BIOL 2610 - A&PI - Unit 2

The specialized surface on epithelial tissue that faces the external environment or a body cavity is the:
a) Basal surface
b) Apical surface
c) Basement membrane
d) Reticular lamina

b) Apical surface

Epithelial tissues can repair themselves quickly because they are highly _________.
a) cellular
b) polar
c) avascular
d) regenerative

d) regenerative

Epithelial tissue is avascular. How does it receive nutrients and remove waste?

b) By diffusion from underlying connective tissue

A simple squamous epithelium is best suited for what function?

a) Exchange and filtration

Where would you most likely find a simple cuboidal epithelium?

b) In kidney tubules

A stratified squamous epithelium is named for its flat cells at the apical surface. What is its main function?

d) Protection

Which type of epithelial tissue appears to have multiple layers but is actually a single layer of cells?

b) Pseudostratified columnar

Which of the following is NOT a primary function of connective tissue?

c) Communication and control

The ground substance of connective tissue is composed of what?

b) Interstitial fluid, cell adhesion proteins, and proteoglycans

Which of the following is a key characteristic of all connective tissues?

c) They have a nonliving extracellular matrix.

Which type of connective tissue fiber is the strongest and most abundant, providing high tensile strength?

c) Collagen fibers

Which type of connective tissue proper is found under epithelia, forming a soft packaging that holds tissue fluid?

a) Areolar

b) Dense regular

c) Adipose

d) Reticular

a) Areolar

Which type of connective tissue is primarily composed of parallel collagen fibers and is found in tendons and ligaments?

a) Areolar

b) Elastic

c) Dense regular

d) Hyaline cartilage

c) Dense regular

Which type of cartilage is found at the ends of long bones and helps provide smooth movement and shock absorption?

a) Areolar tissue

b) Hyaline cartilage

c) Elastic cartilage

d) Reticular cartilage

b) Hyaline cartilage

Which type of specialized connective tissue stores energy, insulates against heat loss, and protects organs?

a) Areolar

b) Adipose

c) Dense irregular

d) Reticular

b) Adipose

What is the main function of an osteocyte?

a) To secrete new bone matrix

b) To break down bone tissue

c) To maintain the bone matrix

d) To produce blood cells

c) To maintain the bone matrix

What is the most common type of cell found in connective tissue proper?

a) Macrophage

b) Chondrocyte

c) Osteocyte

d) Fibroblast

d) Fibroblast

Which type of tissue would be most poorly suited for a location requiring rapid exchange of gases, such as the alveoli of the lungs?

a) Simple squamous epithelium

b) Stratified squamous epithelium

c) Simple columnar epithelium

d) Areolar connective tissue

b) Stratified squamous epithelium

A biopsy of a patient's ligament reveals that the tissue is a dense, strong tissue with fibers running parallel to each other. This tissue is responsible for connecting bone to bone and is identified as:

a) Areolar connective tissue

b) Dense irregular connective tissue

c) Adipose tissue

d) Dense regular connective tissue

d) Dense regular connective tissue

What is the primary function of the fibroblast in connective tissue proper?

a) To break down the extracellular matrix.

b) To defend the body from foreign invaders.

c) To store fat for energy.

d) To produce the ground substance and fibers of the matrix.

d) To produce the ground substance and fibers of the matrix.

Which type of tissue is characterized by a high degree of cellularity and polarity, with an apical and basal surface?

a) Epithelial tissue

b) Connective tissue

c) Muscle tissue

d) Nervous tissue

a) Epithelial tissue

The shape of the external ear (pinna) is maintained by:

a) fibrocartilage

b) elastic cartilage

c) hyaline cartilage

d) costal cartilage

b) elastic cartilage

These migratory cells release the inflammatory chemical histamine (as well as heparin):

a) macrophages

b) osteocytes

c) chondrocytes

d) mast cells

d) mast cells

The deep layer of the dermis is called the ________; it is mainly composed of...

a) reticular layer; dense irregular connective tissue
b) restrictive layer; adipose and collagen

c) papillary layer; areolar connective tissue

d) papillary layer; dense regular connective tissue

a) reticular layer; dense irregular connective tissue

The most numerous cells in the epidermis are the...

a) fibroblasts

b) keratinocytes

c) melanocytes

d) Langerhans cells

b) keratinocytes

Most of the cells in the epidermis are connected to each other by...

a) Merkel discs

b) tonofilaments

c) desmosomes

d) gap junctions

c) desmosomes

Which type of muscle tissue contains cells which have multiple, peripheral nuclei in each cell?

a) cardiac muscle

b) smooth muscle

c) skeletal muscle

c) skeletal muscle

Which specific tissue provides support and shock absorption in intervertebral discs and menisci?

a) hyaline cartilage

b) fibrocartilage

c) reticular tissue

d) areolar tissue

b) fibrocartilage

What type of epithelium lines the urinary bladder and is specialized to stretch and change shape?

a) transitional epithelium

b) simple squamous epithelium

c) stratified squamous epithelium

a) transitional epithelium

Which of the four main tissue types is responsible for covering body surfaces and lining internal cavities?

a) connective

b) muscle

c) epithelial

c) epithelial

Which type of epithelial tissue, found lining the intestines, is specialized for absorption and secretion and often contains goblet cells?

a) adipose

b) simple columnar

c) stratified columnar

b) simple columnar

Which layer of the skin is composed primarily of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

a) Epidermis

b) Dermis

c) Hypodermis

d) Subcutaneous layer

a) Epidermis

What is the main function of keratinocytes in the epidermis?

a) Producing melanin to protect from UV radiation

b) Providing immune defense

c) Producing keratin, a tough protective protein

d) Acting as sensory receptors for touch

c) Producing keratin, a tough protective protein

Which layer of the epidermis is the most superficial and contains dead, flattened keratinocytes?

a) Stratum granulosum

b) Stratum spinosum

c) Stratum corneum

d) Stratum basale

c) Stratum corneum

The epidermal layer where cells are actively dividing and melanocytes are found is the:

a) Stratum lucidum

b) Stratum spinosum

c) Stratum granulosum

d) Stratum basale

d) Stratum basale

Which cells in the epidermis are responsible for providing immunity?

a) Merkel cells

b) Langerhans cells

c) Keratinocytes

d) Melanocytes

b) Langerhans cells

The main function of melanin is to:

a) Allow tactile sensation

b) Help in the synthesis of Vitamin D

c) Protect the skin from bacterial infections

d) Protect the DNA of skin cells from UV radiation

d) Protect the DNA of skin cells from UV radiation

Which layer of the dermis is composed of dense irregular connective tissue and provides the skin with its strength and flexibility?

a) Papillary layer

b) Reticular layer

c) Epidermis

d) Hypodermis

b) Reticular layer

The dermis is rich in blood vessels and nerve fibers. Its primary function is:

a) To serve as an insulator

b) To provide structural support and sensation

c) To regulate body temperature by secreting sweat

d) To produce new skin cells

b) To provide structural support and sensation

Which gland is responsible for secreting an oily substance into a follicle?

a) Eccrine gland

b) Sebaceous gland

c) Apocrine gland

d) Ceruminous gland

b) Sebaceous gland

What is the main function of sebum?

a) Cooling the body through evaporation

b) Lubricating the skin and hair, and preventing water loss

c) Attracting other individuals for communication

d) Providing protection against UV radiation

b) Lubricating the skin and hair, and preventing water loss

Which type of sweat gland is found all over the body, especially on the palms and soles, and is responsible for cooling the body?

a) Eccrine gland

b) Apocrine gland

c) Sebaceous gland

d) Ceruminous gland

a) Eccrine gland

The part of the hair that is embedded in the skin and enclosed by the hair follicle is the:

a) Hair root

b) Hair shaft

c) Hair bulb

d) Hair matrix

a) Hair root

What is the primary function of the arrector pili muscle?

a) To secrete sweat

b) To produce sebum

c) To cause hair to stand on end (goosebumps)

d) To provide structural support to the hair follicle

c) To cause hair to stand on end (goosebumps)

The body's primary mechanism for heat loss on a hot day is:

a) Vasoconstriction in the dermis

b) Insulation by adipose tissue

c) Arrector pili muscle contraction

d) Evaporation of sweat

d) Evaporation of sweat

Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the integumentary system?

a) Protection

b) Sensation

c) Vitamin D synthesis

d) Production of blood cells

d) Production of blood cells

The skin helps in thermoregulation by activating sweat glands and by:

a) Causing vasoconstriction in dermal blood vessels

b) Causing vasodilation in dermal blood vessels

c) Causing the arrector pili muscle to contract

d) Activating the sebaceous glands

b) Causing vasodilation in dermal blood vessels

The subcutaneous tissue, or hypodermis, is primarily composed of:

a) Dense regular connective tissue

b) Stratified squamous epithelium

c) Loose areolar connective tissue and dense irregular tissue

d) Adipose and areolar connective tissue

d) Adipose and areolar connective tissue

The hair on the scalp is _____ hair.

a) vellus

b) terminal

b) terminal

The cuticle of a nail is referred to as the _________.

a) eponychium

b) lunula

c) hyponychium

a) eponychium

An eccrine sweat gland is:

a) simple, tubular

b) simple, alveolar

c) compound, tubular

d) compound, alveolar

a) simple, tubular

Merkel (tactile) cells are found in which layer?

a) reticular layer

b) stratum lucidum

c) stratum spinosum

d) stratum basale

e) stratum corneum

d) stratum basale

Redness (e.g. blushing or inflammation) in a light skinned person is ______ caused by the pigmented

molecule ______.

a) hematoma; carotene

b) acne; melatonin

c) erythema; hemoglobin

d) cyanosis; bile

e) rosacea; hydroxyapetite

c) erythema; hemoglobin

Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to UV radiation?

a) vitamin K

b) vitamin D

c) vitamin E

b) vitamin D

Made up of big cells and air spaces, it is the very central layer of a hair:

a) cortex

b) shaft

c) medulla

c) medulla

Which of the following is NOT a primary function of bones?

a) Support

b) Mineral storage

c) Blood cell formation

d) Communication

d) Communication

A bone with a shaft, such as the humerus, is a...

a) Short bone

b) Long bone

c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone

b) Long bone

The fibrous connective tissue membrane that covers the outer surface of bone is the:

a) Endosteum

b) Marrow cavity

c) Articular cartilage

d) Periosteum

d) Periosteum

The shaft of a bone is called the:

a) Epiphysis

b) Articular cartilage

c) Metaphysis

d) Diaphysis

d) Diaphysis

The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called:

a) Lacunae

b) Canaliculi

c) Haversian canals

d) Volkmann's canals

a) Lacunae

Which type of cell is responsible for breaking down bone tissue?

a) Osteoblast

b) Osteocyte

c) Osteoclast

d) Chondroblast

c) Osteoclast

What is the primary function of an osteoblast?

a) To maintain the bone matrix

b) To build new bone tissue

c) To break down bone tissue

d) To produce bone marrow

b) To build new bone tissue

The process of bone formation is called:

a) Hemopoiesis

b) Ossification

c) Resorption

d) Condensation

b) Ossification

When blood calcium is low, secretion of ______ is triggered, which turns on _______.

a) calcitonin; osteocytes

b) growth hormone; chondrocytes

c) parathyroid hormone; osteoclasts

d) thyroid hormone; osteoblasts

c) parathyroid hormone; osteoclasts

A meatus is similar to a:

a. fossa b. ramus c. tubercle d. canal e. face

d. canal

Which is a key component to the osteoid of bone tissue?

a) collagen protein b) hydroxyapatite mineral

a) collagen protein

A "central canal" in compact bone runs through the center of a(n)...

a) interstitial lamella b) lacuna c) osteon d) trabecula e) diploe

c) osteon

Periosteum is firmly attached to bone via:

a) Canaliculi

b) Endosteum

c) Perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

d) Osteocytes

c) Perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

Which type of bone marrow is the primary site of blood cell production in an adult?

a) Red bone marrow

b) Yellow bone marrow

c) Spongy bone

d) Compact bone

a) Red bone marrow

The most inferior bone of the vertebral column is the:

a) Sacrum

b) Coccyx

c) Last lumbar vertebra

d) T-12

b) Coccyx

Ribs 8-9 are floating ribs.

a) true b) false

b) false

The first cervical vertebra (C1), which allows for the nodding motion of the head, is the:

a) Atlas

b) Axis

c) Coccyx

d) Sacrum

a) Atlas

What is the anatomical name for the collarbone?

a) Scapula

b) Humerus

c) Clavicle

d) Sternum

c) Clavicle

Which two bones form the pectoral girdle?

a) Humerus and scapula

b) Sternum and clavicle

c) Clavicle and scapula

d) Humerus and radius

c) Clavicle and scapula

Following a severe ankle sprain, a patient's X-ray shows a fracture of the medial malleolus. Based on this finding, which bone is affected?

a) Fibula b) Tibia c) Talus d) Calcaneus

b) Tibia

What is the largest and most superior bone of the coxal (hip) bone?

a) Ischium

b) Pubis

c) Sacrum

d) Ilium

d) Ilium

The socket of the hip joint is called the:

a) Pubic symphysis

b) Obturator foramen

c) Ischial tuberosity

d) Acetabulum

d) Acetabulum

The keystone bone of the cranium, which articulates with all other cranial bones, is the:

a) Frontal bone

b) Temporal bone

c) Sphenoid bone

d) Ethmoid bone

c) Sphenoid bone

Which facial bone is also known as the lower jaw?

a) Maxilla

b) Mandible

c) Zygomatic bone

d) Vomer

b) Mandible

Which bone of the skull contains the foramen magnum, through which the spinal cord passes?

a) Sphenoid bone

b) Ethmoid bone

c) Temporal bone

d) Occipital bone

d) Occipital bone

The "first metatarsal" is a bone found in the...

a) hand on the pinky side

b) hand on the thumb side

c) foot on the big toe side

d) foot on the little toe side

c) foot on the big toe side

What is the boat-shaped bone in the wrist that is often fractured when someone falls and lands on their hand?

a) pisiform b) lunate c) scaphoid d) catamaran e) trapezoid

c) scaphoid

The perpendicular plate is part of which skull bone?

a) Vomer

b) Ethmoid

c) Sphenoid

d) Palatine

b) Ethmoid

The bone that forms the heel of the foot is the:

a) Talus

b) Calcaneus

c) Navicular

d) Cuboid

b) Calcaneus

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

a) 5

b) 7

c) 12

d) 10

b) 7

If a patient sustains a fracture to the odontoid process, which type of movement will be most impaired?

a) dorsiflexion of the ankle

b) flexion of the wrist

c) extension of the knee

d) rotation of the neck

e) shrugging of the shoulders

d) rotation of the neck

Which is the medial bone of the forearm?

a) Humerus

b) Radius

c) Ulna

d) Scapula

c) Ulna