BIO245 Exam 3 Practice

c. Yes, with extended exposure times

Can halogens be sporicidal?

a. No, halogens are never sporicidal

b. Yes, but only when combined with heat

c. Yes, with extended exposure times

d. Yes, but only for G+ spores

c. Sterilization

At the point of what on the Death Curve is microbial survival unlikely?

a. Lag phase

b. Death phase

c. Sterilization

d. Stationary phase

a. Toxic, easy to develop resistance, cause allergic reactions

Why are heavy metals not often used for antimicrobial purposes?

a. Toxic, easy to develop resistance, cause allergic reactions

b. They only work on viruses

c. Beneficial to most microbes, but cause antimicrobial resistance in humans

d. They are ineffective against G- bacteria

b. Concentration and contact time

How is the effectiveness of chemical controls determined?

a. Temperature and oxygen level

b. Concentration and contact time

c. Gram status of the bacteria

d. Light exposure and humidity

a. When items are too sensitive to withstand heat from autoclaving

When is tyndallization used?

a. When items are too sensitive to withstand heat from autoclaving

b. When high pressure sterilization is required

c. When the presence of prions is suspected

d. Most often for surgical tools

a. Causes ions to form, harming DNA

What is the sterilization mechanism of ionizing radiation?

a. Causes ions to form, harming DNA

b. Causes pyrimidine dimers to form, harming DNA

c. Inhibits cell wall synthesis, leading to cell lysis

d. Lowers surface tension of membrane

c. Denaturing proteins

What is the mode of action of heat?

a. Disrupts cell wall synthesis

b. Disrupts cell membrane synthesis

c. Denaturing proteins

d. Blocks DNA replication and transcription

b. Enveloped viruses

Which microbe is the easiest to get rid of?

a. G- pathogens

b. Enveloped viruses

c. Fungal sexual spores

d. Prions

c. A homogenous population

Which will not influence the Death Curve?

a. Temperature

b. Concentration of microbial agent

c. A homogenous population

d. A mixed microbial population

b. 3 hours

How many hours of exposure does it take for aldehydes to be sporicidal?

a. 24 hours

b. 3 hours

c. 1 hours

d. 12 hours

E Applied to living tissue

B Physical or chemical. Destroys vegetative pathogens

D Destroys or removes all viable microbes

A Reduces microbial loads to safe levels

C chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes

Match the disinfection method with the definitions:

a. Sanitization

b. Disinfection

c. Antimicrobial

d. Sterilization

e. Antiseptic

__ Applied to living tissue

__ Physical or chemical. Destroys vegetative pathogens

__ Destroys or removes all viable microbes

__ Reduces microbial loads to safe levels

__ chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes

b. The lowest temperature that can be used to kill all microbes in a sample in 10

minutes

What is the Thermal Death Point?

a. The shortest exposure time necessary to kill all test microbes at a given

temperature

b. The lowest temperature that can be used to kill all microbes in a sample in 10

minutes

c. The point below which spores stop forming

d. The time requires to kill half of the microbial load

c. Antiseptic

Which type of control is used on living tissue?

a. Sterilization

b. Disinfectant

c. Antiseptic

d. Bactericides

b. Destroy cell membranes

How do alcohols affect microbes at 50% concentration?

a. Denature cell membrane proteins

b. Destroy cell membranes

c. Block ribosome transcription

d. Forms free radicals to disrupt nucleotide function

c. 100 °C for 30 minutes

What are the parameters for boiling water to remove vegetable pathogens?

a. 100 °C for 10 minutes

b. 100 °F for 30 minutes

c. 100 °C for 30 minutes

d. 212 °F for 90 minutes

b. UV

What kind of radiation causes pyrimidine dimers?

a. Gamma Rays

b. UV

c. X-Rays

d. Infrared

b. Chlorine dioxide gas disrupts proteins while ethylene oxide gas reactions with proteins.

What is the difference between chloride dioxide gas and ethylene oxide gas as chemical controls of microbial load?

a. Chlorine dioxide gas reacts with proteins while ethylene oxide gas disrupts proteins.

b. Chlorine dioxide gas disrupts proteins while ethylene oxide gas reactions with proteins.

c. Chlorine dioxide gas forms free radicals while ethylene oxide gas oxidizes protein substrates.

d. Chlorine dioxide gas and ethylene oxide gas are physical controls because they are gaseous.

a. Breaks disulfide bridges on enzymes; damages DNA, RNA, fatty acids

What is the mode of action of chlorine?

a. Breaks disulfide bridges on enzymes; damages DNA, RNA, fatty acids

b. Blocks ribosomes for protein synthesis; damages enzymes and metabolism

c. Inhibits cell wall synthesis; causes cell lysis

d. Produces free radicals; damages lipoproteins and lipopolysaccharides

c. Aseptic technique

What technique is used for the prevention of microbial growth?

a. Sterilization

b. Disinfection

c. Aseptic technique

d. Pasteurization

d. Non-enveloped viruses

Against what are alcohols not very effective?

a. G+ bacteria

b. G- bacteria

c. Fungi

d. Non-enveloped viruses

c. Naked viruses

Which microbe is moderately difficult to get rid of?

a. Bacterial vegetative cells

b. Enveloped viruses

c. Naked viruses

d. Prions

b. G+

Against what microbes are cationic detergents effective?

a. Protozoans

b. G+

c. G-

d. Archaea

d. Escherichia coli

Which pathogen is not a target of pasteurization?

a. Salmonella

b. Campylobacter jejuni

c. Listeria monocytogenes

d. Escherichia coli

c. Sanitization → Disinfection → Sterilization

Rank the degrees of disinfection from least to most effective:

a. Disinfection → Sanitization → Sterilization

b. Sterilization → Disinfection → Sanitization

c. Sanitization → Disinfection → Sterilization

d. Antiseptics → Sanitization → Sterilization

b. Fruits, vegetables, meats

What is ionizing radiation used to sterilize?

a. Surgical tools

b. Fruits, vegetables, meats

c. Air and water

d. Equipment that is too delicate to be autoclaved

a. Bacterial endospores

Which microbes is most difficult to get rid of?

a. Bacterial endospores

b. Yeast

c. Protozoan trophozoites

d. Staphylococcus spp.

d. Ultrahigh Temperature Pasteurization

What method completely sterilizes milk?

a. Flash Pasteurization

b. High-Temperature Short-Time Pasteurization

c. Low-Temperature Long-Time Pasteurization

d. Ultrahigh Temperature Pasteurization

b. By forming free radicals that damage cellular components

How does hydrogen peroxide kill cells?

a. By denaturing ribosomes, blocking protein synthesis

b. By forming free radicals that damage cellular components

c. By disrupting cell walls, altering diffusion

d. By targeting DNA Pol III specifically, preventing DNA replication

b. False (Bactericidal does)

True or false: bacteriostatic means killing bacteria

a. True

b. False

c. Bunsen Burner

What is not a type of moist heat control?

a. Steam under pressure

b. Tantalization

c. Bunsen Burner

d. Pasteurization

d. Disinfectant

What control technique gets rid of toxins produced by pathogens?

a. Antiseptic

b. Sanitization

c. Sterilization

d. Disinfectant

c. Logarithmic

The microbial Death Curve is ____________ meaning each increment is a 10x reduction

in population size

a. Exponential

b. Multiplicative

c. Logarithmic

d. Parabolic

D metal

B Alcohol

C Radiation

A Penicillin

Match the mode of action target with the drug example

a. Cell Wall

b. Cell membrane

c. Nucleic Acid Synthesis

d. Protein Function

__ metal

__ Alcohol

__ Radiation

__ Penicillin

b. Denature proteins through coagulation

How do alcohols affect microbes at 50-95% concentration?

a. Oxidize cell walls with free radicals

b. Denature proteins through coagulation

c. Destroy cell membranes through contamination

d. Inactive ribosomes with transcriptase blockers

a. 60 – 135 °C

For the physical control of microbial growth, what is the temperature range for moist

heat?

a. 60 – 135 °C

b. 30 – 90 °C

c. 80 – 200 °C

d. 100 – 500 °C

c. 30 PSI, 121 °C

What is the temperature and pressure used in an autoclave?

a. 15 PSI, 100 °C

b. 25 PSI, 115 °C

c. 30 PSI, 121 °C

d. 10 PSI, 90 °C

d. 20,000 cells/mL

How many microbes are allowed in milk after pasteurization?

a. Milk must be completely sterilized

b. 1,000 cells/mL

c. 10,000 cells/mL

d. 20,000 cells/mL

b. Disrupting cell membranes or altering protein and/or nucleic acid structures

What are the main mechanisms by which chemical controls work?

a. Blocking cell wall synthesis or denaturing proteins and/or nucleic acid structures

b. Disrupting cell membranes or altering protein and/or nucleic acid structures

c. Inhibiting ATP synthesis and causing the metabolic dysfunction

d. Destroying the nucleus and causing DNA denaturing

b. False (Not sporicidal)

True or false: alcohols are sporicidal and destroy cell membranes

a. True

b. False

c. Things are easily re-contaminated when removed from water

What is a concern with using boiling as a sterilization technique?

a. It kills good microbes as well as bad microbes

b. It denatures the proteins of the materials sterilized

c. Things are easily re-contaminated when removed from water

d. The water gets contaminated in the process

b. Pseudomonas

What type of microbe can grow in nonionic detergents?

a. Protozoans

b. Pseudomonas

c. Plasmodium

d. Trichinella spiralis

c. Exposure to light, alkaline pH, or organic matter can render halogens less effective

What are the limitations of halogens as antimicrobials?

a. Excessive oxygen, acidic pH, or inorganic compounds can render halogens less effective

b. Exposure to alkaloids, unstable pH, or excessive moisture can render halogens less effective

c. Exposure to light, alkaline pH, or organic matter can render halogens less effective

d. Halogens are extremely toxic to humans and so are used infrequently

b. They affect protein function and/or disrupt membranes

What is the mechanism of phenolics?

a. They affect nucleic acid function and/or disrupt walls

b. They affect protein function and/or disrupt membranes

c. They break bonds, causing ion formation

d. They denature proteins, disrupting metabolism

b. Denatures, oxidizes

What is the control mechanism of dry heat?

a. Reduces, forms peptide bonds

b. Denatures, oxidizes

c. Hydrolysis, deoxidizes

d. Causes DNA crosslinking

b. Radiation

Which is not a chemical control for microbial growth?

a. Gases

b. Radiation

c. Alcohols

d. Heavy metals

d. Lowers surface tension of membranes

How does targeting the cell membrane work to destroy microbes?

a. Causes lipoprotein dysfunction

b. Blocks transcription, preventing RNA from being made

c. Prevents cell membrane synthesis, thus inhibiting repair

d. Lowers surface tension of membrane

c. Young, more metabolically active cells

In the Death Curve, which cells die first?

a. Only metabolically efficient cells

b. Old, less metabolically active cells

c. Young, more metabolically active cells

d. Only metabolically inefficient cells

b. Filtration

What physical method removes microbes by passing fluid through a barrier of tiny pores?

a. Radiation

b. Filtration

c. Pasteurization

d. Incineration

c. Catalase

Which enzyme can break down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?

a. Oxidase

b. Lysozyme

c. Catalase

d. Peroxidase

b. Ionizing radiation ejects electrons to form ions, while non-ionizing radiation

excites atoms without ionizing them

What is the main difference between ionizing and non-ionizing radiation?

a. Ionizing radiation produces heat while non-ionizing does not

b. Ionizing radiation ejects electrons to form ions, while non-ionizing radiation

excites atoms without ionizing them

c. Non-ionizing radiation penetrates deeper into tissues

d. Ionizing radiation only damages proteins

c. 5-7 days

Within how many days of symptom development should antiviral treatment be started for

COVID?

a. 1-2 days

b. 3-4 days

c. 5-7 days

d. 10-14 days

a. They are eukaryotic, so selective toxicity is a concern

Why are antifungal drugs more difficult to prescribe or design?

a. They are eukaryotic, so selective toxicity is a concern

b. They are prokaryotic, so selective toxicity is a concern

c. They are eukaryotic, so selective permeability is a concern

d. They are prokaryotic, so selective permeability is a concern

b. G-

Drugs that target cell membrane function are most effective against which type of

bacteria?

a. G+

b. G-

c. Aerobic

d. Anaerobic

c. Locomotor appendages

Which is not a target of antimicrobial drugs?

a. Cell wall

b. Cell Membrane

c. Locomotor appendages

d. Metabolic pathways

b. Spontaneous mutation in chromosomal genes

How does drug resistance happen?

a. Structured mutation in chromosomal genes

b. Spontaneous mutation in chromosomal genes

c. Structured mutation in plasmid genes

d. Spontaneous mutation in plasmid genes

c. Other microbes

What is the primary source of antibiotics?

a. Synthetic medicine

b. Eukaryotes exclusively

c. Other microbes

d. Prokaryotes exclusively

B Penicillin

D Polymyxins

C Rifampin

A Oxazolidinones

E Trimethoprim

Match the antimicrobial target with the drug:

a. Protein Synthesis

b. Cell Wall

c. Nucleic Acid Synthesis

d. Cell Membrane

e. Metabolic Pathways

__ Penicillin

__ Polymyxins

__ Rifampin

__ Oxazolidinones

__ Trimethoprim

b. By blocking peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

A drug that blocks cell wall synthesis acts how?

a. By blocking the enzymes that perform DNA replication

b. By blocking peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

c. By disrupting membrane lipids altering selective permeability

d. By blocking peptidases that cross-link lipopolysaccharides

d. It inhibits protease

What is the mechanism of Paxlovid?

a. It blocks reverse transcriptase

b. It inhibits RNA polymerase

c. It alters selective permeability

d. It inhibits protease

c. 45,000

How many people in the U.S. died last year from the flu?

a. 10,000

b. 25,000

c. 45,000

d. 100,000

b. DNA synthetase

Which is not a target for the HIV/AIDS virus?

a. Reverse transcriptase

b. DNA synthetase

c. HIV integrase

d. Proteases

a. Folate metabolism

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim interfere with what?

a. Folate metabolism

b. Cobalamin metabolism

c. Peptidoglycan synthesis

d. Enzyme synthesis

b. Narrow-spectrum

If a drug targets nucleic acid synthesis, which spectrum is most likely?

a. This drug is highly specified and does not have a spectrum

b. Narrow-spectrum

c. Medium-spectrum

d. Broad-spectrum

b. False

True or false: Shingles is curable with the vaccine Shingrix.

a. True

b. False

c. Selective toxicity

How do antimicrobials work?

a. Toxicity to all cells

b. Decreasing metabolic processes

c. Selective toxicity

d. Blocking oxygen access

a. Quinolones stops DNA replication, Rifampin inhibits RNA synthesis

What is the functional difference between Quinolones and Rifampin?

a. Quinolones stops DNA replication, Rifampin inhibits RNA synthesis

b. Rifampin stops DNA replication, Quinolones inhibit RNA synthesis

c. Both inhibit protein synthesis, but only Quinolones stop DNA replication

d. Both inhibit protein synthesis, but only Rifampim stops DNA replication

d. Streptomyces

What microbe is the source of 1/3 of all currently prescribed antibiotics?

a. Bacillus

b. Streptococcus

c. Cephalosporium

d. Streptomyces

b. Streptomyces and Bacillus species

What are the primary bacterial sources of antibiotics?

a. Streptococcus and Cephalosporium species

b. Streptomyces and Bacillus species

c. Penicillium and Cephalosporium species

d. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species

c. Cephalosporins

What was not used as an ancient antimicrobial?

a. Herbs, honey, and bread mold,

b. Tetracycline

c. Cephalosporins

d. Heavy metals

a. Block neuraminidase

What is the mechanism of Zanamivir and Tamiflu?

a. Block neuraminidase

b. Block DNA replication

c. Inhibit protein synthesis

d. Disrupt viral envelope

c. Peptidoglycan

What is the primary target for selective toxicity?

a. Lipopolysaccharides

b. Nucleic acids

c. Peptidoglycan

d. Cytoplasm

b. Causes loss of selective permeability while maintaining selective toxicity

What is the mechanism of polyenes?

a. Causes loss of selective toxicity, while maintaining selective permeability

b. Causes loss of selective permeability while maintaining selective toxicity

c. Blocks ribosomes, inhibiting protein synthesis

d. Targets peptidoglycan, breaking glycan linkages

a. Alexander Fleming

Who discovered penicillin?

a. Alexander Fleming

b. Paul Erlich

c. Robert Hooke

d. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

D class of compounds that inhibit or kill microbes

B man-made antimicrobial drugs

C chemically modified antimicrobial drugs

A natural antimicrobial drugs

Match the term with its definition:

a. Natural Antibiotic

b. Synthetic antimicrobial

c. Semisynthetic antimicrobial

d. Antimicrobial drugs

__ class of compounds that inhibit or kill microbes

__ man-made antimicrobial drugs

__ chemically modified antimicrobial drugs

__ natural antimicrobial drugs

d. Varicella zoster virus

Which virus causes shingles?

a. Herpes simplex virus

b. Epstein-Barr virus

c. Cytomegalovirus

d. Varicella zoster virus

b. Combination therapy

What term describes taking at least two drugs to treat an infection?

a. Monotherapy

b. Combination therapy

c. Prophylaxis

d. Resistance therapy

B Block attachment of tRNA

C prevent 30S and 50S subunits from assembling together

A Bind to 30S subunit

Match the drug to the function:

a. Aminoglycosides

b. Tetracyclines

c. Oxazolidinones

__ Block attachment of tRNA

__ prevent 30S and 50S subunits from assembling together

__ Bind to 30S subunit

c. Target

A drug’s spectrum is its range of activity. On what does a drug’s spectrum depend?

a. Dose

b. Duration

c. Target

d. Microbe origin

a. G+

Against which type of bacteria are Penicillins and cephalosporins most effect?

a. G+

b. G-

c. Aerobes

d. Anaerobes

b. False

True or false: Griseofulvin is an antifungal drug that mimics lipids in cell membranes and can cause fatigue and irregular heartbeat.

a. True

b. False

b. They rely on host machinery

What is the main difficulty in stopping or preventing viral replication?

a. They mutate rapidly

b. They rely on host machinery

c. They lack easily targetable genetic material

d. They have no cell walls or membranes for drugs to target

b. Penicillium and Cephalosporium species

What are the primary fungal sources of antibiotics?

a. Streptomyces and Bacillus species

b. Penicillium and Cephalosporium species

c. Streptococcus and Cephalosporium species

d. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species

b. False

True or false: drug resistance is when an antimicrobial becomes resistant to a pathogen.

a. True

b. False

b. Macrolide polyene

Which antifungal is most likely to be used to treat a systemic infection?

a. Polyene

b. Macrolide polyene

c. Azoles

d. Flucytosine

b. Drug administered to prevent infection.

What is prophylaxis?

a. Drug administered with another drug

b. Drug administered to prevent infection

c. The combined affect of two drugs that work better together than separately

d. The process of taking a drug after symptoms have occurred

a. Cell membrane

Which antimicrobial target is most toxic to humans?

a. Cell membrane

b. Cell wall

c. Ribosomes

d. DNA

b. Medium-spectrum

If a drug works on most G- bacteria, which spectrum is most likely?

a. Narrow-spectrum

b. Medium-spectrum

c. Broad-spectrum

d. No spectrum (too specific)

a. Streptomyces

Which organism produces geosmin?

a. Streptomyces

b. Bacillus

c. Penicillium

d. Cephalosporium

C Common for resistance, inhibits DNA and protein synthesis

A Nephrotic, treats dermatic infections

D Targets fungal cell walls

B Targets ergosterol

Match the antifungal with the best description:

a. Griseofulvin

b. Azoles

c. Flucytosine

d. Caspofungin

__ Common for resistance, inhibits DNA and protein synthesis

__ Nephrotic, treats dermatic infections

__ Targets fungal cell walls

__ Targets ergosterol

c. Rifampin

What drug is used to treat Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections?

a. Penicillin

b. Tetracycline

c. Rifampin

d. Ciprofloxacin

b. False

True or false. Primaquinine is used for the infection of red blood cell life cycle stage of

Plasmodium?

a. True

b. False

b. Block action of enzymes by binding at substrate site

Which is not a mode of action for antiviral drugs?

a. Prevent viruses from adhering to or penetrating the host cell

b. Block action of enzymes by binding at substrate site

c. Block replication, transcription, and/or translation of viral genetic material

d. Prevent maturation of virus particles in the host or release of viral particles

a. Synergy

What is the unique effect that two drugs working together can provide?

a. Synergy

b. Concurrence

c. Resistance

d. Toxicity

c. Chitin, cellulose, and hemicellulose

What compounds are degraded by Streptomyces?

a. Proteins, lipids, and phospholipids

b. Lactose, beta galactomannan, and polysaccharides

c. Chitin, cellulose, and hemicellulose

d. Chitosan, keratin, and keratinosin

b. Older

A drug that targets cell wall synthesis is most effective against which type of cell?

a. Younger

b. Older

c. Prokaryotic

d. Eukaryotic

c. Broad-spectrum

Which spectrum would most accurately represent a quinolone drug?

a. Narrow-spectrum

b. Medium-spectrum

c. Broad-spectrum

d. No spectrum

a. Competitive inhibition

What mechanism is used by drugs that alter metabolic pathways?

a. Competitive inhibition

b. Allosteric inhibition

c. Uncompetitive inhibition

d. Irreversible inhibition

b. Azoles

Which antifungal could be considered broad-spectrum?

a. Griseofulvin

b. Azoles

c. Flucytosine

d. Caspofungin

c. Mefloquine

Which drug would be used to treat chloroquinine-resistant strains of Plasmodium?

a. Primaquinine

b. Chloroquinine

c. Mefloquine

d. Quinolone

c. G- cell membrane

What is an example of natural drug resistance?

a. Horizontal gene transfer

b. Mutation at target site

c. G- cell membrane

d. Altered metabolic pathways