The inflammatory process can lead to a sudden drop in GFR (AKI). C is incorrect because renal failure usually leads to Hyperkalemia.

5
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Which dietary instructions are appropriate for a client with Glomerulonephritis and azotemia? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Sodium restriction
  • B. High-protein diet
  • C. Fluid restriction
  • D. Potassium restriction
  • E. Low-protein diet
Correct Answers: A, C, D, E

Rationale: Sodium and fluid are restricted to manage edema/hypertension. Potassium is restricted to prevent cardiac arrhythmias if output is low. Protein is restricted if azotemia (BUN elevation) is present to reduce nitrogenous waste.

6
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Which assessment finding indicates that a patient with Glomerulonephritis is improving?

  • A. Increased weight gain
  • B. Increased urinary output
  • C. Persistent periorbital edema
  • D. Rising blood pressure
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Diuresis (increased urine output) is usually the first sign of renal recovery and a decrease in glomerular inflammation.

7
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What is the purpose of administering Loop Diuretics in Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. To treat the underlying streptococcal infection
  • B. To reduce fluid overload and blood pressure
  • C. To acidify the urine
  • D. To prevent the formation of renal calculi
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Diuretics like Furosemide help the kidneys excrete excess salt and water, reducing edema and lowering blood pressure.

8
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The nurse is educating a parent whose child has Acute Glomerulonephritis. What is the most important instruction regarding activity?

  • A. Encourage vigorous exercise to improve circulation
  • B. Maintain bed rest during the acute phase
  • C. Child can return to contact sports immediately
  • D. Avoid all movement for two weeks
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bed rest is encouraged during the acute phase to reduce metabolic waste production and decrease the workload on the kidneys.

9
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Chronic Glomerulonephritis can lead to which end-stage condition?

  • A. Diabetes Insipidus
  • B. Nephrolithiasis
  • C. End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)
  • D. Polycystic Kidney Disease
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chronic inflammation leads to scarring (sclerosis) of the glomeruli over years, eventually causing irreversible kidney failure (ESRD).

10
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Which lab finding is typically decreased in Acute Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. Serum Creatinine
  • B. Serum Complement (C3) levels
  • C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
  • D. Urine Specific Gravity
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Complement levels are often low in APSGN because they are consumed during the immune-complex mediated inflammatory process.

11
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Which symptoms suggest Hypertensive Encephalopathy in a GN patient? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Headache
  • B. Visual disturbances
  • C. Seizures
  • D. Bradycardia
  • E. Altered mental status
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E

Rationale: Rapidly rising blood pressure from GN causes cerebral edema, manifesting as neuro-irritability, headaches, changes in vision, and potential seizures.

12
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How long after a throat or skin infection does Acute Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis typically appear?

  • A. 24 to 48 hours
  • B. 1 to 3 weeks
  • C. 2 to 3 months
  • D. Immediately after the fever breaks
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: There is a latent period of approximately 1 to 2 weeks after pharyngitis and up to 3 weeks after skin infections (impetigo) before renal symptoms manifest.

13
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Which of the following is a key medication used to control high blood pressure in Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. Aminoglycosides
  • B. Calcium Channel Blockers
  • C. Morphine
  • D. NSAIDs
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Antihypertensives like Calcium Channel Blockers or ACE inhibitors are used. D is contraindicated as NSAIDs can further decrease renal blood flow.

14
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A nurse is assessing a patient with Glomerulonephritis. Which finding indicates fluid volume excess? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Distended neck veins
  • B. Crackles in the lungs
  • C. Flattened neck veins
  • D. Weight loss
  • E. S3 heart sound
Correct Answers: A, B, E

Rationale: Distended neck veins, bibasilar crackles, and an S3 gallop are classic indicators of fluid overload and potential heart failure.

15
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Which diagnostic procedure is the definitive method for diagnosing the specific type of Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. Renal Ultrasound
  • B. KUB X-ray
  • C. Renal Biopsy
  • D. Voiding Cystourethrogram
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: While labs provide clues, a renal biopsy provides a tissue sample to identify the specific pattern of glomerular damage.

16
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What is the characteristic appearance of Red Blood Cells (RBCs) in the urine of a patient with GN?

  • A. Normal, biconcave shapes
  • B. Erythrocyte casts and dysmorphic RBCs
  • C. Large, clotted segments
  • D. White blood cell casts
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In GN, RBCs are forced through damaged glomerular membranes, distorting their shape (dysmorphic) and forming casts in the tubules.

17
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Which patient statement indicates a need for further education regarding Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. 'I will weigh myself every morning.'
  • B. 'I should stop taking my blood pressure pills once my urine looks clear.'
  • C. 'I need to limit the amount of salt I add to my food.'
  • D. 'I will report any sudden shortness of breath to my doctor.'
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Patients must complete the medication course and follow up even if symptoms seem to have subsided to prevent relapse or chronic damage.

18
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In Glomerulonephritis, why does the urine protein level rise?

  • A. The bladder is infected
  • B. Increased permeability of the glomerular capillary membrane
  • C. The patient is eating too much protein
  • D. Decrease in renal tubular reabsorption
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Inflammation damages the filtration 'slits' in the glomerulus, allowing larger molecules like proteins (albumin) to leak out.

19
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Which nursing intervention is most effective for monitoring fluid status in a patient with GN?

  • A. Measuring abdominal girth once a week
  • B. Daily weights at the same time with the same scale
  • C. Checking skin turgor every hour
  • D. Monitoring heart rate every 8 hours
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Daily weights are the most accurate and sensitive non-invasive indicator of fluid volume changes.

20
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What is common in the medical history of a patient diagnosed with GN?

  • A. Recent travel to a tropical country
  • B. Recent sore throat or skin infection
  • C. History of kidney stones
  • D. Recent high-protein diet
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: APSGN often follows an upper respiratory infection or a skin infection like impetigo causing a 'stray' immune response.

21
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What is the primary goal of treatment during the acute phase of GN?

  • A. Increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to double normal levels
  • B. Protect the kidneys from further damage and manage symptoms
  • C. Rapidly hydrate the patient with IV fluids
  • D. Increase physical mobility
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Management focuses on controlling hypertension, edema, and nitrogenous waste while the inflammation resolves.

22
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Which of the following would be an expected finding in a urinalysis for a patient with GN?

  • A. Glucose
  • B. Casts
  • C. Ketones
  • D. Nitrites
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Protein and red blood cell casts are 'footprints' of glomerular inflammation and damage.

23
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A patient with GN has a sudden decrease in urine output to 100\text{ mL} in 24 hours. How is this categorized?

  • A. Polyuria
  • B. Dysuria
  • C. Oliguria
  • D. Anuria
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Oliguria is defined as urine output less than 400\text{ mL} per day in adults. (Anuria is less than 50 to 100\text{ mL}).

24
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True or False: Antibiotics are given in GN to heal the damaged glomeruli.

Answer: False

Rationale: Antibiotics are given only to eliminate any remaining streptococcal bacteria (the source) but have no direct effect on the immune complexes already in the glomeruli.

25
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A child with GN presents with a headache and blurred vision. What should the nurse do first?

  • A. Administer acetaminophen for the headache
  • B. Assess the blood pressure
  • C. Check the child's pupillary response
  • D. Encourage the child to sleep
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: These are warning signs of hypertensive encephalopathy; blood pressure assessment is critical to determine the severity.

26
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Which electrolytes are most likely to be elevated in the blood of a GN patient? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Potassium
  • B. Sodium (dilutional can occur, but retention is common)
  • C. Phosphate
  • D. Calcium
  • E. Magnesium
Correct Answers: A, C

Rationale: As kidney function fails, the ability to excrete Potassium and Phosphate decreases. Calcium often decreases in inverse proportion to Phosphate.

27
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Why is the skin often itchy (pruritus) in patients with chronic GN?

  • A. Allergic reaction to antibiotics
  • B. Accumulation of urea and waste products (Uremic Frost)
  • C. Excessive use of soap
  • D. Decreased blood flow to the skin
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Uremia (high levels of urea and other toxins in the blood) leads to waste being excreted through the sweat, causing itching.

28
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A nurse is checking the lab results for a patient with GN. The Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) is elevated. This indicates:

  • A. The client is dehydrated
  • B. The kidneys are not filtering nitrogenous waste effectively
  • C. The liver is overproducing urea
  • D. The client is consuming too many fluids
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: BUN rises when the glomerular filtration rate decreases, resulting in the buildup of breakdown products of protein metabolism.

29
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Nephritic syndrome (associated with GN) is primarily characterized by which triad?

  • A. Hematuria, Hypertension, and Oliguria
  • B. Hypotension, Edema, and Tachycardia
  • C. Hyperglycemia, Hematuria, and Weight loss
  • D. Anuria, Fever, and Flank pain
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The 'Nephritic' signs result from the inflammatory clogging of the glomeruli.

30
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When educating a patient on fluid restriction, what is the 'insensible loss' usually estimated at?

  • A. 100\text{ mL}
  • B. 500\text{ mL} to 600\text{ mL}
  • C. 1000\text{ mL}
  • D. 2000\text{ mL}
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Fluid restriction is often calculated as 'previous day's urine output + 500 to 600\text{ mL}' (covering loss from sweat and respiration).

31
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What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with GN who has crackles and a weight gain of 5\text{ lbs} in 2 days?

  • A. Risk for infection
  • B. Fluid Volume Excess
  • C. Impaired Skin Integrity
  • D. Knowledge Deficit
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The physical signs (crackles, weight gain) indicate a critical imbalance in fluid volume exceeding the body's compensations.

32
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A patient with GN should be taught to avoid which over-the-counter medications due to nephrotoxicity?

  • A. Acetaminophen
  • B. NSAIDs (e.g., Ibuprofen, Naproxen)
  • C. Antacids containing aluminum
  • D. Vitamin C
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandins that maintain renal blood flow, which can exacerbate renal failure in GN.

33
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In GN, what is the physiological reason for Periorbital Edema?

  • A. Gravity pulling fluid to the face
  • B. Low pressure in the facial tissues allowing fluid to accumulate during sleep
  • C. Increased intracranial pressure
  • D. Infection of the eyes
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Because facial tissues have low tissue pressure, fluid easily collects there, especially in the morning after being recumbent.

34
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Which of the following is an early sign of Acute Kidney Injury in a client with GN?

  • A. Severe flank pain
  • B. Sudden drop in urine output
  • C. High fever
  • D. Jaundice
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is the most common early indicator of declining glomerular filtration.

35
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What is the effect of GN on Serum Albumin levels?

  • A. They increase significantly
  • B. They stay the same
  • C. They decrease (Hypoalbuminemia)
  • D. Only the globulin levels change
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Loss of albumin through the damaged glomerular membrane into the urine lowers the level of albumin in the blood.

36
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During the recovery phase of GN, what usually happens to the urine?

  • A. It becomes very dark
  • B. It becomes clear and increases in volume
  • C. It stops completely
  • D. It becomes thick with mucus
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: As inflammation subsides, the kidneys regain filtration capacity, leading to diuresis and clearing of blood/protein.

37
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Corticosteroids may be used in certain types of GN to:

  • A. Kill the bacteria
  • B. Suppress the inflammatory/immune response
  • C. Increase urine output
  • D. Lower blood glucose
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Steroids like Prednisone reduce the immune activity attacking the glomerular basement membrane.

38
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Which finding should be reported to the provider immediately for a GN patient?

  • A. Urine output of 30\text{ mL}/\text{hr}
  • B. Weight gain of 2\text{ kg} in one day
  • C. A mild headache
  • D. $1+$ pitting edema
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Significant weight gain (2\text{ kg} = 4.4\text{ lbs}) suggests rapid fluid retention that could lead to heart failure or pulmonary edema.

39
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A child with GN is in the playroom. Which activity is most appropriate?

  • A. Tugging-of-war
  • B. Jumping on a trampoline
  • C. Sitting and coloring
  • D. Playing tag
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During the acute phase, quiet, low-energy activities are preferred to maintain bed rest/restricted activity protocol.

40
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Which of the following is NOT a common cause of Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
  • B. Group A Strep
  • C. Goodpasture Syndrome
  • D. Chronic Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: UTIs usually affect the lower urinary tract or renal pelvis (Pyelonephritis), whereas GN is an autoimmune/inflammatory process of the glomeruli.

41
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What change in the 'Specific Gravity' of urine is expected in the acute phase of GN?

  • A. Fixed at 1.010
  • B. Low (< 1.005)
  • C. Elevated (> 1.025)
  • D. Zero
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The urine is typically concentrated (low volume, high solute) in the early stages, unless the kidneys have reached a state of 'fixed' gravity due to severe damage.

42
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Which assessment is most important for a patient receiving IV Furosemide for GN-related edema?

  • A. Monitoring hearing (Ototoxicity)
  • B. Monitoring Blood Pressure
  • C. Assessing for skin rashes
  • D. Checking bowel sounds
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: While ototoxicity is a risk, Furosemide is given to lower BP and resolve fluid overload; rapid shifts in BP must be monitored.

43
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Which is an expected outcome for a patient with GN?

  • A. Hematocrit of 25\%,
  • B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds
  • C. Blood pressure of 160/110
  • D. Weight gain of 3\text{ lbs} per week
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clear breath sounds indicate that the patient is not in pulmonary edema, a primary goal of fluid management.

44
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Azotemia in GN is defined as:

  • A. Excessive sugar in the urine
  • B. Accumulation of nitrogenous waste in the blood
  • C. Low potassium in the blood
  • D. High levels of white blood cells in the urine
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Azotemia refers to the elevation of BUN and Creatinine.

45
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What is the rationale for restricting sodium in a patient with GN?

  • A. Sodium causes the urine to turn dark
  • B. Sodium attracts water, worsening edema and hypertension
  • C. Sodium destroys the glomerular membrane
  • D. Sodium interferes with antibiotic absorption
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Water follows sodium; excessive sodium intake expands the extracellular fluid volume.

46
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Which type of diet is usually recommended for a child with recovery-phase GN and no signs of failure?

  • A. Regular diet with no added salt
  • B. High calorie, high protein
  • C. Fluid restriction to 200\text{ mL}/\text{day}
  • D. NPO status
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Once recovery begins (diuresis, normal BP), the diet can transition to regular, though salt is still often moderated.

47
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What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with GN who is also taking Digoxin for heart failure?

  • A. Signs of Digoxin toxicity due to decreased renal clearance
  • B. Increased effect of antibiotics
  • C. Decreased blood pressure
  • D. Iron deficiency
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Digoxin is excreted by the kidneys. If GN has markedly reduced GFR, Digoxin can build up to toxic levels.

48
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True or False: Most children with APSGN recover completely without permanent damage.

Answer: True

Rationale: Over 95\% of children with Acute Post-Streptococcal GN recover fully with conservative management.

49
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Which sign indicates that GN is progressing to Chronic Glomerulonephritis?

  • A. Sudden resolution of all symptoms
  • B. Persistent proteinuria and hematuria over months/years
  • C. A single negative ASO titer
  • D. Occasional headaches
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ongoing presence of protein or blood in the urine indicates the inflammatory process has not resolved and is causing permanent damage.

50
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Which test is used to monitor the effectiveness of protein restriction in a GN patient?

  • A. Serum Creatinine
  • B. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
  • C. Hemoglobin A1c
  • D. Urine Culture
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: BUN is a direct byproduct of protein metabolism; if it stays very high, protein intake usually needs further reduction.

51
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In Glomerulonephritis, why might a patient develop anemia?

  • A. Loss of blood in the urine and decreased Erythropoietin production
  • B. High sodium levels destroying RBCs
  • C. Lack of Vitamin K
  • D. Excessive water intake diluting the blood
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hematuria causes 'chronic' blood loss, and diseased kidneys produce less Erythropoietin, the hormone needed for RBC production.

52
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Which of the following is a symptom of Pulmonary Edema, a complication of GN?

  • A. Dry cough and bradycardia
  • B. Pink, frothy sputum and dyspnea
  • C. Sharp chest pain on inspiration
  • D. Increased urine output
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Fluid in the alveoli presents as shortness of breath and classic pink-tinged frothy sputum.

53
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A nurse is assessing a male client with GN. He has significant scrotal edema. What is the priority nursing intervention?

  • A. Apply heat to the area
  • B. Provide a scrotal support (sling) and elevate
  • C. Encourage the client to walk more
  • D. Limit all intake of protein
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Elevation and support help reduce edema in dependent areas and improve comfort.

54
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A patient with GN asks why their urine is so 'cloudy.' The nurse explains this is due to:

  • A. Sugar in the urine
  • B. The presence of protein and sediment (casts/cells)
  • C. Not drinking enough orange juice
  • D. Use of diuretics
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Increased protein and the presence of casts/RBCs change the clarity and color of the urine.

55
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Which of the following are nursing priorities for GN? (Select all that apply)

  • A. Fluid volume management
  • B. Skin integrity for edematous areas
  • C. Promoting high-intensity exercise
  • D. Monitoring for neurological changes
  • E. Balancing rest and activity
Correct Answers: A, B, D, E

Rationale: Fluid balance is #1. Skin is fragile